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General Principles of Medicine > Cells to Tissues > Flashcards

Cells to Tissues Flashcards

Week 2 of General Principles

1
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

Continuous process in males from puberty that produces four functional spermatids from one primary spermatocyte in ~64 days

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2
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Process that begins before birth, producing one functional ovum and three polar bodies from one primary oocyte

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3
Q

What are the mechanisms for genetic variability during meiosis?

A
  • Independent assortment
  • Crossing over
  • Random fertilization
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4
Q

What occurs during fertilization?

A
  • Sperm penetrates the ovum
  • Pronuclei fuse to restore diploid number
  • Cortical reaction prevents polyspermy
  • Calcium triggers completion of meiosis II
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5
Q

How is the morula formed?

A

Through rapid mitotic divisions resulting in blastomeres

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6
Q

What is blastogenesis?

A

Process where the morula compacts and forms a blastocoel leading to the development of a blastocyst

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7
Q

What are the three germ layers and their derivatives?

A
  • Ectoderm: Nervous system, epidermis, sense organs
  • Mesoderm: Muscle tissue, connective tissue, circulatory system, urogenital system
  • Endoderm: Digestive/respiratory tract lining, liver, pancreas
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8
Q

What is the function of serosal membranes?

A
  • Reduce friction
  • Produce lubricating fluid
  • Compartmentalize body cavities
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9
Q

What are the types of epithelial tissue?

A
  • Simple squamous
  • Simple cuboidal
  • Simple columnar
  • Stratified squamous
  • Stratified cuboidal
  • Stratified columnar
  • Pseudostratified columnar
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10
Q

What are the types of cell junctions?

A
  • Tight junctions
  • Adherens junctions
  • Desmosomes
  • Gap junctions
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11
Q

What are the types of glandular tissue?

A
  • Exocrine glands
  • Endocrine glands
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12
Q

Fill in the blank: The process where mesenchymal cells differentiate directly into osteoblasts is called _______.

A

[intramembranous ossification]

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13
Q

What are the types of bone cell types?

A
  • Osteoblasts
  • Osteocytes
  • Osteoclasts
  • Bone lining cells
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14
Q

What are the common bone disorders?

A
  • Osteoporosis
  • Osteomalacia/Rickets
  • Paget’s disease
  • Osteomyelitis
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15
Q

What are the major components of blood?

A
  • Plasma
  • Formed elements
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16
Q

What are the types of blood cell types?

A
  • Erythrocytes
  • Leukocytes
  • Platelets
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17
Q

True or False: Myeloid cell lines include T/B lymphocytes.

A

False

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18
Q

What are the key characteristics of muscular tissue?

A
  • Excitability
  • Contractility
  • Extensibility
  • Elasticity
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19
Q

What are the types of muscle cells?

A
  • Smooth muscle
  • Skeletal muscle
  • Cardiac muscle
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20
Q

What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction?

A

Calcium binds troponin, exposing myosin binding sites on actin

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21
Q

What are the embryonic origins of nervous tissue?

A
  • Neural tube: Forms CNS
  • Neural crest: Forms PNS and some CNS components
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22
Q

What are the cellular components of the nervous system?

A
  • Neurons
  • Glial cells
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23
Q

Fill in the blank: The anatomical position is characterized by the body being _______.

A

[upright, face forward, arms at sides, palms forward, feet together]

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24
Q

What are the anatomical planes?

