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Cells and tissues 2 MC > Cells and tissues 2 MC > Flashcards

Cells and tissues 2 MC Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which one of the following is NOT true about the plasma membrane:
    A) it consists of two lipid layers.
    B) it contains proteins for specialized functions.
    C) it regulates the entry and exit of cell materials.
    D) it allows water soluble molecules to pass through easily.
    E) its lipid components are primarily phospholipids and cholesterol.
A

D) it allows water soluble molecules to pass through easily.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT part of the cell theory:
    A) the continuity of life has a cellular basis.
    B) the human body is composed of 50 to 100 trillion cells.
    C) cells are the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.
    D) the activity of an organism depends on its collective cellular activities.
    E) the biochemical activities of cells depend on the number of their subcellular structures.
A

B) the human body is composed of 50 to 100 trillion cells.

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3
Q 
1.	The molecules that make the cell surface fuzzy, sticky, and sugar-rich are the:
A)	proteins.
B)	glycoproteins.
C)	phospholipids.
D)	lipid molecules.
E)	cholesterol molecules.
A

B) glycoproteins.

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4
Q 
1.	Which of the following is NOT a structural component of the nucleus:
A)	nucleolus.
B)	chromatin.
C)	nuclear pores.
D)	Golgi apparatus.
E)	nuclear envelope.
A

D) Golgi apparatus.

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5
Q 
1.	Nutrients and ions can pass directly from cell to cell through special membrane junctions known as:
A)	microvilli.
B)	inclusions.
C)	gap junctions.
D)	desmosomes.
E)	tight junctions.
A

C) gap junctions.

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6
Q
  1. The three major components of the cytoplasm are the:
    A) cytosol, inclusions, and nucleoli.
    B) cytosol, organelles, and nucleoli.
    C) cytosol, organelles, and inclusions.
    D) organelles, inclusions, and nucleoli.
    E) organelles, inclusions, and ribosomes.
A

B) cytosol, organelles, and nucleoli.

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7
Q 
1.	Which of the following is NOT considered a cytoplasmic organelle:
A)	cytoplasm.
B)	peroxisomes.
C)	mitochondria.
D)	Golgi apparatus.
E)	rough endoplasmic reticulum.
A

A) cytoplasm.

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8
Q 
1.	Ribosomes are found:
A)	in the cytoplasm.
B)	on the Golgi apparatus.
C)	on smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
D)	on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
E)	in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
A

E) in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

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9
Q 
1.	The organelle that contains enzymes produced by ribosomes and packaged by the Golgi apparatus is:
A)	ribosome.
B)	lysosome.
C)	peroxisome.
D)	Golgi apparatus.
E)	rough endoplasmic reticulum.
A

B) lysosome.

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10
Q 
1.	The movement of fluid through the cell membrane from a high pressure area to a lower pressure area is:
A)	filtration.
B)	osmosis.
C)	diffusion.
D)	bulk transport.
E)	active transport.
A

E) active transport.

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11
Q
  1. Passive processes that move substances across membranes:
    A) utilize ATP.
    B) require no ATP.
    C) employ protein pumps.
    D) include exocytosis and endocytosis.
    E) transport substances against their concentration gradients.
A

A) utilize ATP.

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12
Q 
1.	Osmosis transports water across membranes using:
A)	ATP.
B)	vesicles.
C)	aquaporins.
D)	solute pumping.
E)	sodium-potassium pump.
A

C) aquaporins.

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13
Q 
1.	What assists the movement of substances by facilitated diffusion:
A)	ATP.
B)	lysosomes.
C)	aquaporins.
D)	solute pumps.
E)	protein carrier or channel.
A

E) protein carrier or channel.

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14
Q 
1.	Which of the following do NOT involve the movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of lower concentration:
A)	osmosis.
B)	filtration.
C)	diffusion.
D)	simple diffusion.
E)	facilitated diffusion.
A

B) filtration.

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15
Q 
1.	Two types of endocytosis are:
A)	phagocytosis and pinocytosis.
B)	pinocytosis and passive transport.
C)	active transport and phagocytosis.
D)	solute pumping and active transport.
E)	cellular secretion and solute pumping.
A

A) phagocytosis and pinocytosis.

