Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AP Teas > Cells > Flashcards

Cells Flashcards

1
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

Minimum amount of pressure required to stop the diffusion of pure water across the membrane. If a vessel is divided into two Chambers and pure water is placed into one chamber while a solution such as sugar water is placed in the other chamber the water level will rise on the side of the greater solute concentration therefore the diffusion of water will continue in this direction until the pressure becomes too great The water will have moved from high to low water concentrations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Passive transport

A

The movement of substances across the cell membrane without the input of energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Entropy

A

Unavailable energy disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nonpolar molecules

A

Hydrophobic electrons are shared equally and there is no resulting charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Polar molecules

A

Have either a positive or negative charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Examples of nonpolar molecules

A

Oxygen gas carbon dioxide an uncharged lipids are not repelled by the hydrophobic interior of the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are forms of passive transport

A

Simple diffusion osmosis and facilated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Osmosis

A

The passive transport of water across the membrane most polar molecule cannot use simple diffusion but water molecules are small enough to slowly squeezed between the phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can water use to channel proteins to increase the rate of osmosis

A

Aguaporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When proteins are used to transport substances down their concentration gradients

A

Facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gradient

A

Increase or decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Facilitated diffusion

A

Molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane with assistance from membrane proteins such as channels and carriers a concentration gradient exists for these molecules so they have the potential to diffuse into or out of the cell by moving down it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Large polar and or charged substances require shielding from the interior of the membrane and they may use

A

Channel or Carrier proteins to assist in their transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Osmosis does not require what to be driven by the difference in solute

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Active transport

A

Energy is used to move solutes into or out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During what transport are substances pumped against their concentration gradients from areas of low to high concentration

A

Active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Active transport is required for processes such as

A

The maintenance of a membrane potential and the uptake of glucose by intestinal cells even between meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The pumping of solutes by a carrier protein is directly coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP

A

Primary me active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Relies on ATP to generate an electrochemical gradient and it is this grattent that directly drives the active transport of a different solute

A

Secondary active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As one solute moves down as graduate another is

A

Pumped up its gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When both solutes move in the same direction it is called

A

Symport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When solutes move in opposite direction it is called

A

Antiport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Endocytosis and exocytosis are types of

A

Active transport that employ vesicles to import or export substances. they do not necessarily move solutes up their concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Endocytosis

A

Is cellular process in which substances are brought into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The process of bringing substances out of the cell

A

Exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Example of passive transport

A

Riding a bicycle down a hill where you don’t need to put an energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diffusion and osmosis have in common

A

Both move from a high to low concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Osmosis is simply

A

The diffusion of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Active transport requires

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Example of active transport

A

Riding a bike up the hill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the three types of active transport

A

Pump or channel, endocytosis, and exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A cell uses a what to move objects from low concentration to high concentration

A

Pump or channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Membrane channels act as

A

Doorways that lets particles move passively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diffusion can move

A

Materials into or out of the cell from high to low concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Concentration gradient

A

Tells us which particles are going to move passively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

All channels move substances down their concentration gradient by

A

Diffusion and does not require energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Unlike carrier proteins channels interact very weakly with the

A

Solutes they transport for allowing us to move rapidly across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Channel proteins that allow the passage of water are called

A

Aquaporins and they’re always open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ion channels are usually gated and they open and close

A

In response to various stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What channels respond to changes in membrane potential and are vital to generating electrical impulses and nerve in cardiac cells

A

Voltage-gated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Ion channels open in response to The binding of a levante such as a hormone or neurotransmitter

A

Ligand gated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ion channels respond to a physical stimulus such as a stretching of the membrane and are useful and sensory

A

Mechanically gated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Types of vesicular transport that are used for transport a very large particles or bulk quantities of smaller particles AR examples of active transport due to requiring energy

A

Exocytosis and endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

During exocytosis products and waste are transported via

A

Vesicle to the cell membrane where the vesicle fuses releasing its contents into the extracellular environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Exocytosis components

A

Glycoproteins and glycolipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What involves the injection of fluid large particles are Target molecules and the process entails the cell membrane folding inward pinching off into a vesicle

A

Endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pinocytosis

A

The ingestion of fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pinocytosis

A

Takes in any enzymes and nutrients that happened to be available during endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Taking in of particles eating them sometimes even entire cells. immune system cells ingest harmful bacteria before destroying them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