A
  • Sagittal
  • Coronal
  • Transverse
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25
What is the significance of anatomical terminology?
Standardizes descriptions, aids in diagnosis, surgical planning, and imaging
26
What is spermatogenesis?
Continuous process in males from puberty producing four functional spermatids from one primary spermatocyte over ~64 days. ## Footnote Results in small, motile gametes.
27
What is oogenesis?
Begins before birth with primary oocytes arrested in prophase I, producing one functional ovum and three polar bodies from one primary oocyte. ## Footnote Completes first meiotic division before ovulation; second meiotic division completes only if fertilization occurs.
28
How long does spermatogenesis take to complete?
Approximately 64 days.
29
What are the main differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
Spermatogenesis produces four motile gametes; oogenesis produces one non-motile ovum. ## Footnote Spermatogenesis is continuous; oogenesis begins before birth.
30
What are the three mechanisms for genetic variability during meiosis?
1. Independent assortment 2. Crossing over 3. Random fertilization.
31
What is the significance of genetic variability?
Promotes adaptation, disease resistance, and species evolution.
32
List the steps involved in fertilization.
1. Sperm penetrates the ovum 2. Pronuclei fuse 3. Cortical reaction prevents polyspermy 4. Calcium triggers completion of meiosis II.
33
What is zygotic cleavage?
Rapid mitotic divisions within the zona pellucida, resulting in blastomeres and formation of the morula (16–32 cells). ## Footnote Establishes genetic makeup and initiates early development.
34
What happens during blastogenesis?
1. Morula compacts and forms a blastocoel 2. Blastocyst develops (inner cell mass + trophoblast).
35
What are the steps of implantation?
1. Blastocyst hatches from the zona pellucida 2. Trophoblast attaches to and invades the endometrium 3. Syncytiotrophoblast completes implantation (day 11–12 post-fertilization).
36
What are the consequences of failure in implantation?
Recurrent implantation failure (~10% in IVF) due to immunological factors, thrombophilias, or embryo aneuploidy.
37
What does the ectoderm develop into?
Nervous system, epidermis, sense organs.
38
What does the mesoderm develop into?
Muscle tissue, connective tissue, circulatory system, urogenital system.
39
What does the endoderm develop into?
Digestive/respiratory tract lining, liver, pancreas.
40
What are the three embryonic origins of epithelial tissue?
Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm ## Footnote Ectoderm gives rise to the epidermis and sweat glands; mesoderm forms kidney tubules and gonads; endoderm develops into gastrointestinal and respiratory tract lining.
41
What is the primary origin of serosal membranes?
Mesoderm ## Footnote Serosal membranes line cavities and cover organs.
42
What is the function of serosal membranes?
Reduce friction, produce lubricating fluid, compartmentalize body cavities ## Footnote Serosal membranes are composed of simple squamous epithelium and connective tissue.
43
Name three examples of serosal membranes.
Pleura, pericardium, peritoneum
44
What type of epithelial tissue is responsible for diffusion and filtration?
Simple squamous ## Footnote Found in structures like alveoli.
45
What is the primary function of simple cuboidal epithelial tissue?
Secretion and absorption ## Footnote Commonly found in kidney tubules.
46
What is the function of simple columnar epithelial tissue?
Absorption and secretion ## Footnote Typically located in the intestinal lining.
47
Which type of epithelial tissue provides protection and is found in the esophagus?
Stratified squamous
48
What is the function of stratified cuboidal epithelial tissue?
Protection and secretion ## Footnote Often found in sweat glands.
49
Where is stratified columnar epithelial tissue found?
Male urethra
50
What is the primary function of pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue?
Secretion and cilia action ## Footnote This type of tissue is commonly found in the respiratory tract.
51
What are the two criteria used for histological identification of epithelial tissue?
Cell shape, layers ## Footnote Cell shapes include squamous, cuboidal, and columnar; layers can be simple or stratified.
52
What are tight junctions?
Seal adjacent cells ## Footnote An example is the blood-brain barrier.
53
What is the function of adherens junctions?
Anchor cells ## Footnote They help maintain the integrity of epithelial sheets.
54
What type of junction provides strong adhesion between cells?
Desmosomes ## Footnote Commonly found in the skin epidermis.
55
What is the role of gap junctions?
Cell communication ## Footnote Example includes cardiac muscle.
56
What are the two main types of glandular tissue?
Exocrine glands, endocrine glands
57
What are the two categories of exocrine glands?
Simple, compound ## Footnote Simple glands have a single duct; compound glands have branched ducts.
58
How do endocrine glands function?
Secrete directly into bloodstream ## Footnote Example includes the thyroid gland.
59
What is the mechanism of merocrine secretion?
Exocytosis ## Footnote An example is pancreatic enzymes.
60
What characterizes apocrine secretion?
Cytoplasm released with secretion ## Footnote An example includes mammary glands.
61
What happens during holocrine secretion?
Entire cell disintegrates ## Footnote Example includes sebaceous glands.
62
What is the embryonic origin of connective tissue?
Mesoderm
63
