Cells And Proteins Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Describe a hazard and the types of hazards

A

Hazards in the lab include toxic or corrosive substances, heat or flammable substances, pathogenic organisms and mechanical equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe what a risk is

A

Risk is the likelihood of harm arising from exposure to a hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe risk assessment

A

Risk assessment involves identifying control measures to minimise risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name these control measures

A

Control measures include using appropriate handling techniques, protective clothing and equipment, and aseptic technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe linear and log dilutions

A

Dilution in a linear dilution series differ by an equal interval e.g 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and so on.

Dilutions in a log dilution series differ by constant proportion e.g 10^-1, 10^-2, 10^-3 and so on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Production of a standard curve to determine an unknown, and what is a standard curve

A

A standard curve is used to determine the concentration of a solution.plotting measured values for known concentrations to produce a line or curve allows concentration of an unk own to be determined from the standard curve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the use of buffers to control Ph

A

PH is a measure of the acidity or basicity of a solution acids<7 neutral=0 bases>7.A buffer is a solution whose pH changes very little when a small amount of acid or base is added to it.Addition of acid or alkali has a very small effect on the pH of a buffer, allowing the pH of a reaction mixture to be kept constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the methods and uses of a colorimeter to quantify concentration and turbidity

A

A colorimeter is used to measure the concentration of a coloured solution or the turbidity(cloudiness).Calibration with appropriate blank(solvent), use of absorbance to determine concentration of a coloured solution using suitable wavelength filters, use of percentage transmission to determine turbidity, such as cells in suspension.A colorimeter works by passing a light beam at a specific wavelength, though a cuvette containing a sample solution.some of the light is absorbed by the sample therefore light of a lower intensity hits the detector.for turbidity a denser sample will show a lower degree of transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the Use of centrifuge to separate substances of differing density

A

Centrifugation allows substances to be separated according to their destiny. More dense components settle in the pellet; less dense components remain in the supernatant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe paper and thin-layer chromatography and affinity chromatography

A

Paper and thin layer chromatography can be used for separating different substances such as amino acids and sugars. The speed that each solute travels along the chromatogram depends on its differing solubility in the solvent used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Principle of affinity chromatography and its use in separating proteins

A

A solid matrix or gel column is created with specific molecules bound to the matrix or gel. Soluble, target proteins in a mixture, with a high affinity for these molecules, become attached to them as the mixture passes down the column. Other non-target molecules with a weaker affinity are washed out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Principle of gel electrophoresis and its use in separating proteins and nucleic acids

A

Charged macromolecules move through an electric field applied to a gel matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe how native gels separate proteins

A

Native gels separate proteins by their shape, size and charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Decribe wether native gels denature and how they separate proteins

A

Native gels do not denature the molecule so that separation is by shape, size and charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe how SDS-PAGE separates proteins and what they do

A

SDS–PAGE separates proteins by size alone. SDS–PAGE gives all the molecules an equally negative charge and denatures them, separating proteins by size alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe how proteins can be seperated

A

Proteins can be separated from a mixture using their isoelectric points (IEPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe what isoelectric point is

A

IEP is the pH at which a soluble protein has no net charge and will precipitate out of solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe how proteins will precipitate if a solution is buffered to a specific pH

A

If the solution is buffered to a specific pH, only the protein(s) that have an IEP of that pH will precipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe how an IEP can be used in electrophoresis

A

Proteins can also be separated using their IEPs in electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

.

A

Soluble proteins can be separated using an electric field and a pH gradient. A protein stops migrating through the gel at its IEP in the pH gradient because it has no net charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What techniques are used to identify proteins

A

Immunoassay techniques are used to detect and identify specific proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do immunoassay techniques use

A

These techniques use stocks of antibodies with the same specificity, known as monoclonal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are antibody specific to a protein antigen linked

A

An antibody specific to the protein antigen is linked to a chemical ‘label’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the label and other reporter enzymes

A

The ‘label’ is often a reporter enzyme producing a colour change, but chemiluminescence, fluorescence and other reporters can be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What else can the assay use to detect antibodies