A

A form of endocytosis that targets certain molecules such as low density lipoproteins that are low in concentration outside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Both rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum contain

A

Cisternae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cisternae

A

Is the continuous membranes of the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Is continuous with the nuclear envelope and it’s ribosomes studded cisternae have the appearance of flattened sacs

A

Rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The ribosome synthesizes polypeptides which are guided into the lumen before being modified packaged in a vesicle and sent to different regions within the cell often the Golgi apparatus

A

Rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Ribosomes are sent out of the ER via

A

Exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The cisternae is more tubular and shape and lack ribosomes

A

Smooth ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Is involved in synthesize of lipids such as phospholipids and cholesterol

A

Smooth ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The part of liver cells that detoxifies drugs and regulates and stores calcium ions

A

Smooth ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Secretary proteins

A

Proteins destined to be exported from the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Secretary proteins and proteins that are associated with plasma membrane are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic side

A

Of the rough endoplasmic reticulum and these ribosomes are not permanently fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Translocons

A

Ribosomes that are not permanently fixed and will bind to sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ribosomes that are free in the cytosol will produce proteins that will remain

A

Only in the cytosol of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

As a polypeptide chain is growing out of a bound ribosome during translation the chain is fed

A

Through a tiny pour into the lumen of the rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Enzymes in the lumen May modify proteins by

A

Convey Lily bonding a carbohydrate to form a glycoprotein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The endoplasmic reticulum constitutes roughly

A

Half of the plasma membrane in a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The membrane system of the rough ER is connected to the

A

Outer nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Forming flattened sacs that connect to each other in a manner that resembles a multi-story parking garage in the endoplasmic reticulum

A

Cisternae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Helicoidal sheets of the membrane structure of the endoplasmic reticulum

A

Terasaki ramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Newly synthesized proteins are packaged in the transport vesicles in the endoplasmic reticulum and are coated with

A

Protein complexes that help direct each vesicle to its destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Mitochondria

A

Powerhouses of the cell that produce the most of the cells ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Mitochondria has how many membranes

A

2 which include the outer membrane that acts as a selective barrier and the inner membrane where most of the ATP is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does the inner membrane of the mitochondria do

A

The inner membrane is folded into structures called cristae and is within these folds that the electron transport chain of aerobic respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is between the membranes of the mitochondria

A

The intermembrane space where a proton motive force is used to drive chemiosmosis which is the making of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Chemiosmosis

A

Synthesizing ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is inside of the matrix of the mitochondria

A

Ribosomes and mitochondria DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How many genes does DNA of the mitochondria carry in humans

A

37 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Mitochondria plays a role in program cell death called

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mitochondria

A

Makes energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Mitochondria

A

Organelle found in Eukaryotic cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Mitochondria makes

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Mitochondria ATP stands for

A

Adenosine triphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Mitochondria oxidizes

A

Glucose and fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Plants make their own glucose via

A

Photosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Plants also have

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Plants use glucose to convert

A

Energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Structure of mitochondria

A

Inner membrane which helps with the transport chain houses to compartments including intermembrane space and matrix base. the outer membrane contains proteins called porins that lets sugars and ions pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Mitochondria DNA

A

Mtdna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Mitochondria functions

A

Cellular respiratory cellular differentiation, cellular degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Mitochondria converts glucose into

A

Pyruvate and then into ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Mitochondria ATP turns into

A

Acetyl COA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Stages of mitochondria

A

Electron transport chain and oxidative phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Proteins in mitochondria that causes apophysis

A

Bcl-2 and cytc-c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Mitochondria is described as semi-autonomous because

A

Each one has its own genome and ribosomes and produces many of its own protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Mitochondria copies that are circular DNA molecules before

A

Undergoing fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Mitochondria does not rely on nuclear genes to produce many of the proteins required for DNA replication instead it

A

Gets its proteins imported from the cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Endosymbiont theory

A

Suggests that mitochondria were once free-living prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Nucleus

A

Small structure that contains the chromosomes and regulates the DNA of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Nucleus

A

Regulates the DNA of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Nucleus

A

Designing structure of eukaryotic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

All eukaryotic cells have

A

A nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

A nucleus is responsible for

A

Passing on genetic traits between generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Nucleus contains 6 parts

A

The nuclear envelope, nucleoplasm, a nucleolus, nuclear pores, chromatin and ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Chromosomes