What type of connective tissue cells are responsible for ECM synthesis?
Fibroblasts
64
Which cells are responsible for fat storage in connective tissue?
Adipocytes
65
What is the main function of macrophages in connective tissue?
Phagocytosis
66
What do mast cells release that acts as inflammatory mediators?
Histamines
67
Which cells are responsible for antibody production?
Plasma cells
68
What is the role of chondrocytes in connective tissue?
Cartilage matrix maintenance
69
Fill in the blank: Hematopoietic stem cells give rise to _______.
[Blood cells, immune cells]
70
What are the two types of cells involved in bone matrix maintenance?
Osteoblasts, Osteocytes
71
True or False: Adipocytes are involved in the immune response.
False
72
List the types of connective tissue cells.
* Fibroblasts * Adipocytes * Macrophages * Mast cells * Plasma cells * Chondrocytes * Osteoblasts/Osteocytes
73
What are osteoblasts?
Bone-forming cells; synthesize and secrete bone matrix. ## Footnote Osteoblasts are essential for bone growth and repair.
74
What is the function of osteocytes?
Mature bone cells; maintain bone tissue. ## Footnote Osteocytes are crucial for the health and maintenance of bone.
75
What do osteoclasts do?
Bone-resorbing cells; break down bone matrix. ## Footnote Osteoclasts are important for bone remodeling and calcium homeostasis.
76
What are bone lining cells?
Inactive osteoblasts covering bone surfaces. ## Footnote These cells play a role in regulating the passage of calcium ions.
77
Define compact bone.
Dense, organized with osteons (Haversian systems). ## Footnote Compact bone provides strength and support.
78
What is spongy bone?
Porous with trabeculae. ## Footnote Spongy bone is lighter and helps with shock absorption.
79
What is the periosteum?
Outer fibrous layer covering bones. ## Footnote The periosteum is involved in bone growth and repair.
80
What is the endosteum?
Inner membrane lining bone cavities. ## Footnote The endosteum contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts for bone remodeling.
81
What occurs during intramembranous ossification?
Mesenchymal cells differentiate directly into osteoblasts; no cartilage intermediate. ## Footnote This process is important for the formation of flat bones.
82
Where does endochondral ossification occur?
In long bones and vertebrae. ## Footnote This process involves the replacement of a cartilage model with bone.
83
What is a key similarity between intramembranous and endochondral ossification?
Both involve osteoblast activity and result in mature bone tissue formation. ## Footnote Understanding these processes is crucial for studying bone development.
84
What is osteoporosis?
Decreased bone density; increased fracture risk. ## Footnote It is often associated with aging and hormonal changes.
85
What causes osteomalacia/rickets?
Vitamin D deficiency, calcium or phosphate imbalance. ## Footnote These conditions lead to inadequate mineralization of bone.
86
What is Paget’s disease?
Abnormal remodeling of bone. ## Footnote It can lead to enlarged and weakened bones.
87
What is osteomyelitis?
Bone infection caused by bacterial/fungal infections via bloodstream or injury. ## Footnote This condition can be serious and requires prompt treatment.
88
What is the liquid component of blood that makes up 55% of its volume?
Plasma ## Footnote Plasma contains water, proteins, electrolytes, nutrients, hormones, and waste.
89
What are the cellular components of blood that account for 45% of its volume?
Formed elements ## Footnote Formed elements include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.
90
What is the primary function of erythrocytes?
Oxygen transport ## Footnote Erythrocytes are biconcave and lack a nucleus.
91
What is the role of leukocytes in the blood?
Immune defense ## Footnote Leukocytes include various types such as neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils.
92
What do neutrophils primarily do?
Bacteria phagocytosis ## Footnote Neutrophils are a type of leukocyte involved in the immune response.
93
Which type of leukocyte is responsible for adaptive immunity?
Lymphocytes ## Footnote Lymphocytes include T cells and B cells.
94
What is the function of monocytes?
Phagocytosis and antigen presentation ## Footnote Monocytes differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells in tissues.
95
What is the role of eosinophils?
Parasite defense and allergic response ## Footnote Eosinophils are involved in combating parasitic infections and allergic reactions.
96
What do basophils release?
Inflammatory mediators ## Footnote Basophils play a role in allergic reactions and inflammation.
97
What is the primary function of platelets?
Blood clotting ## Footnote Platelets are derived from megakaryocytes.
98
What cell types are included in the myeloid cell line?
Erythrocytes, platelets, granulocytes, monocytes ## Footnote Myeloid cells generally have a shorter lifespan.
99
What cell types are included in the lymphoid cell line?
T/B lymphocytes, NK cells ## Footnote Lymphoid cells are primarily involved in adaptive immunity.
100
What characterizes iron deficiency anemia?
Insufficient iron; microcytic, hypochromic ## Footnote This type of anemia is characterized by smaller and paler red blood cells.
101
What causes vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
Impaired DNA synthesis; macrocytic, neurological symptoms ## Footnote Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to larger than normal red blood cells.
102
What is sickle cell anemia caused by?
