Cells Flashcards

1
Q

What can cause urethritis?

A

Chlamydia trachomatiso
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Non-specific urethritis: Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma, no organism found

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2
Q

What might be symptoms of vaginal discharge?

A

Vulval itching and soreness

Creamy discharge

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3
Q

What can cause vaginal discharge?

A

Gonorrhoea
Chlamydia
Trichomonas
Candidiasis (thrush), Bacterial vaginosis
Both caused by disruption of normal microbiota, not usually considered STI

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4
Q

What might be symptoms of genital herpes?

A
Painful sores on vulva/ thighs
Blisters which burst 
Very painful dysuria 
Headache 
Myalgia
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5
Q

What might be symptoms of primary syphilis?

A

Painless swelling
Genital ulcers
Systemically well

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6
Q

What can be causes of painful genital ulcers?

A
Herpes simplex (HSV) 2 and 1 
Lymphogranuloma venereum 
Chlamydia trachomatis
Chancroid (rare UK)   
Non-STI e.g Behçet’s, Stevens-Johnson
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7
Q

What can be causes of painless genital ulcers?

A
Syphilis 
Lymphogranuloma venereum 
Granuloma inguinale 
Donovanosis- rare UK; Calymmatobacterium
Non-STI e.g carcinoma
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8
Q

What are symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A
History grumbling lower abdo pain 
Severe dyspareunia 
Mild dysuria 
Fever
Discharge
Bleeding
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9
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Infection upper genital tract

Most commonly STI, but also associated with IUCD (coil), peritonitis

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10
Q

What are signs of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Tenderness incl RUQ, cervical excitation, endocervical pus

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11
Q

What do you need to rule out first before diagnosing pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Ectopic pregnancy as may present in same way

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12
Q

What can be complications of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Chronic pelvic pain, tubal infertility, ectopic pregnancy

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13
Q

What may be symptoms of Epididymo-orchitis?

A

Painful enlarged scrotum
Fever 39C
Ultrasound: no torsion

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14
Q

What are causes of Epididymo-orchitis?

A

UTI: E. coli commonest
STI: Gonorrhoea, Chlamydia
Viral: mumps
Rare: TB, Brucella

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15
Q

How do you diagnose epididymo-orchitis?

A
Depends on history 
Urine for microscopy, culture and sensitivity 
Urine for STI screen 
Urethral swab 
Viral serology
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16
Q

What can be complications of epididymo-orchitis?

A

Scrotal abscess

Infertility

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17
Q

What can cause genital lumps and bumps?

A

Genital warts

Molluscum contagiosum

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18
Q

Give some examples of Disseminated manifestations of genital infections

A
Gonorrheal bacteraemia/ arthritis 
PID, perihepatitis 
Secondary and tertiary syphilis 
Reiter’s syndrome: reactive arthritis secondary to infection 
Herpes meningitis, encephalitis
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19
Q

Give examples of Systemic disease without genital manifestations

A

HIV

Hepatitis viruses: A, B, C, (D)

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20
Q

How do you make a microbial diagnosis?

A

See it (microscopy) Grow it (culture) Kill it (sensitivity)
Detect pathogen: Protein (antigen), Nucleic acid (DNA/RNA)
Detect response to pathogen: Antibody (serology)

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21
Q

What do gonorrhoea look like?

A

Gram negative diplococci

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22
Q

What technique other than microscopy can be used to diagnose gonorrhoea?

A
NAAT: nucleic acid amplification test
24-48h to result 
High sensitivity and specificity 
Combine with Chlamydia test 
No antimicrobial susceptibility 
Requires non-inhibitory specimen (body fluids, including urine may inhibit PCR), not suitable for normal swabs
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23
Q

How can microscopy be used to diagnose gonorrhoea?

A

Rapid: result in clinic
Less sensitive than NAAT
Requires skilled microscopist
Gives antimicrobial susceptibility result (but 2-3d after clinic visit)
Useful for individual patient treatment, also for epidemiological surveillance

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24
Q

How can chlamydia be diagnosed?