A

Highly condensed thread-like rods DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

DNA

A

Shorts for the deoxyribonucleic acid is a genetic material that stores information about the plant or animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Chromatin

A

Consists of the DNA and protein that makes up chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Nucleolus

A

Structure contained within a nucleus consists of protein and a small round does not have a membrane, is involved in protein synthesis and synthesizes and stores RNA ribonucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Nucleolus

A

Involved in protein synthesis and stores RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Nuclear envelope

A

This encloses the structure of the nucleus and it consists of inner and outer membranes made of lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Nuclear pores

A

These are involved in the exchange of material between the nucleus and the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Nucleoplasm

A

This is the liquid within the nucleus it is similar to the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Not only is DNA found in the nucleus but also

A

In mitochondria and chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

The nuclear envelope contains double membranes with pores made out of large protein complexes that regulate the passage of

A

RNA, ribosomal subunits, proteins, ions and signal molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Enclosed in the double membrane the nucleus is

A

Nucleoplasm, chromatin, and a non membrane-bound nucleus which produces ribosomal subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Chromatin

A

DNA and associated histone proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The inner nuclear membrane is covered by a mesh of protein filaments called

A

The nuclear lamina which stabilizes the nuclear us while regulating events such as DNA replication and cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The outer membrane of the nucleus is continuous with the

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The nucleus is responsible for

A

Storage of DNA, the site of DNA replication, and transcription the synthesis of RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The largest structure inside the nucleus that is responsible for producing ribosomes subunits

A

Nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Has no membrane and is made of three regions in the nucleus.

A

Fibrillar center FC - is where the ribosomal RNA genes are located and transcribed.
Dense Fibrillar Center DFC - processes the pre rrna
Granular -GC -immature ribosomal subunits are assembled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

All are RNA is synthesized in the nucleolus except

A

5s-rrna which is made in the nucleoplasm before being incorporated into ribosomal subunits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The nucleolus disappears early in mitosis of what stage

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What stage does the nucleolus reappear in mitosis

A

The final stage telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

When the nucleolus first appears early in mitosis it appears

A

10 small units at various chromosome sites called nucleolus organizer regions in NORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Is the double membrane that encloses the nucleus separating the nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm of the cell

A

Nuclear envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

There is a 2240 nanometer gap between the two phospholipid bilayers

A

Nuclear envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Two phospholipid bilayers called regarding the nuclear envelope

A

Perinuclear space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

The pores in the nuclear envelope each are made of hundreds of proteins called

A

Nucleoporins and is an Octagonal Aqueous channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The proteins in the nuclear envelope interact with transporter proteins called

A

Karyopherinswhich shuttle large molecules like RNA and certain proteins back and forth between the nucleus and the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Smaller molecules and ions are able to diffuse through the pore complex of the nuclear envelope without

A

The aid of a transporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

The cores of the nuclear envelope are essential for the import of the

A

Enzymes in nucleotides that are required for DNA synthesis and transcription and export of mRNA, TRNA and ribosomal subunits that are required for translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is continuous with the

A

Endoplasmic reticulum and the lumen of the ER is open to the Perinuclear space which allows for the easy exchange of materials between two organelles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

The nucleoplasm mix side of the inner membrane is lined with a network of protein filaments called

A

Nuclear lamina and he supports the nuclear us while eating in the organization of chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Lumen

A

Inner space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

The stage of the cell cycle in which the nucleus divides

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Longest stage in mitosis that prepares for division by copying organelles and duplicating chromosomes

A

Interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Mitosis is usually found by

A

Cytokinesis

137
Q

Division of the cytoplasm and results into identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

A

Cytokinesis

138
Q

Phase where chromatin condenses More dense into chromosomes, the nucleolus and nuclear membrane break down and the mitotic spindle begins to form

A

Prophase

139
Q

Stage where the spindle aligns the chromosomes along the metaphase plate

A

Metaphase

140
Q

Sister chromatids are splits at the centromere and pulled towards opposite poles

A

Anaphase

141
Q

Centromere

A

Center of a chromosome where everything attached the little dot

142
Q

Phase where chromosomes uncoil, in nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromosomes, a nucleolus forms in each new nucleus the mitotic spindle breaks down and cytokinesis begins