Hemoglobin mutation; sickle-shaped cells, crises ## Footnote This genetic disorder affects the shape and function of red blood cells.
103
What are the defects associated with thalassemia?
Defects in globin chain production; microcytic anemia ## Footnote Thalassemia results in reduced hemoglobin production.
104
What is the term for the ability of muscle tissue to respond to stimuli?
Excitability
105
What is the term for the ability of muscle tissue to shorten and generate force?
Contractility
106
What is the ability of muscle tissue to stretch without damage called?
Extensibility
107
What is the term for the ability of muscle tissue to return to its original length?
Elasticity
108
What type of muscle is involuntary and non-striated?
Smooth muscle
109
What type of muscle is voluntary and striated?
Skeletal muscle
110
What type of muscle is involuntary and striated?
Cardiac muscle
111
What initiates muscle contraction in the sliding filament theory?
Calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum
112
What does calcium bind to during muscle contraction?
Troponin
113
What is exposed on actin when calcium binds to troponin?
Myosin binding sites
114
What forms when myosin binds to actin?
Cross-bridge formation
115
What powers the power stroke during muscle contraction?
ATP hydrolysis
116
What causes myosin to release from actin?
ATP binding
117
The cycle of muscle contraction continues until _______ is removed.
calcium
118
What forms the central nervous system (CNS)?
Neural tube ## Footnote The neural tube gives rise to the brain and spinal cord.
119
What forms the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and some components of the CNS?
Neural crest ## Footnote The neural crest is crucial for the development of the PNS.
120
What is the primary function of neurons?
Transmit signals ## Footnote Neurons are specialized cells responsible for carrying signals throughout the nervous system.
121
What are the types of glial cells?
* Astrocytes * Oligodendrocytes * Microglia * Ependymal cells * Schwann cells ## Footnote Glial cells support neurons and perform various functions in the nervous system.
122
What is the function of astrocytes?
Support neurons; maintain blood-brain barrier ## Footnote Astrocytes play a vital role in protecting neurons and regulating the environment around them.
123
What is the role of oligodendrocytes?
Myelinate CNS axons ## Footnote Oligodendrocytes are responsible for forming the myelin sheath around axons in the central nervous system.
124
What is the function of microglia?
Immune defense ## Footnote Microglia act as the immune cells of the central nervous system, responding to injury and disease.
125
What do ependymal cells do?
Line ventricles; produce cerebrospinal fluid ## Footnote Ependymal cells play a crucial role in the production and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid.
126
What is the function of Schwann cells?
Myelinate PNS axons ## Footnote Schwann cells are responsible for forming the myelin sheath around axons in the peripheral nervous system.
127
What is the soma of a neuron responsible for?
Signal integration ## Footnote The soma, or cell body, integrates signals received from dendrites.
128
What is the role of dendrites?
Receive signals ## Footnote Dendrites are the parts of a neuron that receive incoming signals from other neurons.
129
What is the primary function of an axon?
Conducts action potentials ## Footnote The axon transmits electrical impulses away from the soma to other neurons or muscles.
130
What is the purpose of the myelin sheath?
Insulates axons; speeds conduction ## Footnote The myelin sheath improves the speed and efficiency of signal transmission along the axon.
131
What are the nodes of Ranvier?
Gaps in myelin; enable saltatory conduction ## Footnote Nodes of Ranvier facilitate rapid signal transmission by allowing action potentials to jump between nodes.
132
Who myelinates axons in the CNS?
Oligodendrocytes ## Footnote Oligodendrocytes are specialized cells that myelinate axons in the central nervous system.
133
Who myelinates axons in the PNS?
Schwann cells ## Footnote Schwann cells are responsible for the myelination of axons in the peripheral nervous system.
134
True or False: The CNS has better regeneration capability than the PNS.
False ## Footnote The PNS has better regeneration capabilities compared to the CNS.
135
What is the anatomical position?
Upright, face forward, arms at sides, palms forward, feet together.
136
What is the clinical importance of the anatomical position?
Standardizes descriptions, aids in diagnosis, surgical planning, and imaging.
137
What does the sagittal plane divide?
Left/right.
138
What does the coronal plane divide?
Front/back.
139
What does the transverse plane divide?
Top/bottom.
140
List the directional terms used in anatomy.
* Superior * Inferior * Anterior * Posterior * Medial * Lateral * Proximal * Distal
141
List the regional terms used in anatomy.
* Cephalic * Thoracic * Abdominal * Pelvic
142
What are the two main body cavities?
* Dorsal (brain/spinal cord) * Ventral (thoracic, abdominopelvic)
143
What are the types of movements in anatomy?
* Flexion * Extension * Abduction * Adduction * Rotation * Pronation * Supination
144
Fill in the blank: The anatomical position is described as being upright, face forward, arms at sides, palms forward, and feet _______.
[together]
145
True or False: The anatomical position is used to standardize descriptions in medicine.
True

General Principles of Medicine (11 decks)

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