A

In some cases the assay uses a specific antigen to detect the presence of antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is western blotting and when is it used

A

Western blotting is a technique, used after SDS–PAGE electrophoresis
The separated proteins from the gel are transferred (blotted) onto a solid medium.used for identifying specific proteins that have been separated using SDS-PAGE gel electrophoresis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How can proteins be identified

A

The proteins can be identified using specific antibodies that have reporter enzymes attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe what bright-field microscopy is

A

Bright-field microscopy is commonly used to observe whole organisms, parts of organisms, thin sections of dissected tissue or individual cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe what fluorescence microscopy is

A

Fluorescence microscopy uses specific fluorescent labels to bind to and visualise certain molecules or structures within cells or tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe what aseptic technique is

A

Aseptic technique eliminates unwanted microbial contaminants when culturing micro- organisms or cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does aseptic technique involve

A

Aseptic technique involves the sterilisation of equipment and culture media by heat or chemical means and subsequent exclusion of microbial contaminants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How can a microbial culture be started

A

A microbial culture can be started using an inoculum of microbial cells on an agar medium, or in a broth with suitable nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is does culture media promote

A

Many culture media exist that promote the growth of specific types of cells and microbes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How are animal cells grown

A

Animal cells are grown in medium containing growth factors from serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are growth factors and their importance

A

Growth factors are proteins that promote cell growth and proliferation. Growth factors are essential for the culture of most animal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe in terms of culture primary cell lines and tumour cell lines and division

A

In culture, primary cell lines can divide a limited number of times, whereas tumour cells lines can perform unlimited divisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Explain the importance of plating out of a liquid microbial culture

A

Plating out of a liquid microbial culture on solid media allows the number of colony- forming units to be counted and the density of cells in the culture estimated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why is serial dilation needed for colony count

A

Serial dilution is often needed to achieve a suitable colony count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is haemocytometry used for

A

Method and use of haemocytometer to estimate cell numbers in a liquid culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is vitale staining used for

A

Vital staining is required to identify and count viable cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the proteome

A

The proteome is the entire set of proteins expressed by a genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why is the proteome larger then the number of genes, eukaryotes and why is this caused

A

The proteome is larger than the number of genes, particularly in eukaryotes, because more than one protein can be produced from a single gene as a result of alternative RNA splicing

43
Q

What are non coding proteins called and what are they transcribed to produce

A

Genes that do not code for proteins are called non-coding RNA genes and include those that are transcribed to produce tRNA, rRNA, and RNA molecules that control the expression of other genes

44
Q

How can the set of expressed genes by a given cell type change and under what circumstances

A

The set of proteins expressed by a given cell type can vary over time and under different condition

45
Q

Describe factors which affect the set of proteins expressed by a given cell type

A

Some factors affecting the set of proteins expressed by a given cell type are the metabolic activity of the cell, cellular stress, the response to signalling molecules, and diseased versus healthy cells

46
Q

Describe the system of eukaryotic cells and the affect of this on the membrane

A

Eukaryotic cells have a system of internal membranes, which increases the total area of membrane

47
Q

Describe how the size of eukaryotic cells have an affect on the ratio of volume to surface area and towards the plasma membrane of the cell.

A

Because of their size, eukaryotes have a relatively small surface area to volume ratio. The plasma membrane of eukaryotic cells is therefore too small an area to carry out all the vital functions carried out by membranes

48
Q

What does the ER OR endoplasmic reticulum form

A

The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) forms a network of membrane tubules continuous with the nuclear membrane

49
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus

A

The Golgi apparatus is a series of flattened out membrane discs

50
Q

What are lysosomes wand what to they digest

A

Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing a variety of hydrolases that digest proteins, lipids, nucleic acids and carbohydrates

51
Q

What transports materials membrane compartments

A

Vesicles transport materials between membrane compartments

52
Q

where are lipids and proteins synthesised

A

Lipids and proteins are synthesised in the ER

53
Q

Compare the rough ER and smooth ER in their number of ribosomes and location

A

Rough ER (RER) has ribosomes on its cytosolic face while smooth ER (SER) lacks ribosomes.