A

Telophase

143
Q

In order to maintain the number of chromosomes in our cells the cell will

A

Replicate its DNA before mitosis

144
Q

Mitosis cannot divide

A

Sex cells

145
Q

Cell cycle function

A

Cells grow, regenerate, repair themselves

146
Q

What cells undergo mitosis

A

Somatic cells

147
Q

What is the acronym for mitosis

A

PMAT

148
Q

Mitosis splits

A

DNA

149
Q

The human diploid cell means

A

There are two sets of chromosomes 1 set 23 from mother and one set 23 from father

150
Q

In order to maintain the number of chromosomes in our cells

A

The cell will replicate its DNA before mitosis

151
Q

Phase where the cell’s nuclear membrane dissolves in the chromosomes start to condense, microtubules extending from the centralist on both sides of the cell also begin to form. The microtubules along the centrosomes form the spindle apparatus that will eventually help move the chromosomes into place

A

Prophase

152
Q

Phase where the microtubules attach to the centromeres of chromosomes causing the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

A

Metaphase

153
Q

Cease where chromosomes get pulled apart into their sister chromatids and move to opposite ends of the cell and the plasma membrane also starts to indent to prepare for the actual division of the cell

A

Anaphase

154
Q

Phase where the chromosomes relax, the spindle apparatus disassembles and the nuclear membrane reforms in each end of the cell and the plasma membrane of the cell develops and even deeper Furrow that will end up dividing the cell down the middle. However the cytoplasm has not actually divided yet

A

Telophase

155
Q

The process where the cell actually divides itself into

A

Cytokinesis

156
Q

Chromosomes resemble the shape of

A

X with identical DNA in each sister chromatid

157
Q

In prophase the sister chromatids are bound together along their entire length buy protein complexes

A

Called cohesion but by metaphase all cohesion are broken down except those found at the centromere.

158
Q

In prophase protein-based structures are formed at the centromere to serve as an attachment for the microtubules of the spindle

A

Kinetochores

159
Q

In prophase as the connector chore microtubules attach to each chromosome at the centromere other microtubules called what overlap at the center of the cell never interacting with the

A

Polar fibers

160
Q

During this stage there are chromosomes positioned along an imaginary line between two centrosomes known as the spindle equator or equator plate

A

Metaphase

161
Q

During what stage does the connect. Or fibers lengthen or shorten as needed to line up the chromosomes in the movement is assisted by force is exerted by motor proteins

A

Metaphase

162
Q

What stage of mitosis is chromosomes at their most condensed form

A

Anaphase

163
Q

during what stage of mitosis does the connect a chore fiber shortened as a result of depolarization splitting the centromeres and pulling the liberated chromosomes toward the centrosomes. as they are dragged through the cytosol the linear chromosomes bend into a v shape

A

Anaphase

164
Q

During what stage does a polar fibers continue to elongate as a cell as the chromosomes uncoil in the nucleolus as well as the microtubules of the spindle being the depolymerize and disappearing

A

Telophase

165
Q

What stage does cytokinesis usually begin

A

Storing telophase or late anaphase

166
Q

Chromosomes are

A

Thread-like structures made of dense DNA strands

167
Q

What does a chromosome look like during interphase

A

They are invisible to the human eye

168
Q

What does the chromosome look like during prophase

A

Chromosomes start to condense

169
Q

And what phase are the chromosomes most easiest to see

A

Anaphase and telophase

170
Q

The point where two sister chromatids are connected

A

It’s centromere

171
Q

What are the other structures on a chromosome called other than the centromere

A

The arms

172
Q

What is it called when all the arms on a chromosome are equal in the same size

A

Isobrachial

173
Q

What is it called when the arms of a chromosome are different sizes

A

Heterobrachial

174
Q

What are the arms of a chromosome classified if not equal

A

Smaller arms are classified as p and the longer are classified as q

175
Q

What is a telecentric chromosome

A

When the centromere is at the very end of the arm of a chromatid however you will not see this in humans

176
Q

What is acrocentric chromosome

A

Refers to a chromosome with a centromere place closer to the terminal of one end of the arm resulting in chromosome arms of different sizes

177
Q

What is a sub metacentric chromosome

A

Refers to the chromosome centromere located near the middle but not directly so that the arms are still unequal in length

178
Q

What is a metacentric chromosome

A

Chromosome with a centromere that is located in the middle with two seemingly equal chromosomal arms