Endocytosis is the process of actively transporting molecules into the cell by engulfing it with its membrane. Endocytosis and exocytosis are used by all cells to transport molecules that cannot pass through the membrane passively.

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16
Q 
1.	A solution that contains fewer solutes than the cell is:
A)	isotonic.
B)	hypotonic
C)	hypertonic
D)	intravenous
E)	Ringer's lactate
A

B) hypotonic

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17
Q 
1.	Which of the following would NOT be transported across a membrane using passive processes:
A)	oxygen.
B)	glucose.
C)	amino acids.
D)	carbon dioxide.
E)	fat soluble vitamins.
A

C) amino acids.

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following processes require the use of protein carrier molecules:
    A) osmosis and filtration.
    B) bulk transport and osmosis.
    C) filtration and cellular secretion.
    D) facilitated diffusion and bulk transport.
    E) facilitated diffusion and solute pumping.
A

E) facilitated diffusion and solute pumping.

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19
Q 
1.	A cell would plump with water and possibly lyse in which of the following solutions:
A)	isotonic.
B)	Ringer’s.
C)	hypotonic
D)	hypertonic
E)	intravenous
A

To cause dissolution or destruction of cells by lysins.

D) C) hypotonic

A hypotonic solution is one in which the concentration of solutes is greater inside the cell than outside of it, and a hypertonic solution is one where the concentration of solutes is greater outside the cell than inside it.

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20
Q 
1.	The portion of the cell's life cycle that does NOT involve cell division is known as:
A)	mitosis.
B)	prophase.
C)	interphase.
D)	cytokinesis.
E)	metaphase.
A

C) interphase.

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21
Q 
1.	The molecule that carries an amino acid to the ribosome for incorporation into a protein is:
A)	ATP.
B)	DNA.
C)	transfer RNA (tRNA).
D)	ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
E)	messenger RNA (mRNA).
A

C) transfer RNA (tRNA).

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22
Q
  1. The correct order of phases of the mitosis is:
    A) prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase
    B) metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase
    C) telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase
    D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
    E) prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
A

D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Mitosis is a process of cell division, whereby a single cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. The five stage of mitosis are interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophas

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23
Q
  1. The process of transcription:
    A) creates proteins from mRNA.
    B) occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
    C) translates nucleic acids into amino acids.
    D) produces ATP from glucose and oxygen.
    E) transfers information from DNA into mRNA.
A

E) transfers information from DNA into mRNA.

The DNA contains the master plan for the creation of the proteins and other molecules and systems of the cell, but the carrying out of the plan involves transfer of the relevant information to RNA in a process called transcription. The RNA to which the information is transcribed is messenger RNA (mRNA).

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24
Q 
1.	Sequences of three bases found in messenger RNA (mRNA) are called:
A)	codons
B)	ribosomes
C)	anticodons.
D)	amino acids.
E)	deoxyribose sugars.
A

A) codons

The mRNA bases are grouped into sets of three, called codons. Each codon has a complementary set of bases, called an anticodon. Anticodons are a part of transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules.

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25
Q 
1.	The molecule that contains an anticodon is:
A)	ATP
B)	DNA.
C)	transfer RNA (tRNA)
D)	ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
E)	messenger RNA (mRNA)
A

C) transfer RNA (tRNA)

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26
Q 
1.	Which of the following represents a segment of RNA:
A)	AUGUCA.
B)	ATGCTA.
C)	TGCGTT.
D)	CTGTGG.
E)	GTCATA.
A

A) AUGUCA.

Genetic code

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27
Q 
1.	DNA replication takes place during:
A)	prophase.
B)	telophase.
C)	anaphase.
D)	interphase.
E)	metaphase.
A

D) interphase.

Image result for 1. DNA replication takes place during:
DNA replication occurs during the S-stage of interphase. DNA replication (DNA amplification) can also be performed in vitro (artificially, outside a cell). DNA polymerases isolated from cells and artificial DNA primers can be used to initiate DNA synthesis at known sequences in a template DNA molecule.

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28
Q
  1. What are the correct base-pairing rules for DNA:
    A) adenine bonds to uracil and guanine bonds to cytosine.
    B) adenine bonds to thymine and guanine bonds to cytosine.
    C) adenine bonds to adenine and guanine bonds to guanine.
    D) adenine bonds to guanine and thymine bones to cytosine.
    E) adenine bonds to cytosine and thymine bonds to guanine.
A

B) adenine bonds to thymine and guanine bonds to cytosine.