54
Q

Where are lipids synthesised and inserted into

A

Lipids are synthesised in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) and inserted into its membrane

55
Q

Where does the synthesis of all proteins begin in

A

The synthesis of all proteins begins in cytosolic ribosomes

56
Q

Where is the synthesis of proteins in cytosolic ribosomes completed and where do they remain

A

The synthesis of cytosolic proteins is completed there, and these proteins remain in the cytosol

57
Q

How is the RER formed

A

Transmembrane proteins carry a signal sequence, which halts translation and directs the ribosome synthesising the protein to dock with the ER, forming RER

58
Q

What is a signal sequence and what does this determine

A

A signal sequence is a short stretch of amino acids at one end of the polypeptide that determines the eventual location of a protein in a cell

59
Q

What continues after socking and where is the protein inserted.

A

Translation continues after docking, and the protein is inserted into the membrane of the ER

60
Q

Describe what happens once protein are in the ER

A

Once the proteins are in the ER, they are transported by vesicles that bud off from the ER and fuse with the Golgi apparatus

61
Q

What do proteins undergo after they move through the Golgi apparatus

A

As proteins move through the Golgi apparatus they undergo post-translational modification

62
Q

Describe what happens when molecules move through the Golgi apparatus and the action of enzymes during this process.

A

Molecules move through the Golgi discs in vesicles that bud off from one disc and fuse to the next one in the stack. Enzymes catalyse the addition of various sugars in multiple steps to form the carbohydrates

63
Q

What is the major modification

A

The addition of carbohydrate groups is the major modification

64
Q

What happens to vesicles that leave the Golgi apparatus

A

Vesicles that leave the Golgi apparatus take proteins to the plasma membrane and lysosomes

65
Q

Describe how vesicles move along microtubules to other…

A

Vesicles move along microtubules to other membranes and fuse with them within the cell

66
Q

What are translated in ribosomes on the RER and what do they enter

A

Secreted proteins are translated in ribosomes on the RER and enter its lumen

67
Q

What are examples of secreted enzymes

A

Peptide hormones and digestive enzymes are examples of secreted proteins

68
Q

What are packaged into secretory vesicles and what do they move through

A

The proteins move through the Golgi apparatus and are then packaged into secretory vesicles

69
Q

These vesicles move to and fuse…

A

These vesicles move to and fuse with the plasma membrane, releasing the proteins out of the cell

70
Q

Describe how secreted proteins are synthesise and what they require to produce active proteins

A

Many secreted proteins are synthesised as inactive precursors and require proteolytic cleavage to produce active proteins

71
Q

Describe what is meant by proteolytic cleavage

A

Proteolytic cleavage is another type of post- translational modification. Digestive enzymes are one example of secreted proteins that require proteolytic cleavage to become active.

72
Q

Proteins are polymers…

A

Proteins are polymers of amino acid monomers

73
Q

What do amino acids form and what are they linked by

A

Amino acids are linked by peptide bonds to form polypeptides

74
Q

Amino acids are classified to their

A

Amino acids are classified according to their R groups: basic (positively charged); acidic (negatively charged); polar; hydrophobic

75
Q

Describe how the wide range of functions are carried out by proteins

A

The wide range of functions carried out by proteins results from the diversity of R groups

76
Q

What is the primary structure

A

The primary structure is the sequence in which the amino acids are synthesised into the polypeptide

77
Q

Describe how a secondary structure is formed and the types of structures

A

Hydrogen bonding along the backbone of the protein strand results in regions of secondary structure — alpha helices, parallel or anti- parallel beta-pleated sheets, or turns

78
Q

How is a tertiary structure formed

A

The polypeptide folds into a tertiary structure

79
Q

How is the conformation of a tertiary structure stabilised

A

This conformation is stabilised by interactions between R groups: hydrophobic interactions; ionic bonds; London dispersion forces; hydrogen bonds; disulfide bridges

80
Q

What are disulphide bridges

A

Disulfide bridges are covalent bonds between R groups containing sulfur.