179
Q

The centromere of a metaphase chromosome contains

A

2 kinetochore facing in opposite directions

180
Q

What are attached to the main part of the arms of chromosomes

A

Satellites by only a thread of chromatin

181
Q

Secondary constructions on chromosomes

A

Nor and joint are always constant in their positions and often used as markers

182
Q

Nor , nuclear organizer region

A

Specialized reduce nucleolus and rrna

183
Q

Telomere

A

A short repeated DNA sequence complex with proteins which are synthesized separately an attitude of chromosome tips

184
Q

How do telomeres help

A

Provide stability by preventing infusions of chromosomes, act as intiators of synapsis and shortening of telomeres cause senescence and aging

185
Q

Chromo-meres

A

Bead like structures and are tightly coiled no longer visible at metaphase

186
Q

A chromosomes

A

Normal invariant set of chromosomes which are diagnostic of the species

187
Q

B chromosomes

A

Extra chromosomes mostly heterochromatic smaller than normal chromosomes and exhibit slower replication

188
Q

B chromosomes

A

Do not take part in mitosis, segregate randomly and don’t affect phenotype

189
Q

Functions of chromosomes

A

Contain hereditary information in the form of genes and act as a hereditary vehicle,
Control division, growth, metabolism and differentiation in a cell
The polarity of chromosomes determines the expression of gametophyte or sporophyte generation

190
Q

Crossing over and aberrations of chromosomes introduce variations of population is a

A

Function of chromosome

191
Q

Transmit hereditary information from generation to generation

A

Chromosome video I have the phases of the cell cycle and meiosis the s*** maybe I will you break

192
Q

Cell cycle can be described as

A

The life of the cell beginning with the formation and ending with its own division

193
Q

The phases of a cell cycle

A

G0, g1, s, g2, m

194
Q

G1 phase

A

First Gap

195
Q

S phase

A

Synthesize

196
Q

G2 phase

A

Second Gap

197
Q

M phase

A

Mitotic phase

198
Q

Non growing State in which the cell performs its job and does not divide

A

G0

199
Q

Why might the g0 phase occur

A

it is not always reversible cells are deficient in nutrients are growth factors may be blocked from proceeding to the s phase

200
Q

Quiescent

A

Inactivity or dormant

201
Q

Mature love ourselves and Minnie adult stem cells exist in a

A

Quiescent State and only divide in response to stimuli such as tissue damage

202
Q

A cell with damaged DNA is likely to enter an irreversible okay state that allows the cell to avoid apoptosis which is programmed cell death but will remain in g0 indefinitely

A

Senescence, loss of cell growth

203
Q

Highly differentiated cells such as nerve and cardiac muscle cells

A

Permanently leave the cell cycle because they are genetically programmed to do so

204
Q

The phase of the cell cycle is the first part of interphase and begins immediately after cell division.

A

G1

205
Q

During this stage the volume of the cell increases and metabolic activities that were inhibited during mitosis are accelerated. The cell begins the task of copying its organelles, synthesizing mRNA, TRNA, and rrna in producing the enzymes required for DNA replication.

A

G1 phase

206
Q

Longest phase of the cell cycle averaging 6 to 12 hours some cells remain in this phase 4 years before the cell is allowed to proceed to the next it is inspected at a checkpoint Estelle’s it goes back to g0

A

G1

207
Q

Phase of the cell cycle that falls between g1 and g2 of interphase.

A

S phase

208
Q

Phase that averages 6 to 8 hours each molecule of DNA is replicated doubling the genetic content.

A

S phase

209
Q

M phase

A

Mitotic phase that divides its copy to DNA in cytoplasm to make new cells. centrosomes are duplicated during the stage while transcription and protein synthesis are inhibited.

210
Q

Second Gap, these follows DNA replication and is the final part of interphase.

A

G2 phase

211
Q

3-4 hours of cell growth continued replication of organelles and protein synthesis. The centrosomes that were duplicated during the s phase begin to mature as microtubules become more organized and do centrioles elongate.