A

Obligate intracellular bacterium
Will not grow in cell free culture (i.e on an agar plate)
Almost all diagnosis now via NAAT
90-95% sensitivity, >99% specificity

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25
Q

How can syphilis be diagnosed?

A

Microscopy: dark ground, specific but sensitivity low, Only available
primary syphilis, Skilled technician, Relies on good quality specimen Culture: Treponema pallidum unculturable, Antigen detection using fluorescent antibody, Highly specific if primary lesions present, Higher sensitivity than dark ground
Nucleic acid detection: PCR, High specificity in primary lesions, Not yet in routine clinical use
Serology (antibody detection): Venereal diseases research laboratory (VDRL) antigen, used to be 1st line, Now largely replaced with
simpler, automatable test, Allows diagnosis secondary syphilis

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26
Q

Describe primary syphilis

A

Single or multiple primary chancres
Usually painless; firm, round
Sore lasts 3-6 weeks with or without treatment

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27
Q

Describe secondary syphilis

A

Rashes, classically palms and soles
Multiple sores, mucous membranes
Fever, lymphadenopathy, fatigue

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28
Q

Describe latent Syphillis

A

if secondary untreated
Asymptomatic
Lasts 10-30 years, may progress to tertiary

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29
Q

Describe tertiary syphilis

A

Tabes dorsalis
GPI (general paralysis of the insane)
Dementia
Argyle Robertson pupils

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30
Q

What are the key points of syphilis diagnosis?

A

Most diagnoses by antibody detection
Serum: IgM indicates recent infection, IgG stays positive for months/ years/ life
If neurosyphilis suspected may need to test CSF, talk to microbiologist/ reference lab

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31
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed STI?

A

Chlamydia

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32
Q

Which STIs increase transmission of blood borne virus STI?

A

STIs causing inflammation/ open lesions

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33
Q

How can STIs be transmitted?

A

Sexual contact: Not just genital, Rising incidence extra-genital gonorrhoea
Non-sexual contact: In utero syphilis, Peripartum gonorrhoea,
Chlamydia, Blood-borne BBVs, Other skin/ body fluid: e.g herpes simplex

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34
Q

What are the principles of controlling the spread of STIs?

A

Remove reservoirs & sources
Interrupt transmission
Increase host resistance

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35
Q

What are methods of primary prevention for STIs?

A

Safe sexual behaviours
Barrier contraceptive methods
Immunisation: currently only available for HPV (warts)

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36
Q

What are methods of secondary prevention for STIs?

A

Detect: screening, better access to GUM services, targeted information (16-25s)
If 1 STI, look for others
Prompt effective treatment, contact tracing

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37
Q

How can antibiotics develop resistance?

A

Efflux
Immunity and bypass
Target modification
Inactivating enzymes

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38
Q

Describe Antibiotic resistance in Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Altered target: resistance to quinolones (ciprofloxacin), resistance to beta-lactams (penicillin-binding proteins), resistance to macrolides (azithromycin)
Drug breakdown: resistance to penicillins
Drug efflux: multiple antibiotic resistance

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39
Q

How is antibiotic resistance spread between strains of gonorrhoeae?

A

Plasmid and chromosome mediated

Rapid spread between strains

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40
Q

What are the Principles of antimicrobial therapy?

A

Right drug: For patient and organism. UK guideline on empiric treatment, because susceptibility not known at GUM clinic visit. Check for allergies, contraindications and interactions
Right dose: For patient (weight, liver and renal function), for bacteria (minimum inhibitory concentration)
Right time: Immediately!
Right duration: Single dose effective, increases concordance, minimises side-effects

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41
Q

What symptoms and signs might you get with urethritis? And what behaviours increase the risk of it?

A
Discharge from penis, staining in pants 
Pain on passing urine 
Multiple sexual partners
No regular sexual partner 
No barrier protection
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42
Q

What is the Central dogma of molecular biology?

A

DNA makes heterogenous nuclear RNA, making messenger RNA, which makes polypeptides, which makes proteins

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43
Q

What determines our phenotype?

