Cells and Inflammation Flashcards

1
Q

What is cancer?

A

Cancer refers to over 200 different diseases characterized by mutated DNA, uncontrolled cellular growth, and the potential to be life-threatening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do genetic mutations contribute to cancer?

A

Genetic mutations can alter cell division by affecting proto-oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes, and DNA repair genes, leading to uncontrolled growth and loss of normal cellular function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a carcinogen?

A

A carcinogen is any substance, organism, or physical agent that can cause cancer by inducing mutations in DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the role of tumour suppressor genes?

A

Tumor suppressor genes act as brakes on cell division, helping to prevent uncontrolled growth and the development of tumors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define apoptosis in cancer.

A

Apoptosis is the process of programmed cell death. In cancer, cells often lose the ability to undergo apoptosis, leading to increased survival of mutated cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is angiogenesis in cancer?

A

Angiogenesis is the formation of new blood vessels. In cancer, it is triggered by factors like Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF) and helps supply tumors with nutrients and oxygen, enabling their growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is metastasis?

A

Metastasis is the spread of cancer cells from the primary site to distant sites in the body, often through the lymphatic or blood systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the TNM staging system in cancer?

A

The TNM classification system for staging cancer includes:

  • T (Tumor): Size and extent of the primary tumour.
  • N (Node): Extent of lymph node involvement.
  • M (Metastasis): Presence of distant metastasis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the significance of p53 in cancer?

A

p53 is known as the “Guardian of the Genome.” It is crucial in preventing cancer by regulating cell cycle progression and promoting apoptosis when DNA is damaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is chromothripsis?

A

Chromothripsis is a phenomenon where chromosomes undergo massive fragmentation, leading to complex genetic rearrangements often seen in cancer cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do mutations affect cell behavior in cancer?

A

Mutations can alter cell structure, function, and behaviour, leading to uncontrolled cell division, apoptosis resistance, and normal growth control loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some common causes of DNA mutations?

A

Causes include carcinogenic agents such as ionizing radiation, UV radiation, asbestos, tobacco, obesity, and certain infections or chemicals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the ‘seed and soil’ theory in metastasis?

A

The ‘seed and soil’ theory suggests that cancer cells (seeds) can only grow in specific environments (soil) within distant organs, explaining why some cancers metastasize more readily than others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the role of telomerase in cancer?

A

Telomerase prevents the shortening of telomeres, allowing cancer cells to maintain their ability to divide and proliferate without ageing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference between benign and malignant tumours?

A

Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread, while malignant ones are cancerous and can invade surrounding tissues and metastasize to other body parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the importance of tumour grading?

A

Tumour grading assesses how much cancer cells differ from normal cells, with lower grades indicating less aggression and higher grades indicating more aggressive behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are pyrogens?

A

Pyrogens are substances that induce fever by raising the body’s set-point temperature in the hypothalamus, typically in response to infection or inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are eosinophils?

A

Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in combating parasitic infections and in allergic reactions. They release toxic proteins and cytokines that help manage inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are immunoglobulins?

A

Immunoglobulins (Ig), also known as antibodies, are glycoproteins produced by B-lymphocytes that bind to antigens, neutralizing pathogens or marking them for destruction by other immune cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are antigens?

A

Antigens are foreign molecules, often proteins or polysaccharides, that trigger an immune response when detected by the immune system. They can come from pathogens, allergens, or transplanted tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are antibodies?

A

Antibodies are proteins produced by B-lymphocytes that specifically bind to and neutralize antigens, such as pathogens, to help prevent infections or assist in their removal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is histamine?

A

Histamine is a chemical released by mast cells and basophils during allergic reactions and inflammation. It causes vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and contributes to symptoms like swelling, redness, and itching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is lysozyme?

A

Lysozyme is an enzyme found in various body fluids (like saliva, tears, and mucus) that breaks down bacterial cell walls, helping to defend against infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a macrophage?

A

Macrophages are large white blood cells that engulf and digest pathogens, dead cells, and debris. They also play a key role in initiating and regulating the immune response by presenting antigens to T-cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and returning carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are T-lymphocytes?