A

G2 phase

212
Q

Cells that are significantly and irreparable damaged will enter a state where they will be eliminated through program cell death

A

Senescence

213
Q

Mitosis

A

Nuclear division

214
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Cytoplasmic division

215
Q

What makes up the m phase of the cell cycle

A

Mitosis and cytokinesis

216
Q

There is no growth during this phase,

A

M phase

217
Q

In animal cells, Cytokinesis results from the formation of a

A

Contractile ring of actin and non muscle myosin 2 filaments. This ring forms around the equator of the cell directly beneath the plasma membrane and parallel to the metaphase plate

218
Q

Myosin

A

Is a motor protein that uses ATP to move the actin filaments causing the rings to contract like a drawstring

219
Q

The shortest phase of the cell cycle averaging one to two hours

A

M phase

220
Q

Proliferate

A

To produce cells

221
Q

Cell growth can be prevented from

A

Inside and outside of the cell

222
Q

Gross arrest may occur in conditions of

A

Oxidative stress, infection or depleted levels of nutrients and growth factors

223
Q

Gametogenesis

A

Process by which diploid germ cells give rise to haploid gametes sex cells.

224
Q

Gamates

A

Sex cells

225
Q

Germ cells are produced in the early stages of

A

Embryogenesis and migrate from the primitive streak of the gonads where they later undergo meiosis

226
Q

All other cells are restricted to mitosis and have no potential to produce

A

Gametes

227
Q

Mitosis is a single division that results in

A

Two identical cells each with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

228
Q

In meiosis a germ cell undergoes

A

Two rounds of cell division meiosis 1 and meiosis 2

229
Q

During meiosis 1,

A

homologous pairs of chromosomes exchange portions of their DNA before they are separated and distributed independently to daughter cells. this happened so that the daughter cells are genetically unique and the chromosome number is cut in half.

230
Q

During meiosis 2

A

Results in 4 haploid cells these cells de varenne today to give rise to the mature gametes that fuse during fertilization restoring the diploid number

231
Q

Haploid

A

Number of chromosomes is cut in half

232
Q

The production of OVA

A

Oogenesis

233
Q

The production of sperm

A

Spermatogenesis

234
Q

Smallest of the human cells measuring about 0.05 mm in length

A

Sperm cell

235
Q

Sperm cell has three sections

A

Head, midpiece, and tail

236
Q

The head of the sperm cell contains

A

Centrioles in a compacted nucleus with tightly coiled DNA

237
Q

The anterior surface of the head of sperm cells is capped with

A

Acrosome

238
Q

Acrosome

A

A Golgi derived structure that is packed with enzymes that assist in the penetration of the zona pellucida and is therefore essential for fertilization

239
Q

Between 50 and 100 mitochondria spiral around the midpiece of the sperm cell which is

A

The only part of the sperm that contains any mitochondria

240
Q

The ATP produced by the mitochondria Powers the sliding motion of the microtubules within the… Regarding the sperm cell

A

Tail, or flagellum of the sperm causing it to undulate

241
Q

Undulate

A

Move up and down

242
Q

Flagellum

A

Tail of the sperm

243
Q

What is the microtubule based core of the flagellum called

A

Axoneme and consists of 9 doublet of microtubules arranged around a central pair

244
Q

Oocyte

A

A cell in an ovary

245
Q

When an oocyte undergoes meiosis and cytokinesis the cytoplasm divides

A

Unequally to produce one large visible ovum, which is a mature female reproductive egg

246
Q

Ovum

A

Immature female reproductive egg

247
Q

The ooplasm love the egg contains an abundance of nutrients that will sustain the

A

Zygote, and later the daughter cells that are produced by mitosis, all the molecules such as enzymes RNA as well as organelles

248
Q

Sperm cells to contain mitochondria but are left behind when

A

The midpiece and Taylor released from the head during fertilization

249
Q

Each gamate contributes how many autosomes

A

22 non-sex chromosomes and one sex chromosome to the zygote

250
Q

The egg always contribute a what kind of

A

X

251
Q

The sperm always contributes either and what chromosome

A

X or y

252
Q

Germ cell

A

a cell containing half the number of chromosomes of a somatic cell and unable to unite with one from the opposite sex to form a new individual

253
Q

Germ cells are different from somatic cells because they can

A

Undergo both mitosis and meiosis

254
Q

Homologous

A

Alike

255
Q

Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tube within

A

24 hours of ovulation

256
Q

How many sperms are jaculated and reach into the secondary oocyte

A

About 200

257
Q

When does sperm makes contact with occyle, it goes through the Corona radiata and binds to receptor proteins in the

A

zona pellucida

258
Q

What releases enzymes to allow the sperm to pass through the zona Pellucida to the membrane of the oocyte

A

Acrosome

259
Q

Actin filaments extend from the sperm to form a tubular structure

A

Acrosome apparatus, through which its pronucleus has passed. The midpiece and Tail left behind