81
Q

How does a quaternary structure exist

A

Quaternary structure exists in proteins with two or more connected polypeptide subunits

82
Q

What is a prosthetic group

A

A prosthetic group is a non-protein unit tightly bound to a protein and necessary for its function

83
Q

Give an example of a prosthetic group

A

The ability of haemoglobin to bind oxygen is dependent upon the non-protein haem group.

84
Q

Describe the affect of increasing or decreasing pH or temperature affect R group interactions

A

Increasing temperature disrupts the interactions that hold the protein in shape; the protein begins to unfold, eventually becoming denatured. The charges on acidic and basic R groups are affected by pH. As pH increases or decreases from the optimum, the normal ionic interactions between charged groups are lost, which gradually changes the conformation of the protein until it becomes denatured.

85
Q

What is a ligand

A

A ligand is a substance that can bind to a protein

86
Q

How is binding to ligands enabled

A

R groups not involved in protein folding can allow binding to ligands

87
Q

How does the ligand relate to the binding site

A

Binding sites will have complementary shape and chemistry to the ligand

88
Q

As the ligand binds to the protein describe how this permanently affects the protein

A

As a ligand binds to a protein-binding site the conformation of the protein changes. This change in conformation causes a functional change in the protein

89
Q

Where do Allosteric interactions occur

A

Allosteric interactions occur between spatially distinct sites

90
Q

Describe how an allosteric enzyme affects the other active sites and substrate molecules, and the biological importance of this

A

The binding of a substrate molecule to one active site of an allosteric enzyme increases the affinity of the other active sites for binding of subsequent substrate molecules. This is of biological importance because the activity of allosteric enzymes can vary greatly with small changes in substrate concentration.

91
Q

What do allosteric proteins consist of

A

Many allosteric proteins consist of multiple subunits (have quaternary structure)

92
Q

Describe how Allosteric proteins show co-operativity

A

Allosteric proteins with multiple subunits show co-operativity in binding, in which changes in binding at one subunit alter the affinity of the remaining subunits

93
Q

What is the other site of an Allosteric enzyme

A

Allosteric enzymes contain a second type of site, called an allosteric site

94
Q

What do modulators do

A

Modulators regulate the activity of the enzyme when they bind to the allosteric site

95
Q

Describe the binding of a modulators affect on an enzyme

A

Following binding of a modulator, the conformation of the enzyme changes and this alters the affinity of the active site for the substrate

96
Q

Describe what positive and negative modulators do

A

Positive modulators increase the enzyme’s affinity for the substrate, whereas negative modulators reduce the enzyme’s affinity

97
Q

Describe how The binding and release of oxygen in haemoglobin shows co-operativity

A

Changes in binding of oxygen at one subunit alter the affinity of the remaining subunits for oxygen.

98
Q

Describe The influence and physiological importance of temperature and pH on the binding of oxygen

A

A decrease in pH or an increase in temperature lowers the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, so the binding of oxygen is reduced. Reduced pH and increased temperature in actively respiring tissue will reduce the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin promoting increased oxygen delivery to tissue

99
Q

Describe the affect of the addition or removal of a phosphate

A

The addition or removal of phosphate can cause reversible conformational change in proteins. This is a common form of post-translational modification

100
Q

What do protein kinases do

A

Protein kinases catalyse the transfer of a phosphate group to other proteins

101
Q

Where is the terminal phosphate-of ATP transferred to

A

The terminal phosphate of ATP is transferred to specific R groups

102
Q

Protein phosphatases…

A

Protein phosphatases catalyse the reverse reaction

103
Q

What does phosphorylation bring and what does it affect

A

Phosphorylation brings about conformational changes, which can affect a protein’s activity. The activity of many cellular proteins, such as enzymes and receptors, is regulated in this way Some proteins are activated by phosphorylation while others are inhibited.

104
Q

Describe what .adding a phosphate group does

A

Adding a phosphate group adds negative charges. Ionic interactions in the unphosphorylated protein can be disrupted and new ones created.