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29
Q 
1.	If the sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA is GTA-GCA, the sequence of bases on its complementary DNA strand would be:
A)	CAU-CGU.
B)	CAT-CGT.
C)	GAU-GCU.
D)	GAT-GCT.
E)	ACG-ATT.
A

CAT-CGT.

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30
Q 
1.	Goblet cells are found in:
A)	transitional epithelium.
B)	simple cuboidal epithelium.
C)	simple columnar epithelium.
D)	simple squamous epithelium.
E)	stratified squamous epithelium.
A

c. Simple columnar epithelium

Goblet cells are associated with simple columnar epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract.

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31
Q 
1.	Which type of tissue conducts electrochemical impulses:
A)	dense tissue.
B)	muscle tissue.
C)	nervous tissue.
D)	epithelial tissue.
E)	connective tissue.
A

A) nervous tissue.

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32
Q 
1.	Which of the following is NOT classified as a connective tissue:
A)	bone.
B)	blood.
C)	adipose.
D)	cartilage.
E)	skeletal muscle.
A

E) skeletal muscle.

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33
Q 
1.	The tissue that is usually well vascularized and has an extensive extracellular matrix is called:
A)	brain tissue.
B)	muscle tissue.
C)	nervous tissue.
D)	epithelial tissue.
E)	connective tissue.
A

B) muscle tissue.

34
Q 
1.	The epithelial tissue found in areas subject to considerable friction and abuse, such as the esophagus, is:
A)	transitional.
B)	simple columnar epithelium.
C)	simple squamous epithelium.
D)	stratified squamous epithelium.
E)	pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
A

D) stratified squamous epithelium.

35
Q 
1.	Identify the type of tissue that is found in lymph nodes, the spleen, and bone marrow:
A)	areolar tissue.
B)	adipose tissue.
C)	osseous tissue.
D)	dense connective tissue.
E)	reticular connective tissue.
A

E) reticular connective tissue.

36
Q 
1.	Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as:
A)	exocrine.
B)	endocrine.
C)	sebaceous.
D)	ceruminous.
E)	sudoriferous.
A

B) endocrine.

37
Q
  1. Which of these characteristics best describes cardiac muscle tissue:
    A) attached to the skeleton.
    B) multinucleate and long, cylindrical cells.
    C) single nucleus and spindle-shaped cells.
    D) movement is voluntary, and cells possess striations.
    E) movement is involuntary, and cells possess striations.
A
  1. Which of these characteristics best describes cardiac muscle tissue:
38
Q
  1. The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is:
    A) cardiac muscle.
    B) skeletal muscle.
    C) smooth muscle.
    D) both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle.
    E) both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.
A

C) smooth muscle.

39
Q 
1.	The type of tissue with a matrix consisting of rows of fibroblasts that manufacture collagen fibers is:
A)	areolar tissue.
B)	adipose tissue.
C)	osseous tissue.
D)	loose connective tissue.
E)	dense connective tissue.
A

E) dense connective tissue

40
Q 
1.	Fibrosis tissue repair involves the formation of:
A)	scabs
B)	blood clots.
C)	scar tissue
D)	epithelial tissue
E)	granulation tissue.
A

C) scar tissue

41
Q 
1.	Jacinda tore her Achilles (calcaneal) tendon during a recent track meet. She has injured:
A)	muscle tissue.
B)	nervous tissue.
C)	epithelial tissue.
D)	loose connective tissue.
E)	dense connective tissue.
A

E) dense connective tissue.

42
Q 
1.	Looking into a microscope, you notice cells swimming, propelled by a long tail. What cell structure must these cells have in order to be mobile:
A)	flagella.
B)	cytoplasm.
C)	ribosomes.
D)	smooth ER.
E)	peroxisomes.
A

A) flagella.

a slender thread-like structure, especially a microscopic whip-like appendage which enables many protozoa, bacteria, spermatozoa, etc. to swim.

43
Q 
1.	Which type of connective tissue is avascular:
A)	bone.
B)	areolar.
C)	adipose.
D)	reticular.
E)	cartilage.
A

A) bone.

44
Q 
A single layer of flattened cells would best be described as:
A)	simple cuboidal.
B)	simple columnar.
C)	simple squamous.
D)	stratified squamous.
E)	pseudostratified columnar.
A

B) simple columnar.

45
Q 
Which type of connective tissue is avascular:
A)	bone.
B)	areolar.
C)	adipose.
D)	reticular.
E)	cartilage.
A

A) bone.

46
Q 
A single layer of flattened cells would best be described as:
A)	simple cuboidal.
B)	simple columnar.
C)	simple squamous.
D)	stratified squamous.
E)	pseudostratified columnar.
A

C) simple squamous.

47
Q 
1.	Which of these cells are amitotic at maturity:
A)	liver cells.
B)	intestinal cells.
C)	epithelial cells.
D)	oesophagus cells.
E)	cardiac muscle cells.
A

B) intestinal cells.

48
Q 
1.	A cancer drug interferes with the development of mitotic spindle fibers during cell division. Which phase is directly affected:
A)	prophase.
B)	telophase.
C)	anaphase.
D)	interphase.
E)	metaphase.
A

A) anaphase.

49
Q 
1.	A cancer drug interferes with the development of mitotic spindle fibers during cell division. Which phase is directly affected:
A)	prophase.
B)	telophase.
C)	anaphase.
D)	interphase.
E)	metaphase.
A

A) anaphase.

These phases occur in strict sequential order, and cytokinesis - the process of dividing the cell contents to make two new cells - starts in anaphase or telophase. Stages of mitosis: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase. … Let’s start by looking at a cell right before it begins mitosis.

50
Q 
1.	A patient arrives in the hospital extremely dehydrated. In order to fill his cells with fluid, what type of intravenous drip should he receive:
A)	isotonic.
B)	hypotonic.
C)	hypertonic.
D)	either isotonic or hypertonic.
E)	either hypertonic or hypotonic.
A

B) hypotonic.

51
Q

Chromatin and chromosomes are both composed of DNA.

A

T

52
Q

Desmosomes are junctions that allow cell communication.

A

F

53
Q

Protein synthesis occurs on lysosomes in the cell.

A

F

54
Q

The process of facilitated diffusion requires energy.

A

F

55
Q

The greater the osmotic pressure, the greater the tendency of water to move into that area.

A

T

56
Q

The hydrophobic tails of the plasma membrane promote osmosis.

A

F

57
Q

Pinocytosis and phagocytosis are types of both endocytosis and exocytosis.

A

F

58
Q

Mitotic spindles guide the separation of chromosomes.

A

T

59
Q

Anaphase is the stage of cell division when the cleavage furrow first appears.

A

T

60
Q

Translation is the stage in protein synthesis during which a complementary mRNA molecule is synthesized from a DNA template.

A

F

61
Q

Stratified epithelium consists of one layer of epithelial cells.

A

F

62
Q

Epithelial tissues are often well vascularized and contain an extracellular matrix

A

F

63
Q

The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of abundant collagen fibers hidden in a rubbery matrix.

A

T

64
Q

Smooth muscle cells are uni-nucleated spindle-shaped cells that are voluntary.

A

F

65
Q

Cellular material located outside the nucleus yet inside the plasma membrane is the cytoplasm.

A

T

66
Q

The specialized cellular compartments within the cytosol of the cell are collectively called as jap junctions.

A

F

67
Q

Tiny finger-like projections of the plasma membrane that increase its surface area are called flagella.

A

F

68
Q

In cell division, the term that refers to division of the cytoplasm is cytokinesis.

A

T

69
Q

The type of tissue consisting of cells embedded in an extracellular matrix is areolar tissue.

A

F

70
Q
  1. Drinking too much water over a short period of time can disrupt the electrolyte balance in the body (called water intoxication or hypotonic hydration). Explain how cells respond to an environment with less solutes than their intracellular fluid.
A

This solution is hypotonic to the cells since it contains less solutes than the body’s cells. In these solutions, cells rapidly swell and fill with water in an attempt to reach equilibrium. Cells may also burst, or lyse.

71
Q
  1. What are the three main regions of the cells in the human body? Describe the main functions of each component.
A

Plasma Membrane - Cell’s flexible outer surface
Cytoplasm - All cell’s components between plasma and nucleus; cytosol and organelles
Nucleus - Large organelle; DNA inside

72
Q
  1. List, describe, and state the functions of the three major elements of the cytoplasm.
A

Cytosol - Fluid portion of cytoplasm that is between the plasma membrane and the nucleus
Function - where chemical reactions occur and allows cell components to move around

.

Cytoskeleton
Description - network of long protein strands in the cytosol
Function - Maintains cell shape; helps cells in movement



Organelles -
Description - A tiny cell structure (little organs) that carries out a specific function within the cell
Function - each organelle has 1 or more specific functions

73
Q

Differentiate between the two types of endoplasmic reticulum

A

Rough ER is involved in some protein production, protein folding, quality control and despatch. It is called rough because it is studded with ribosomes.

Smooth ER is associated with the production and metabolism of fats and steroid hormones. It is smooth because it is not stuuded with ribosomesand associated with smooth slippery fats.

74
Q
  1. List the three different types of RNA and identify their functions.
    (1. ribonucleic acid, a nucleic acid present in all living cells. Its principal role is to act as a messenger carrying instructions from DNA for controlling the synthesis of proteins, although in some viruses RNA rather than DNA carries the genetic information).
A

mRNA-Makes “copy” of DNA/gene and takes into ribosomes

rRNA- Make up ribosomes along with protein

tRNA-Brings an amino acid to

Messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules carry the coding sequences for protein synthesis and are called transcripts; ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules form the core of a cell’s ribosomes (the structures in which protein synthesis takes place); and transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein

75
Q
  1. Discuss the three steps in protein synthesis.
A

Steps in Protein Synthesis:
STEP 1: The first step in protein synthesis is the transcription of mRNA from a DNA gene in the nucleus. At some other prior time, the various other types of RNA have been synthesized using the appropriate DNA. The RNAs migrate from the nucleus into the cytoplasm.

76
Q
  1. Discuss the four stages of mitosis.
A

prophase
first and longest phase of mitosis, during which the chromosomes become visible and the centrioles separate and take up positions on the opposite sides of the nucleus

metaphase
second phase of mitosis, during which the chromosomes line up across the center of the cell

anaphase
the third phase of mitosis, during which the chromosome pairs separate and move toward opposite poles

telophase
phase of mitosis in which the distinct individual chromosomes begin to spread out into a tangle of chromatin

cytokinesis
division of the cytoplasm during cell division

77
Q
  1. A fat-soluble vitamin, vitamin A, is moving down its concentration gradient into a cell. What type of membrane transport is responsible for its movement? Describe this process.
A

Vitamin A is moving via simple diffusion, a type of passive transport. Passive transport requires no energy input from the cell. Vitamin A is moving from an area where it is more concentrated to an area where it is less concentrated. This vitamin is moving without assistance through the plasma membrane.

78
Q
  1. Some cancer drugs, such as vincristine, interfere with the creation of mitotic spindle fibers of a cell. Explain how this drug affects mitosis.
A

The mitotic spindle is formed during prophase by centrioles. This spindle guides the movement of chromosomes later as mitosis progresses. By late prophase, the spindle has attached to the centromere of each chromosome. Without the creation of the spindle fibers, chromosomes cannot successfully be separated as mitosis progresses through anaphase.

79
Q

Explain why an intravenous solution should be isotonic for a patient.

A

Isotonic solutions have the same solute and water concentrations as the cell. Isotonic solutions cause no visible changes in cells since there is not an area more highly concentrated. The use of isotonic intravenous solutions allows red blood cells to retain their normal size and disc-like shape.

80
Q

Describe the naming scheme for epithelial tissues.

A

Epithelial tissues are named based on two features: the number of cell layers and the predominant cell shape. If the epithelial tissue has one layer, it is called a simple tissue. Two or more layers qualifies the tissue as stratified. Cells can be flat in shape (squamous), cube-shaped (cuboidal), or brick-shaped (columnar). The viewer should look toward the apical surface for the most mature cells in the tissue for the cell shape. When naming the epithelial tissue, place the number of cell layers first (such as simple) followed by the cell shape (such as squamous).

Cells and tissues 2 MC (1 decks)

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