260
Q

Entry of the pro-nucleus stimulates

A

The cortical reaction with enzymes from the cortical granules beneath the membrane of the occyte diffuse into the zona pellucida causing it to harden and preventing fertilization by more than one sperm

261
Q

The oocyte then divides unequally by

A

Meiosis 2 to produce an ovum, the pro nucleus of the sperm fuses with a pro nucleus of the ovum and a zygote fertilized egg is formed

262
Q

Zygote

A

A fertilized egg

263
Q

After fertilization, the zygote develops into a cluster of cells called

A

Morula

264
Q

The morula is pushed from the fallopian tube to the

A

Uterine cavity by peristalsis which is muscle contractions and the wave-like motions of Celia where it floats freely in the uterus for 3 days using uterine secretions as nourishment

265
Q

The cells of the morula begin to give rise to a blastocyst with a fluid-filled cavity and

A

Two types of cells, the inner cell Mass will give rise to the embryo and the outer trophoblast develop into the placenta

266
Q

What degenerates around 6 days after fertilization in preparation for implantation

A

Zona pellucida

267
Q

Blastocyst secrets human chronic gonadotropin

A

Which stimulates the production of other hormones

268
Q

About one week after ovulation the blastocyst attaches to the

A

Endometrium and outer cells of the trophoblast

269
Q

About 2 weeks after fertilization the blastocyst it’s fully implanted in the endometrium is

A

Now called the decidua

270
Q

Decidua

A

The maternal contribution to the placenta

271
Q

During the pre embryonic stage of development the zygote undergoes

A

Cleavage which is dividing mitotically to form a morula

272
Q

During gastrulation the cells of the embryo are reorganize to form the

A

Embryonic germ layers which include ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm to produce tissues and organs of the embryo

273
Q

A neutral plate derived from the ectoderm invades the mesoderm to form the neutral tube in a process called

A

Neurulation

274
Q

The development of the heartbeat

A

Organogensis, which beats around the third week

275
Q

Organogenesis

A

The development of the heartbeat the digestive system and the other internal organs start to form as well as the placenta and the umbilical cord

276
Q

By the end of the eight weeks the organ systems have formed in the embryo is now a

A

Fetus

277
Q

Birth normally occurs around how many weeks of post fertilizations

A

40 weeks

278
Q

How does the fetus adapt quickly as it transitions environments

A

By hormones notably cortisol and catecholamines

279
Q

Neonate

A

Newborn child less than 4 weeks old

280
Q

Before birth the neonate relies on oxygen from it’s mother’s blood and its lungs are

A

Collapsed and fluid-filled

281
Q

As labor approaches the secretion of fluid from the fetal lungs decrease creases while re-absorption

A

Increases

282
Q

At birth the lungs fill with air and the rest of the fluid

A

Leaves the lungs with the first breath triggering critical circulatory changes

283
Q

Pulmonary resistance decreases pulmonary blood flow

A

Increases

284
Q

The shunts that cause the blood to bypass the lungs and liver

A

Both constrict at birth and close soon after and the neonate will no longer receive nourishment from the placenta and will rely on the mother’s milk and stores of glycogen in the liver.

285
Q

At birth the neonate must also expand energy to keep warm so it must

A

Increase its my tablet rate through muscle movements and the burning of brown fat

286
Q

Epithelial cells

A

Lining and covering tissues of the body involved in protection, absorption, secretion and or filter ization

287
Q

Squamous cell shape

A

Epithelial cell that is flattened and scale-like

288
Q

Cuboidal

A

Epithelial cell that is cube-shaped

289
Q

Columnar

A

Epithelial cell that is long and thin

290
Q

Simple epithelia

A

Single layer of cells, epithelial tissue

291
Q

Pseudo stratified

A

Appearance of multiple layers as a result in differences and cell shape and location epithelial cells

292
Q

Stratified epithelial

A

Multiple layers of cells of epithelial cells

293
Q

Stratified squamous epithelial tissues are found in locations that experience friction such as

A

The mouth, esophagus, and exterior skin

294
Q

Simple epithelia

A

Line the digestive tract and harbor mucus producing goblet cells

295
Q

Simple squamous epithelia

A

Forms membranes where filtration or diffusion occurs such as alveoli of the lungs