A

Genotype x Environment x Time

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44
Q

Describe classification of genetic disease

A

Monogentic: Single gene abnormal, Molecular genetic test
Chromosomal: Abnormality of structure or number, Cytogenetics
Multifactorial: Multiple genes and environmental influences, Can perform molecular genetic test to assess risk

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45
Q

What is an allele?

A

Variant versions of the same genes

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46
Q

What is a Common or wild type allele?

A

Common in population and NOT associated with a given disease

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47
Q

What is a polymorphism?

A

Genetic variants that occur commonly in the population with no significant association with disease e.g. blood groups

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48
Q

What are Mendel’s laws of inheritance?

A

Unit inheritance: Hereditary characters are determined by genes. An allele is one version of a gene
Dominance: Alleles occur in pairs in each indvidual, but effects of one allele may be masked by those of a dominant partner allele Segregation: During formaton of gametes, members of each pair of alleles separate so each gamete carries only one allele of each pair. Allele pairs are restored at fertilisation
Independent assortment: Different genes control different phenotypic characters and alleles of different genes re-assort independently of one another

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49
Q

What are exceptions to Mendels laws?

A

Sex-related effects: abnormalities inherited on X or Y chromosome
Mitochondrial inheritance: mitochondrial DNA always from mother
Genetic linkage: combinations of some alleles of different genes tend to be inherited together
Polygenic conditions: phenotype reflects actions of multiple genes and
environment, characteristics represent a continuim e.g. height
Overdominance: homozygotes for a given disease allele are distinguishable from heterozygotes, often homozygosity incompatible with life
Incomplete dominance: allele is only dominent in a certain situation Codominance: both alleles expressed in individual e.g. blood group
Variable expressivity: expression of genes modified by other genes and
enviroment so there may be different severities of disease
Incomplete penetrance: dominant allele not phenotypically expressed, due to negation from another factor
Genomic imprinting: mutant alleles confer different phenotypes depending on parent of origin
Dynamic mutation: genetic diseases present with increasing severity in
consecutive generations, due to expansion of a three-base repeat in their DNA

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50
Q

What are Principles of autosomal dominant (AD) inheritance?

A

Dominant alleles are expressed when present as single copies
Gain of function in protein coded for by mutant allele
Males and females express allele and can transmit it to all offspring Vertical pattern of inheritance (affected person has affected parent)
Parents unaffected, all children unaffected (unless new mutation)
Dominant alleles occur at low frequency as carriers less healthy than genetically normal homozygotes
Significant gene product usually NOT enzymic i.e. structural or a signalling molecule

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51
Q

Give examples of diseases inherited autosomal dominant

A
Familial hypercholesterolaemia  
Adult polycystic kidney disease (APCKD) 
Hereditary spherocytosis 
Familial adenomatous polyposis coli
Huntington disease 
Achondroplasia
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52
Q

Describe types of familial hypercholesterolaemia

A
No LDLR is produced 
LDLR synthesis impaired before it reached PM 
LDLR cannot bind LDL 
LDLR do not move to coated pits 
LDLR cannt release bound LDL
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53
Q

What can be Complications to the AD picture of inheritance?

A

Codominance: neither allele is dominant over the other and both are expressed in heterozygotes e.g. ABO blood grouping

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54
Q

What are principles of autosomal recessive inheritance?

A

Alleles are expressed when both are mutated
Carriers are heterozygote for mutant allele but phenotypically normal
AR diseases associated with loss of function of proteins
AR conditions common as carriers (heterozygotes), tend to be healthy
Autosomal so male and females are affected
Pattern of expression is horizontal (siblings), with breaks in pedigree
Affected children are often born to unaffected parents
If both parents are affected then ALL of the offspring MUST be affected

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55
Q

What Types of mating can produce recessive homozygotes with an autosomal recessive condition?

A

Two heterozygotes
Recessive homozygote and heterozygote
Two recessive homozygotes

56
Q

What is consanguinity?

A

Genetic load: hidden detrimental component of genome i.e. lethal pre-natal mutations and harmful recessive disorders for which we are carriers
Sharing of blood means that partners share at least one ancestor back to great-grandparent level i.e. second cousins
Children born to consanguinous relationships have 2x higher risk of
autsomal recessive disease

57
Q

What are presenting features of cystic fibrosis?

A

Meconium ileus: mucus plug blocks intestine when newborn
Hepatopancreatobiliary system: blockage of ducts leads to build up of mucus
Pancreas: blocked enzymes autodigest the pancreas leading to pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption (inc fat soluble vitamins), failure to thrive and eventually possibly diabetes
Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens in males
Blockage of airways: build up of mucus, secondary infections manifesting as a COPD and bronchiectasis

58
Q

What type of inheritance is cystic fibrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive

59
Q

What is the genetic basis of cystic fibrosis?

A

Mutation in CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)
When activated CFTR protein normally: cAMP regulated Chloride channels (Cl- moves out), Adjacent Na+ channels close (Na+ not able to move in)
Defective ion transport creating salt imbalance and water depletion

60
Q

What is Phenylkenonuria (PKU) ?

A

Children are blond with blue eyes
Convulsions, intellectual impairment (reduction in IQ of 1-2 points per week of untreated disease)
Deficiency in pheylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) so struggle to convert PA into tyrosine and PA levels in the blood become elevated

61
Q

What are the most common sex linked inherited disorders?

A

Recessive x linked that manifest in males

62
Q

What is mosaicism?

A

At a cellular level, gene expression in much of one of the X chromosomes is inactivated in every female body cell line

63
Q

Give examples of sex linked recessive inherited conditions

A

Red and green colour blindness (rhodopsin)
Duchene muscular dystrophy
Fragile X syndrome
Hemophilia A

64
Q

Describe duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

Presents before five years
Clinical features: clumsiness, muscle weakness, pseudo-hypertrophy of the calfs (fatty replacement of muscle)
Mortality by 18 is usual
X linked recessive

65
Q

What is fragile X syndrome?

A

Triplet expansion of CGG
Features: Learning difficulties, autism, hyperactivity
High forehead and prominent lower jaw
Males: macroorchidism

66
Q

How do we depict pertinent information relating to risk of disease?

A

When assessing risk of disease a full history needs to be taken from
the consultand
Family pedigree needs to be generated
Issues that need to be considered: Consanguinity, OB and Gynae history: miscarriages, terminations of pregnancy, still births
Neonatal or infant deaths
Disability especially in children
For each individual depicted on pedigree include: full name, date of birth, date and cause of death and any specific medical conditions

67
Q

What is the value of a pedigree diagram?

A

Provide information on: Mode and risk of inheritance
Genetic counselling is often sought: In process of family planning, assess risk to pregnancy, assess recurrence risk in future pregnancy, assess risk of a disease in offspring of close relatives, assess risk of late onset disease

68
Q

How are chromosomes formed?

A
Base pairs forming 
DNA double helix wrapping around 
Nucleosomes, giving beads on a string, coiling
Solenoid 
Looped solenoid on a central scaffold 
Compacted chromosomes
69
Q

Describe typical chromosome structure

A

Telomere: Specialised end of the chromosome
Centromere: Non-duplicated DNA present during early mitosis, Connects two identical sister chromatids, Forms focus of kinetochore for mitotic spindle formation
Arms: p= the petite or short arm, q= the long arm

70
Q

What is the unit of length of DNA?

A

Base pair, nucleotides

71
Q

What makes up a nucleotide?

A

Sugar
Phosphate group
Nitrogenous base

72
Q

DNA must be transcribed into RNA in order to produce a protein, the steps involved are:

A

hnRNA- heterogenous nuclear RNA production
mRNA- messenger RNA production
Translation into a polypeptide
Post translational modification and processing

73
Q

What is a codon?

A

3 bases, which code for an amino acid

74
Q

Describe the structure of genes

A

Upstream controlling DNA sequences - enhancers, silencers
Non-coding sequences within the coding section - introns
Exons - coding DNA

75
Q

What does the transcription unit contain?

A

Introns- non-coding DNA (spliced from RNA)

Exons- coding DNA

76
Q

What are mutations?

A

Permanent alterations in the base sequence of DNA

77
Q

Describe substitution mutations

A

Replacement of a base pair with another
Silent: new codon codes for the same amino acid
Missense: new codon codes for a different amino acid, Conservative- no alteration in the chemical properties of the protein produced, Non-conservative- deleterious effect on the protein produced
Premature termination or non-sense mutation: new codon is a STOP codon

78
Q

Describe deletion/ insertion mutations

A

Single base pair or two base pairs then FRAMESHIFT mutation
translational reading frame is disrupted
Erroneous protein downstream of the deletion/insertion

79
Q

What are different types of genetic alterations?

A
Substitution
Deletion
Insertion
Duplication
Copy number variation 
Transcriptional control
Splicing mutations
80
Q

Describe duplication or deletion of genes

A

Duplications of whole genes- increase the ‘dose’ of the protein can have deleterious effects

81
Q

What is copy number variation?

A

Large deletions or insertions of various lengths created by unequal crossing over between misaligned DNA segments

82
Q

How can transcriptional control result in a mutation?

A

Mutations in enhancer and silencer regions can have quantitative effects on the amount of product produced e.g. haemophilia B

83
Q

How can splicing mutations cause deleterious effects?

A

Affects the RNA produced e.g. Beta thalassaemia

84
Q

What is genomic imprinting?

A

Occurs during gametogenesis, methylation of segments of DNA
Only one of inherited alleles is expressed i.e. paternal or maternal in certain tissues
Genetic diseases arising in imprinted genes vary with the parent of origin of abnormal gene

85
Q

Give an example where genomic imprinting results in different phenotypic expression of disease

A

Microdeletion of 15q
Maternal deletion: Angelman syndrome, Jerky movements, Epilepsy, Developmental delay
Paternal deletion: Prader-Willi syndrome, Obesity, V shaped upper lips, Small hands, Learning difficulties

86
Q

What is a dynamic mutation?

A

Expansion of triplet or trinucleotide repeats
Diseases typically show anticipation in successive generations i.e.:
occurs earlier in successive generations and is more severe
Aggregation of toxic protein in transcription region e.g. Huntingtons Disease
Blockage of transcription if in the silencer/enhancer/promoter regions
e.g. Fragile X

87
Q

What is Pleiotropy?

A

One gene being responsible for diverse phenotypic effects

Eg collagen mutation will affect multiple systems

88
Q

What is Locus heterogeneity?

A

Two or more genetic loci creating similar phenotypic effects

Eg blindness can have multiple separate genetic causes

89
Q

Describe different types of chromosomes

A

Metacentric: Centromere in the middle
Sub-metacentric: Centromere sub median
Acrocentric: Centromere near one end 13, 14, 15, 21, 22, Y
Telecentric: Centromere at the end

90
Q

What is Cytogenetics?

A

Study of the number and structure of chromosomes usually to give a karyotype

91
Q

Give some indications for chromosomal analysis

A

Suspected chromosomal abnormality
Multiple congenital abnormalities and or developmental delays
Disorders of sexual function
Intellectual impairment of unknown cause
Certain malignancies
Infertility or multiple miscarriages
Stillbirth or neonatal death

92
Q

Describe chromosome staining

A

Compact tightly coiled chromatin stains dark (G-bands)
Loosely coiled chromatin stain lightly ( R-bands)
R-bands contain majority of the structural genes

93
Q

Describe karyotype formulae

A
Number of chromosomes 
Sex chromosomes present 
Any abnormalities: Number, substructure 
Genetically normal female- 46, XX 
Genetically normal male- 46, XY
94
Q

What are Abnormalities of number of chromosomes?

A
Euploidy= number of chromosomes is an integral multiple of the haploid number (23)
Aneuploidy= number of chromosomes is NOT an integral multiple of haploid number, Occurs due to abnormal separation of chromosomes during meiosis 1 or 2, Trisomy= three copies of one chromosome, Monosomy= single copy of a chromosome, autosomal monosomies are nearly always incompatible with life
95
Q

Which are the only autosomal trisomies compatible with life?

A

Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
T18 (Edwards syndrome)
T13 (Patau syndrome)

96
Q

What types of trisomy can there be?

A

Complete trisomy: severe clinical phenotype

Partial trisomy: translocation of part of the chromosome often with milder clinical manifestations

97
Q

What are features of Down’s syndrome?

A
Flat facial profile
Epicanthal fold
Single transverse palmar crease
General hypotonia
Large sandal gap between 1st and 2nd toes 
Life expectancy- 50-60 years 
Commonly associated with cardiac defects
98
Q

Which is the only Monosomy compatible with life?

A

X chromosome monosomy: Turner syndrome
Karyotype- 45 X
Clinical features: Low hairline, webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, primary ovarian failure, short stature, coarctation of the aorta

99
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Karyotype: 47 XXY, 48 XXXY, 49 XXXXY etc
Body type is male with the following features
Gynaecomastia, Elongated forearms and lower legs, Small testis and azoospermia, Variable learning differences

100
Q

What chromosomal structural abnormalities can occur?

A

Translocations
Deletions
Inversions
Ring chromosomes

101
Q

Describe chromosomal translocation

A

Transpositions of chromosome material between chromosomes
Centric or Robertsonian: Break at or near centromere followed by fusion, Typically with deletion/loss of the non-fused segments
Reciprocal: Interchromosomal exchange, Carrier normally healthy but can effect future generations
Insertional: Insertion of deleted segment interstitially at another location

102
Q

In childhood vulnerable groups include:

A

Babies born prematurely (7% of babies in UK)
Babies with developmental problems e.g. cerebral palsy (6% of children in UK are disabled)
Children with chronic illnesses e.g. asthma, epilepsy, TIDM, CF
Small babies in general

103
Q

What is fever in children and what can cause it?

A

Temperature >37.5°C
Most causes of temperature in childhood are due to benign, self
limiting viral illnesses

104
Q

Give examples of causes of temperature in children

A
Post immunisation 
Upper respiratory tract infections 
Otitis media 
Lower respiratory tract infections 
Pneumonia  
Gastroenteritis 
Urinary tract infection 
Septicaemia 
Meningitis 
Osteomyelitis
105
Q

How do you assess the severity of a temperature in children?

A

History: Age of child- serious infection more common in babies 5 days, Other symptoms – rash, breathing difficulties, posture
Examination: ABC, general examination
Investigations: Bloods, FBC: raised white cell count, U+E: used as baseline for IV fluids, CRP: raised, Blood cultures: culture of pathogen
Radiology, CSF: raised white cells, low CSF glucose, high protein, Urine: raised white cells, culture of pathogen

106
Q

What are febrile convulsions?

A

Commonest type of seizure in childhood affecting 1:20 children
Occurs in children age 6 months to 6 years
Simple convulsion:

107
Q

What can be infectious causes of vomiting and diarrhoea in children?

A
Viral 
Bacterial 
Urinary tract infection
Pneumonia  
Sepsis 
Meningitis
108
Q

What problems can arise from excessive vomiting and diarrhoea in children?

A

Dehydration

Hypoglycaemia (babies have limited glycogen stores)

109
Q

What could be the cause of a vesicular rash in children?

A

Chicken pox
Herpes
impetigo

110
Q

What could be causes of a papular rash in children?

A

Urticaria

Insect bites

111
Q

What could be causes of a red and scaly rash in children?

A

Eczema (will have epidermal breakage)

Psoriasis

112
Q

What could be causes of a red but not scaly rash in children?

A
Cellulitis 
Viral exanthema (measles, rubella)
113
Q

What could be causes of a purpuric rash in children?

A

Meningococcal sepsis

Low platelet count (idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, leukaemia)

114
Q

Describe prevalence and associated factors of eczema

A

5-10% of infants get eczema
50% resolve by 5 years, 30% more by teenage
Associated with atopy – may develop asthma or hay fever when older
Causes itching, scratching, misery, prone to skin infections
Source of huge anxiety and stress to families

115
Q

What can be causes of cough in childhood?

A

Upper respiratory: URTI, Croup (Parainfluenza), Allergy, Pertussis
Lower respiratory: Pneumonia, Asthma, Bronchiolitis (Viral illness often due to respiratory syncytial virus)

116
Q

What is pertussis? And how would you recognise it?

A
Whooping cough
Paroxysmal, violent rapid cough. All air expelled followed by an 
inspiratory whoop  
Cyanotic episodes 
Apnoea in babies
117
Q

What clinical signs might be seen in a child with a cough?

A

Upper respiratory: No chest signs unless severe obstruction
Lower respiratory: Tachypnoea, Recession, Abnormal breath sounds, Added sounds, Abnormalities in percussion

118
Q

What can be causes of a wheeze in children?

A

Upper Respiratory Tract Infection: Toddlers and pre-school children
Bronchiolitis: Infants
Asthma: Reversible airways obstruction due to smooth muscle spasm and inflammation, Rarely diagnosed before 2 years old

119
Q

What clinical features increase the probability of asthma?

A

Wheeze, cough, difficulty breathing, chest tightness, worse at night/morning, triggered by cold, exercise, pets, emotions, damp
Personal history of atopic disorder
Family history of atopic disorder/ asthma
Widespread wheeze on auscultation
Improvement in condition with bronchodilators

120
Q

What clinical features lower the probability of asthma?

A

Symptoms with colds only
Isolated cough in absence of wheeze or dyspnoea
History of moist cough
Dizziness, light headedness, peripheral tingling
Normal examination of chest when symptomatic
Normal PEF or spirometry when symptomatic
No response to asthma therapy
Clinical features of alternative diagnosis

121
Q

What clinical investigations could be performed to assess a cough in children ?

A

Chest X ray: exclude other causes of recurrent cough

Peak flow: Difficult in children younger than 6 years

122
Q

How would you define acute severe asthma in a child over 2?

A

Sats 125 for over 5s, >140 for 2-5 yrs

Resp rate >30 for over 5s, >40 for 2-5 yrs

123
Q

How would you describe life threatening asthma in a child over 2?

A

Sats

124
Q

How do you manage acute asthma in children?

A

ABC
History: Severity and management of previous episodes
Examination: Respiratory examination
Investigation: U+E – salbutamol causes hypokalaemia
CXR if severe, not responding or possibility of pneumothorax

125
Q

Breast alveoli become capable of milk production during:

A

Pregnancy

126
Q

What limits lactation until after parturition?

A

High levels of oestrogen and progesterone

127
Q

What turns on milk secretion?

A

Changing ratio between oestrogen and progesterone which leads to alveolar cells becoming sensitive to Prolactin
Prolactin is made in the anterior pituitary, under tonic inhibition from the hypothalamus
Suckling produces a neuro endocrine response which reduces dopamine levels and allows prolactin to rise and stimulate milk production

128
Q

What causes ejection of the milk?

A

Oxytocin, from posterior pituitary is released by a neuroendocrine response. The myoepithelial cells in the breast then contract to eject the milk

129
Q

What reflex is triggered in some women by hearing their baby cry?

A

Milk let down reflex

130
Q

Why might some women experience uterine cramps during breast feeding?

A

Oxytocin

131
Q

Why is regular breast feeding more likely to be successful than sporadic?

A

Suckling promotes prolactin production

132
Q

How would a dopamine like drug affect lactation?

A

Suppress it

133
Q

Name 4 advantages of breast feeding for women

A

Increased skin to skin contact with baby, Promotion of attachment, Involution of uterus, Lower risk of breast and ovarian cancer, Lower risk of hip fractures, Prevention of rheumatoid arthritis

134
Q

Breastfed babies may have better:

A

Neurological development

135
Q

Difficulties with breast feeding can include?

A

Inverted nipples, nipples too big for baby’s mouth (as in some premature babies who will need to be tube fed), Sore/Cracked nipples, breast engorgement, mastitis