A

T-lymphocytes (T-cells) are a type of white blood cell involved in the adaptive immune response. They directly attack infected cells, cancer cells, and help regulate other immune cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are B-lymphocytes?

A

B-lymphocytes (B-cells) are a type of white blood cell responsible for producing antibodies that neutralize or mark antigens (like pathogens) for destruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the body’s first line of defence against infection?

A

Physical barriers like skin, mucous membranes, acidic pH in the stomach, lysozymes in saliva and tears, ear wax, and cilia in the respiratory tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the difference between non-specific and specific immune responses?

A

Non-specific responses (inflammatory response) protect the body from injury and infection. Specific (adaptive) immune responses target specific microorganisms and involve memory for faster future responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the key steps involved in the inflammatory response?

A

Circulation slows, cell damage releases cytokines, blood vessels respond with chemotaxis, vasodilation, and diapedesis, leading to phagocytosis by white blood cells (neutrophils).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some cytokines involved in the inflammatory process?

A

Histamine, Tumour Necrosis Factor Alpha (TNF-α), Interleukin-1 (IL-1), Interferons, Leukotrienes, Prostaglandins, Kinins (e.g., bradykinin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the effects of inflammation?

A

Vasodilation (increased blood flow), swelling, pain (due to mediators like prostaglandins and bradykinin), and fever (due to interleukin-1, IL-1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two types of immunity in the adaptive immune response?

A

Humoral immunity (produces antibodies through B cells) and cell-mediated immunity (involves T cells to attack infected cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the role of the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)?

A

MHC helps T cells recognize cells in the body (self-recognition) and prevents immune response to the body’s own cells (self-tolerance). Loss of self-tolerance can lead to autoimmune diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What happens in organ transplants regarding immunity?

A

Organ transplants can be rejected unless the immune system is suppressed to prevent the body’s immune response against the foreign tissue.

36
Q

What is the inflammatory response in asthma?

A

In asthma, inflammation occurs in the airways, causing constriction and difficulty breathing due to immune responses triggered by allergens.

37
Q

How does sepsis affect the body?

A

Sepsis is a severe inflammatory response to infection that can lead to widespread tissue damage, organ failure, and potentially death if untreated.

38
Q

What is the Sepsis Six and why are they important?

A

The Sepsis Six is a set of six key interventions that should be initiated within one hour of identifying a patient with suspected sepsis. These steps aim to reduce mortality and improve patient outcomes:

39
Q

What are the first 3 of the sepsis six steps?

A
  • Administer High-Flow Oxygen = Ensure oxygen saturation above 94% to support respiratory function.
  • Take Blood Cultures and Consider Source Control = Obtain blood cultures and assess the source of infection for potential surgical or drainage procedures.
    Administer Empiric Intravenous
  • Antibiotics = Start broad-spectrum antibiotics to combat the infection, adjusting based on culture results.
40
Q

What are the last 3 of the sepsis six steps?

A
  • Measure Serial Serum Lactates = Monitor lactate levels to assess tissue perfusion and guide further treatment.
  • Start Intravenous Fluid Resuscitation = Administer fluids to restore circulatory volume and improve tissue oxygenation.
  • Commence Accurate Urine Output Measurement = Monitor urine output as an indicator of kidney function and response to treatment.
41
Q

What do red blood cells do?

A

Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body and return carbon dioxide to the lungs.

42
Q

What do white blood cells do?

A

White blood cells protect the body from infections and diseases.

43
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

Neutrophils fight bacterial infections by engulfing and digesting pathogens.

44
Q

What do monocytes do?

A

Monocytes become macrophages and dendritic cells, helping fight infections and presenting antigens.

45
Q

What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

A

Mitosis creates two identical cells (Involved in growth, repair, and asexual reproduction).

Meiosis creates four unique cells with half the chromosome number. ( involved in sexual reproduction.)

46
Q

What is atrophy?

A

Atrophy is the decrease in the size of an organ or tissue, often due to a reduction in cell size or number.

47
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Metaplasia is the reversible transformation of one differentiated cell type into another, often as a response to environmental changes or stress.

48
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Hypertrophy is the increase in the size of cells or an organ due to increased workload or stimuli, leading to tissue enlargement.

49
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth or development, often leading to cells that are disordered in size, shape, or arrangement, and may be a precursor to cancer.

50
Q

What is cell injury?

A

Cell injury occurs when a cell’s function is impaired due to external factors like toxins, trauma, infection, or lack of oxygen, leading to possible cell death.

51
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, typically in response to a stimulus such as hormonal changes or injury.

52
Q

What is angiogenesis?

A

Angiogenesis is the process by which new blood vessels form from pre-existing ones, often in response to the need for increased blood flow in tissues like tumours.

53
Q

What does autonomy mean in the context of cancer?

A

Autonomy refers to the ability of cancer cells to grow and divide independently of the normal regulatory mechanisms that control cell growth.

54
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

A carcinoma is a type of cancer that originates in the epithelial cells, which line the skin or internal organs, such as lung, breast, or colon cancer.

55
Q

What is chemotherapy?

A

Chemotherapy is a treatment that uses drugs to kill or inhibit the growth of cancer cells, often by interfering with cell division.

56
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

Epigenetics refers to changes in gene expression or cellular phenotype caused by mechanisms other than changes in the DNA sequence, such as DNA methylation or histone modification.

57
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Lymphoma is a cancer that originates in the lymphatic system, particularly in the lymph nodes, and involves the uncontrolled growth of lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell).

58
Q

What is a neoplasm?

A

A neoplasm is an abnormal growth of tissue, commonly known as a tumor, which may be benign (non-cancerous) or malignant (cancerous).

59
Q

What is an oncogene?

A

An oncogene is a gene that has the potential to cause cancer when mutated or overexpressed, often by promoting uncontrolled cell division.

60
Q

What is a sarcoma?

A

A sarcoma is a type of cancer that originates in connective tissues, such as muscles, bones, and cartilage.

61
Q

What is silencing in genetics?

A

Silencing refers to the process by which the expression of a gene is turned off, often through epigenetic mechanisms like DNA methylation.

62
Q

What is a tumour marker?

A

A tumour marker is a substance, often a protein, produced by cancer cells or the body in response to cancer, used to diagnose or monitor cancer progression.

63
Q

What is a tumour suppression gene?

A

A tumour suppression gene is a gene that helps regulate cell growth and prevent cancer. When mutated or inactivated, it can contribute to tumor formation (e.g., the p53 gene).

64
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A

Hypersensitivity is an exaggerated or inappropriate immune response to an antigen, which can lead to tissue damage.

It includes allergic reactions, autoimmunity, and alloimmunity, and is classified into four types based on the immune mechanisms involved.

65
Q

What is autoimmune?

A

Autoimmune refers to a condition in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own healthy cells and tissues, recognizing them as foreign.

66
Q

What is alloimmunity?

A

Alloimmunity occurs when the immune system reacts against antigens from a genetically different individual of the same species.

This might happen during organ transplants, blood transfusions, or pregnancy when the immune system might attack foreign tissues or cells.

67
Q

How can genetic mutations cause alterations in cell division?

A

Genetic mutations can disrupt normal cell division by altering genes that regulate the cell cycle, leading to uncontrolled cell growth.

Mutations in oncogenes (promote growth) or tumor suppressor genes (inhibit growth) can cause cells to divide uncontrollably, which is a hallmark of cancer.

68
Q

Define point mutations.

A

A single nucleotide change in the DNA sequence.

68
Q

What are the types of genetic mutations?

A
  • Point mutations
  • Insertions/deletions
  • Chromosomal rearrangements
  • Frameshift mutations
69
Q

Define Insertions/deletions in terms of mutation.

A

Addition or removal of nucleotides in the DNA sequence.

70
Q

Define Chromosomal rearrangements

A

Larger structural changes, such as translocations or inversions.

71
Q

Define Frameshift mutations

A

Insertions or deletions that alter the reading frame of a gene.

72
Q

How can a benign tumour develop into a malignant tumour?

A

A benign tumour can become malignant (Cancerous) through the accumulation of genetic mutations that enable it to bypass normal growth regulation.

This allows the tumour to invade surrounding tissues and spread to distant parts of the body.

Changes in oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes often facilitate this process.

73
Q

What is the cell cycle, and what happens at each stage?

Clue = The cycle of growth, DNA copying, and division in a cell.

It has phases where the cell prepares, duplicates its DNA, and divides to create identical daughters.

A

The cell cycle consists of two main phases: interphase and mitotic (M) phase.

  1. Interphase includes:
  • G1 (Gap 1): Cell grows and prepares for DNA replication.
  • S (Synthesis): DNA replication occurs.
  • G2 (Gap 2): Cell continues to grow and prepares for division.
  1. M (Mitosis): The process of cell division occurs, resulting in two identical daughter cells. Mitosis includes stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
74
Q

What are solid tumors?

A

Solid tumors are abnormal growths of tissue that form in solid organs.

Examples include breast cancer and prostate cancer, which occur in the breast and prostate glands, respectively, and can spread (metastasize) to other parts of the body.

75
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A

Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder in which red blood cells become abnormally shaped (like a crescent or sickle).

Leading to blockages in blood flow, pain, anaemia, and an increased risk of infection and stroke.

75
Q

What is leukaemia?

A

Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are two main types:

  • Acute leukaemia: Rapid growth of abnormal white blood cells.
  • Chronic leukaemia: Slower growth of abnormal white blood cells, often present with less severe symptoms for years.
76
Q

What is the process of wound healing?

A

Wound healing is a complex process where the body repairs tissue damage.

It involves inflammation, tissue formation, and remodelling to restore skin and tissue integrity.

77
Q

What are the main 3 phases and order of events in wound healing?

A

1) Inflammatory phase: Immediately after injury, with blood clotting, inflammation, and immune response to prevent infection.

2) Proliferative phase: New tissue, including blood vessels and collagen, is formed.

3) Maturation (Remodeling) phase: The wound continues to heal, collagen is reorganized, and the tissue strengthens over time.

78
Q

What is the role of pressure in wound healing?

A

Pressure can interfere with wound healing by restricting blood flow to the affected area, leading to tissue ischemia and potentially causing pressure ulcers or chronic wounds.

79
Q

How do burns affect the body?

A

Burns damage the skin and tissues, causing pain, fluid loss, and risk of infection.

The severity of burns (first, second, or third degree) affects the healing process.

80
Q

What happens during the healing of fractures?

A

1) Inflammation: A blood clot forms around the fracture.

2) Soft callus formation: Cartilage forms to bridge the break.

3) Hard callus formation: Bone tissue replaces cartilage.

4) Remodeling: The bone strengthens and reshapes

81
Q

How is menstruation controlled, and what can go wrong?

A

Menstruation is controlled by hormones like estrogen and progesterone.

Abnormalities include irregular periods, missed periods, heavy periods, and conditions like PCOS or endometriosis.

82
Q

What causes prolapse and abnormal tissue growth?

A

Infections or inflammation can lead to prolapse (organs drop, out of place, like the uterus or bladder) and abnormal tissue growth like fibroids or endometriosis.

83
Q

What are the types of hypersensitivity?

A

Type I: IgE-mediated reactions, such as allergies.

Type II: Tissue-specific reactions, where antibodies target specific cells.

Type III: Immune complex-mediated reactions, where antigen-antibody complexes cause tissue damage.

Type IV: Cell-mediated reactions involving T-cells, such as in contact dermatitis.

84
Q

What is sensitization and how is it recognized by T and B cells?

A

Sensitization occurs when the immune system first encounters an antigen, leading to the activation of T cells and B cells.

B cells produce antibodies, while T cells activate immune responses against the antigen.

85
Q

What are the roles of the thymus, spleen, and lymphatic system?

A
  • Thymus: Matures T cells.
  • Spleen: Filters blood, removes damaged cells, and helps fight infection.
  • Lymphatic system: Transports lymph, which contains immune cells, and helps the body fight infections.