296
Q

Are the most abundant tissues in the body

A

Connective tissues

297
Q

Abundant

A

Large amounts

298
Q

Are highly vascular the exception being ligaments, tendons and cartilage

A

Connective tissue

299
Q

Support and protect the body and are characterized by the presence of a nonliving matrix

A

Connective tissue cells

300
Q

Secreted by the cells of the connective tissue and it consists of ground substance and protein fibers

A

The matrix

301
Q

Ground substance of connective tissue

A

Water, proteins and carbohydrates

302
Q

Protein fibers connective tissue

A

Collagen, elastin, or reticular fibers

303
Q

A connective tissue made of blood cells and plasma the transports oxygen carbon dioxide, nutrients, and waste

A

Blood

304
Q

Made of fat cells that cushion and insulate the body that is a connective tissue

A

Adipose tissue

305
Q

Osseous tissue

A

Bone consists of osteocytes surrounded by a large matrix of calcium salts and collagen

306
Q

A connective tissue that provides support what is made of cells called Chondrocytes and is more flexible

A

Cartilage

307
Q

Made of dense fibrous connective tissue which is made mostly of collagen fibers

A

Ligaments and tendons

308
Q

When cells are competent they are able to

A

Receive signals from adjacent or nearby cells

309
Q

Cells that secrete signal molecules are called

A

Inducers and cells that respond our responsers

310
Q

Autocrine signals

A

Are self-generated they act on the same cell that Secreted them

311
Q

Paracrine signals

A

Diffuse in cells in close proximity

312
Q

Endocrine signals

A

Enters the blood and travels to distant tissues

313
Q

Juxtacrine signals require

A

Contact between cells

314
Q

Sometimes two different tissues respond to each other signals promoting differentiation in each other

A

Reciprocal induction

315
Q

Is required for normal embryonic development that begins during gastrulation and continues throughout life

A

Cell migration

316
Q

Migration is initiated by

A

Signaling molecules that trigger the detachment of cells from their substrate, underlying substance

317
Q

Potency stem cells

A

Describes the ability of a cell to differentiate

318
Q

Totipotent cells have complete

A

Potency

319
Q

Diffential gene expression

A

The mechanism for cell specialization and ultimately the development of an organism

320
Q

Programmed cell death

A

Induced by signals that activate protesis called caspases. Cell shrink, chromatin condenses as the cell membrane bulges out into blebs. Are then called apoptotic bodies in a digested by phagocytes cells

321
Q

Senescence

A

Progressive decline in function as a result of biological aging.can be drawn by the activation of deactivation of a tumor or a way to reduce the threat of cancer.

322
Q

Telomeres

A

Repetitive non-coding sequences of DNA found at the ends of chromosomes that protect the coding sequences. Every time cell divides the chromosomes shorten because DNA polymerase cannot replicate at the end portion

323
Q

Telomerase

A

Is it ensign that can add nucleotides to these problematic and portions what is only found in certain types of cells such as germ stem cells, cells cancer cells and even adult stem cells

324
Q

Medial

A

Means near to the midline of the body example the little finger is medial to the thumb

325
Q

Lateral

A

Is the opposite of medial. They were first two structures further away from the body’s midline at the sides. For example the thumb is lateral to the little finger

326
Q

Proximal

A

Refers to the structures closer to the center of the body. For example the hip is proximal to the knee.

327
Q

Distal

A

Refers to the structures further away from the center of the body. The knee is distal to the hip.

328
Q

Anterior

A

Refers to the structures in front

329
Q

Posterior

A

Refers to the structures behind

330
Q

Cephalad and Cephalic

A

Adverbs meaning towards the head example cranial is the adjective meaning the school

331
Q

Superior

A

Means above or closer to the Head

332
Q

Inferior

A

Means below closer to the feet

333
Q

Transverse plane

A

Horizontal divides the patient’s body into imaginary upper and lower halves

334
Q

Cuadual

A

Inferior

335
Q

Sagittal plane

A

Divides the body vertically into left and right sections runs through the midline of the body

336
Q

Coronal plane

A

Divides the body vertically into front or back sections anterior and posterior

337
Q

How many different tissues types are in the human body

A

4, connective, epithelial, nervous, and muscle

338
Q

Where is the parathyroid gland located

A

In the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland on the posterior aspect

339
Q

Describe the anatomical location of the abdomen

A

Superior to the pelvis inferior to the rib cage

AP Teas (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions