Cell Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the loss of heterozygosity?

A

Heterozygosity = two different copies of one gene. Loss thereof can lead to oncogenic factors getting turned on

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2
Q

What is Knudson’s “two hit” hypothesis?

A

Start with 2 chromosomes, 2 normal copies of the gene

Get a mutation in one copy of gene –> pre-malignant state

Get a mutation in other copy of gene –> carcinoma

Idea has now evolved, and hits can encompass multiple loci

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3
Q

What are some cancers that are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?

A

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP-APC gene), Familial Retinoblastoma (RB gene), familial Breast and Ovarian Cancer (BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes) and Wilms tumor syndromes

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4
Q

What are some cancers that are inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion?

A

Xeroderma pigmentosa (XP genes), Ataxia-telangiectasia (AT gene), Bloom’s syndrome and Fanconi’s congenital aplastic anemia (FA genes)

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5
Q

What is the significance of the Rb gene?

A

It was the first elucidated tumor suppressor gene.

It’s a tumor suppressor –> it inhibits growth

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6
Q

What are some biochemical properties of the Rb protein?

A

When it’s phosphorylated, it’s inactive

Phosphorylated during S or G2 phase of the cell cycle in rapidly dividing cells

Dephosphorylated in G1 or G0 of non-dividing cells –> it’s active –> preventing cell from dividing

It’s targeted by some viral cancers (HPV) that produce a protein that binds to Rb protein and inactivate it

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7
Q

How does the loss of Rb lead to malignancy?

A

Rb must be inactivated (via phosphorylation) for the cell to proceed with division/proliferation. Gets inactivated by CDKs, growth factors

If there is no Rb, the cell doesn’t know when to divide or not –> it divides all the time without stopping –> CANCER

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8
Q

What is the genetic mutation in familial retinoblastoma?

A

They’re heterozygous for Rb mutation –> only need one additional knockout to get cancer.

Likely to get cancer in both eyes or elsewhere (small cell lung cancer)

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9
Q

What is APC?

A

Adenomatous polyposis coli gene

= tumor suppressor

Mutation in this leads to familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

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10
Q

What are the biochemical events that occur in FAP?

A

Cancer is caused by a mutation in the APC gene

APC binds to β-catenin and keeps it in the cytoplasm (inactive)

Normally, Wnt binds to cytoplasmic receptors and causes the release of β-catenin

β-catenin then goes into nucleus & binds to a family of TFs called TCF

TCF cause expression of the c-myc oncogene –> cell growth

If there is a mutation in APC, β-catenin is always in the nucleus –> always causing cell growth

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11
Q

What do BRCA1 & BRCA2 do?

A

They’re both tumor suppressors

They regulate checkpoints, or the response of the cell to DNA damage

If they’re mutated, then cell will proliferate despite DNA damage

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12
Q

What happens in mutations of p53? Why are they so bad?

A

p53 has four subunits. If even one is mutated, that “spoils” the whole thing –> dominant negative mutation

Mutant type is more stable ☹

Thus, 75% of mutations in p53 are missense, not frameshift

Mutated p53 proteins can bind to normal p53 proteins and inactive them!

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13
Q

Why is p53 “the guardian of the genome”?

A

p53 is a transcription factor that regulates the transcription of ~300 genes that prevent cells from replicating with damaged or foreign DNA

p53 is also important in regulating apoptosis when DNA is damaged

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14
Q

How does HPV act as an oncogenic virus in cells?

A

Acts by creating proteins that inactivate both Rb (through E7) and p53 (through E8), which are both tumor suppressor proteins –> double kill shot!

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15
Q

How do viral oncogenes work?

A

c-onc = normal copy of the oncogene. When it gets picked up by the virus –> v-onc

Viruses will incorporated their ds-DNA into our genomes, and then in a mistranscription event, a nearby oncogene will also be transcribed –> both the viral mRNA and oncogenic mRNA are incorporated into the viral capsid. Thus, the virion becomes cancerous. This is how ALV –> RSV (Rouse’s Sarcoma Virus)

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16
Q

What are some examples of viral oncogenes?

A

v-src = creates membrane-bound protein kinase

v-erb-B = protein that is similar to the receptor for epithelial growth factor

v-abl = creates a kinase that phosphorylates tyrosine residues. Similar to c-abl that’s translocated to BCR-ABL in CML

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17
Q

What the relevance of n-myc in cancer?

A

It’s amplified in neuroblastoma

It’s a member of the c-myc family of oncogenes (promoters of cell growth)

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18
Q

What is the relevance of the HER2/neu/Erb2 gene in cancer?

A

It’s amplified in ~20% of breast cancers

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19
Q

What genes can be mutated in human bladder cancer cells?

A

c-ras = point mutations causes a protein product that is always on

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20
Q

What is Herceptin?

A

A monoclonal antibody specific for the protein product of the HER/neu/Erb2 oncogenes in breast cancer cells

They can reverse the transformed phenotype of the cell

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21
Q

What does Gleevac do specifically?

A

It acts as an ATP mimic and prevents the kinase from phosphorylating

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22
Q

What are the parts of a phospholipid?

A

Polar head group

Phosphate connecting polar head group and glycerol backbone

Glycerol 3-phosphate backbone

Fatty acyl chains (16C or 18C), saturated or unsaturated

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23
Q

What are the parts of a sphingolipid?

A

Sphingosine backbone + amide group + fatty acid = ceramide

Phosphate linker

Polar head group

*If you add a sugar instead of a polar head group = glucosylceramide

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24
Q

What is the structure of cholesterol?

A

Hydrophilic head: -OH on top

Rigid steroid rings; fatty acid tail

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25
Q

What is the function of cholesterol?

A

Serve to increase membrane stiffness and thickness

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26
Q

Describe the asymmetry of membrane bilayers

A

Exoplasmic face = PC (phosphatidylcholine), sphingomyelin, & glycolipids

Cytoplasmic face = PE (phosphatidylethanolamine), PS (–serine), & PI (–inositol)

Cholesterol is distributed evenly

Phospholipids do not switch sides! If they do, it’s a sign of cell death

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27
Q

Explain cholesterol synthesis

A

Cholesterol is synthesized from glycerol (3C)

First enzyme: HMGCoA reductase. (Statins block this!)

Cholesterol is both brought in & synthesized in the cell. Statin regulatory element binding protein (SREBP) has a TF that can upregulate transcription of BOTH the LDL receptor (intake) and 30 synthesis proteins (synthesis)

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28
Q

How does the sensor to detect cellular levels of cholesterol work?

A

In the ER membrane (5% cholesterol)

TF is a bHLH attached to the transmembrane SREBP

SREBP is held in ER until cholesterol is low and then it’s moved to Golgi, where TF is cleaved & can move into the nucleus

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29
Q

What are the proteins that bind SREBP and regulate cholesterol levels?

A

SCAP (SREBP cleavage activation protein) and Insig

Insig binds SCAP only when cholesterol is high, & binding blocks a signaling part of SCAP. This signaling domain is recognized by a COPII coat protein, which delivers the protein complex to the Golgi for cleavage

  1. When cholesterol levels are low SCAP-SREBP complex dissociates from Insig.
  2. SCAP escorts SREBP to the Golgi by vesicular transport.
  3. The bHLH transcription factor is released from SREBP by RIP
  4. S1P is luminal, S2P is within the membrane – cleavage by both is required for activation
  5. Nuclear bHLH SREBP moves to the nucleus, binds to DNA promoters, and activates many genes to produce more LDLR to bring cholesterol into the cell and to increase all the enzymes involved in cellular synthesis of cholesterol.
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30
Q

What is unusual about how the SREBP protein is cleaved in times of low cholesterol?

A

It’s cleaved in the transmembrane domain (not aqueous environment) via RIP, regulated intramembrane proteolysis.

Also seen in Alzheimer’s

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31
Q

What is Von Hippel-Lindau?

A

An autosomal dominant condition that’s caused by a mutation in the VHL tumor suppressor gene. Highly penetrant!

Leads to cystic & highly vascularized tumors in spinal cord, eyes, ears, kidneys, pancreas, & genitourinary tract

40% of people will eventually develop clear cell renal cell carcinoma

VHL is most common cause of inherited ccRCC

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32
Q

What are the different types of VHL?

A

Type 1: total/partial VHL loss, improper folding = hemangioblastoma (benign, highly vascular tumor in brain & spine; originates from vascular system), RCC, low risk of pheochromocytoma (tumor of adrenal gland)

Type 2: missense mutation = hemangioblastoma, low/high risk of RCC, high risk of pheochromocytoma

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33
Q

How does the VHL protein work?

A

Under normoxic conditions, HIF is hydroxylated and ubiquitinated by VHL –> gets degraded

Under hypoxic conditions, HIF is not hydroxylated, cannot get marked by VHL –> goes into nucleus as a TF

HIF upregulates growth factors (VEGF, PDGF, TGF) –> angiogenesis –> survival of cancer cells!
^One reason why these tumors are so highly vascularized)

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34
Q

What are the treatment options for RCC?

A

Immunotherapy: high doses of IL2 (RCC suppresses immune function) - high toxicity, must be administered in ICU

VEGF inhibitors: suppress VEGF or downstream pathway, try to prevent angiogenesis

mTOR inhibitors: mTOR is upregulated in ~20% of RCC. Important AE: pneumonitis (14%)

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35
Q

What do SNAREs do?

A

SNARE = soluble SNF attachment protein receptor

They regulate membrane fusion

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36
Q

What are the three main classes of SNAREs and where are they located?

A

VAMP = vesicle associated membrane protein. Located on vesicle

SNAPs = synaptosome associated protein. Bound to cytosolic side of target membrane

Syntaxin = also in target membrane

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37
Q

How does intracellular membrane fusion occur?

A

Alpha helix coiled-coiled structures form between VAMPs, SNAPs, and syntaxin –> very stable structure! Overcome the resistance forces between membranes and bring them together

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38
Q

How are the alpha helix coiled-coil structures created during membrane fusion broken up and recycled?

A

NSF & αSNAP use ATP hydrolysis to disassemble the SNARE complex

Sec1 protein binds to & refolds syntaxin to active conformation

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39
Q

How is specificity of fusion achieved?

A

Cells have over 18 SNAREs, 9 SNAPs, etc. –> this allows specificity of fusion. Only the place where this specific complex will form will allow fusion.

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40
Q

Explain viral membrane fusion

A

2 alpha helices

One is transmembrane domain, the other is hydrophobic domain initially buried in the peptide

Once it binds to host membrane, hydrophobic portions are exposed, form a coiled-coil, and bring the two membranes together

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41
Q

How is the influenza protein activated?

A

By a low pH

Influenza is phagocytized and taken to lysosome, where the low pH activates the fusogenic protein –> virus invades the cell

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42
Q

How is the HIV virus activated?

A

By receptor binding activation

Fusogenic protein is a dimer of 2 proteins, gp120 and gp41. gp120 sits on top of gp41 and hides it. gp120 binds to receptors on T-cells –> conformational change –> exposure of gp41 –> membrane fusion

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43
Q

What are typical values for the volumes of plasma, extracellular fluid, and intracellular fluid?

A

Plasma = 3 L
ECF = 13 L
“Extra space” = 5 L (eyes, lumen of gut, sweat glands, kidneys, etc.)
ICF = 27 L

Total adult volume: 45 L of fluids

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44
Q

What is the ionic composition of ICF and ECF?

A

Na inside = 14 mM – Na outside = 140 mM
K inside = 145 mM – K outside = 5 mM
Cl inside = 5 mM – Cl outside = 145 mM
Ca inside = 0.0001 mM – Ca outside = 1 mM
H inside = 0.0001 mM – H outside = 0.00004 mM = 40 nm

H2O = 55,000 mM
HCO3- = 25 mM
Max urine mosM = 1200
Plasma mosM = 300 mM

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45
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms that cells have evolved to prevent from swelling & bursting?

A
  1. Membrane impermeable to water
  2. Cell wall
  3. Balance cell contents osmotically with outside environment
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46
Q

What are reflection coefficients?

A

Reflection coefficient of 1 = non-permeable

Reflection coefficient of 0 = same permeability as water

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47
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

Concentration of solute particles - a 1 M solution of CaCl2 gives a 3 osM solution (3 ion/mole)

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48
Q

What is tonicity?

A

Measure of solution in a cell –> hypotonic means lacking in solution, cell will swell. Hypertonic means too much solution, cell will shrink.

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49
Q

What are equivalents?

A

Calculated by converting to mosM & multiplying mosM by valence of the ion

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50
Q

What is the Donnan Rule?

A

[K]i[Cl]i = [K]o[Cl]o

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51
Q

What is the Driving Force on an ion?

A

Vm - E of the ion

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52
Q

Define pKa

A

pKa = -log [H+ ][A-] / [HA]

The lower the pKa, the stronger the acid. Higher = weaker acid.

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53
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch Equation?

A

pH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA]

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54
Q

What is the H-H equation for the bicarbonate buffer system in ECF?

A

pH = 6.1 + log [HCO3-]/ .03Pco2

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55
Q

What are normal blood pH, [HCO3-], and pCO2?

A

Blood pH = 7.4

[HCO3-] = 24 mM

pCO2 = 40 mmHg

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56
Q

What is log(2)?

A

0.3

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57
Q

What is the pH range of maximal buffering capacity?

A

+/- 1 pH away from where [HA] = [A-]

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58
Q

What does straightforward DKA look like?

A

Tachypnea, nausea, vomiting, diffuse belly pain, dehydrated, ill appearing

Polyuria, polydipsia (drinking a lot), and weight loss = very suspicious for diabetes

Breathing deeply & rapidly, nausea, and vomiting = very suspicious for ketoacidosis

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59
Q

What are the major metabolic disturbances in DKA?

A

Hyperglycemia: plasma glucose >200 mg/dL

Acidosis: blood pH < 7.3
or [HCO3-] < 15 mmol/L
(comes from ketoacids in your blood)

Potassium derangements: normal levels are between 3.5-4.5 mEq/L
Kidneys keep Na, so lose K to urine. Elevated H+ in blood, so H/K transporter puts more K into plasma to get rid of H. Elevated plasma K, overall lower body levels of K.

Dehydration: lots of glucose lost in urine, so lots of water lost through osmosis

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60
Q

What is the mechanism for the release of insulin?

A
  1. Glucose enters beta cell in pancreas
  2. Glucose undergoes glycolysis, produces ATP
  3. ATP inhibits a K channel that allows K to exit cell; K builds up in cell
  4. K buildup causes depolarization of cell, Vm increases
  5. Voltage-gated Ca channels open, allowing Ca to rush inside
  6. Increase in intra-cellular Ca causes insulin-containing vesicles to fuse with plasma membrane and release contents extracullularly
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61
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Insulin makes you STORE ENERGY

Liver
\+ glucose uptake, + glycogen synthesis
\+ lipogenesis
- ketogenesis
- gluconeogenesis

Muscle
+ glucose uptake, + glycogen synthesis
+ protein synthesis

Adipose
+ glucose uptake
+ lipid synthesis
+ triglyceride synthesis

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62
Q

What is Cushing’s Triad?

A

Irregular/agonal breathing, hypertension, and bradycardia

= a sign of increased intracranial pressure

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63
Q

What are some of the warning signs for cerebral edema in DKA?

A

Dilated/fixed pupils, headache, altered mental status, irregular/agonal breathing, bradycardia, hypertension

Treatment is to raise the osmolality of the blood with mannitol, a sugar alcohol

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64
Q

What happens with Vm and Ek when you have hypokalemia?

A

Lower extracellular levels of K –> Ek decreases (you need more of a charge difference when there’s more of a concentration difference)

Low extracellular K –> cell wants to release more K –> membranes react against that and close

Decreased permeability to K –> Vm moves away from Ek

End result: cell depolarizes

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65
Q

What are treatments for hyperkalemia?

A

CBIGK

Calcium, bicarbonate, insulin + glucose, Kayexalate

Calcium relieves cardiac arrhythmias

Bicarbonate alkalinizes the blood –> K is brought into cells

Insulin + glucose = more ATP = more Na/K pump action

Kayexalate = exchanger bound to Na that then selectively binds to K ions in the blood

Extreme: dialysis

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66
Q

What is Li-Fraumeni Syndrome?

A

A hereditary autosomal dominant cancer syndrome associate with a mutation in the p53 gene

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67
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for Li-Fraumeni?

A

A proband with a sarcoma under 45 years of age

AND a first-degree relative with any cancer under 45 years of age

AND a first- or second-degree relative with a cancer before 45 or a sarcoma at any age

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68
Q

Describe the structure of the voltage-gated K channel

A

4 membrane-spanning separate polypeptide domains
Each domain contains 6 alpha helices (S1-S6)

must memorize!!
S4 domains have positive Lys or Arg residues every 3 positions - these “sense” voltage

S5 and S6 helices & the connecting “P loop” assemble to form the ion conducting pathway and “selectivity filter”

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69
Q

Describe the structure of the voltage-gated Na and Ca channels

A

Have four polypeptide domains that are linked together as 4 repeats (I-IV)

Each domain contains 6 alpha helices

S4 has pos Lys & Arg every 3 residues; are the voltage-sensors

S5 & S6 & P loop form conducting pathway and selectivity filter

70
Q

What is the role of dehydration of the ions in ion channels?

A

Ions are bound to water in order to stabilize them - in order to compensate for getting rid of water molecule interactions, which are thermodynamically unstable, amino acids within ion channel stabilize ions

71
Q

How does the K channel activation gate work?

A

There is an activation gate that swings on a hinge

When cell is negatively charged intracellularly, the activation gate is horizontal, and the positive end is close to cytosolic side

When inside of cell is positive (depolarization), positive end of activation gate swings toward extracellular side, channel opens, and K ions flow out

When inside of cell is negative again, gate swings closed = deactivation

72
Q

How do the Na channel activation gate and inactivation gate work?

A

Na activation gate works just like K gate (on a hinge, pos end swings toward EC side when cell depolarizes, Na floods in) = fast step

After activation gate opens, inactivation gate closes (inactivation). Removal of inactivation = slow step

73
Q

What is the inactivation gate on the Na channel formed by?

A

The cytoplasmic III-IV linker between the domains

Located near the cytoplasmic side

74
Q

What does tetrodotoxin (TTX) do?

A

It’s a neurotoxin that binds to Na channels and prevents action potentials –> DEATH :(

Structure is a charged molecule that binds extracellularly to the entrance of the Na channel, independent of activation/inactivation gates. Has no effect intracellularly.

75
Q

How does lidocaine work?

A

Lidocaine is a tertiary amine & alternates between protonated (charged) and deprotonated (uncharged)

Protonated lidocaine can only cross the membrane when the activation gate is open and the inactivation gate is not blocking the channel. Thus, it is state-dependent

Protonated lidocaine will act on receptor from intracellular side & close it, producing numbing effects

76
Q

What is the threshold for an action potential?

A

Where the inward flow of Na exactly matches the outward flow of K

Voltage-gated Na channels respond to depolarization (increased positivity)

If influx of Na > efflux of K, channels will open –> further influx of Na –> positive-feedback loop

77
Q

During an action potential, why is there a refractory period?

A

After inactivation gate has closed, it takes some time for it to reopen

There is an “absolute refractory period,” where nothing will depolarize the membrane, and a “relatively refractory period,” where an excessively large depolarization is required to initiate an action potential

78
Q

Describe how changes in membrane resistance, membrane capacitance, and internal resistance affect the passive spread of voltage along an axon

A

Higher internal resistance = slower current internally

Higher membrane resistance = faster current internally, as it will take longer to cross membrane and so will just spread down axon

Higher membrane capacitance = slower spread of current, as time will be spent building up the charge on the membrane

79
Q

Why are axons poor passive conductors over long distances?

A

They have high internal resistance (lots of molecules in the way), low membrane resistance (lots of leakage), and high membrane capacitance (negative charge inside, pos charge outside = capacitance)

80
Q

What is the length constant of an axon?

A

λ=0.5 √(Rm/Ri )

=distance by which voltage has dropped to 37% of its initial value

81
Q

Why is myelination and larger diameter of an axon good?

A

Myelination provides increased membrane resistance, decreased membrane capacitance, and allows for saltatory conduction (faster)

Larger diameter = more charge can flow through at any time

82
Q

What are the consequences of demyelination in axons?

A

More K channels will be “naked” and exposed

Demyelination causes proliferation of Na channels along the axon –> increased Na entry –> slowing of nerve conduction

Clinical symptoms: fatigue, spasticity, sexual dysfunction, bladder dysfunction, walking impairment, pain, mood instability

83
Q

What is the architecture of the nuclear pore complex (NPC)?

A

Made up of 30 distinct proteins called nucleoporins (Nups) repetitively arranged

They have FG repeats (phenylalanine, glycine) –> form patches that are separated by hydrophilic regions

FG repeats can rapidly interact, associate, & dissociate – critical to trafficking process

84
Q

What are karyopherins?

A

They transport cargo into/out of nucleus! =importins/exportins

Interact directly with cargo (beta), or use an adaptor protein (alpha)

Contain a Ran-GTP binding domain = Ran-mediated

85
Q

How does nuclear importation work?

A
  1. In cytoplasm, the cargo protein with a nuclear localization signal (NLS) binds to a nuclear import receptor (NIR) and enters nucleus via NPC
  2. In nucleus, Ran-GTP is required for release of the cargo and binds to the NIR –> sends back to cytoplasm
  3. In cytoplasm, Ran-GTP is hydrolyzed by GTPase activating protein (GAP) and Ran-GDP then dissociates from NIR
  4. NIR is then free to bind to cargo again
86
Q

How does nuclear export work?

A
  1. In nucleus, cargo with a nuclear export signal (NES) binds to a nuclear export receptor (NER), which then binds to Ran-GTP
  2. The whole complex is delivered to the cytoplasm via NPC
  3. In cytoplasm, GAP hydrolyzes Ran-GTP, causing release of NER and cargo
  4. NER returns to nucleus by itself
87
Q

What is the driving force of directionality for nuclear import/export?

A

High Ran-GTP in nucleus

Low Ran-GTP in cytosol

88
Q

What is one change in a nuclear import complex that can cause disease?

A

Normal cell: BRCA1-RAD51 gets imported into nucleus & is involved in DNA repair. Retained in cell because NESs on the two are occluded by being bound to other things.

Diseased cell: exposure of NES continuously. You get tumors because DNA repair mechanisms can’t do their job

89
Q

What are the major functions of the ER?

A
  1. Synthesis of lipids
  2. Control of cholesterol homeostasis
  3. Ca2+ storage (rapid uptake & release)
  4. Synthesis of proteins on membrane-bound ribosomes
  5. Co-translational folding of proteins, post-translational mods, and post-translational insertion into membrane
  6. QC
90
Q

Describe co-translational translocation

A
  1. Protein gets translated by ribosome
  2. Nascent strand has ER signal sequence
  3. Signal recognition particle (SRP), which is composed of proteins & RNA, recognizes this signal sequence on the nascent protein and binds
  4. Binding of SRP causes a pause in translation
  5. SRP-bound ribosome attaches to SRP receptor, which is bound to translocon, in ER membrane
  6. Translocon opens, allowing polypeptide chain through; translation starts again
  7. Signal peptidase cleaves signal sequence from protein
  8. Completed protein folds within the ER lumen
91
Q

What are the major functions of the Golgi?

A
  1. N-linked GLYCOSYLATION happens on asparagine residues near the amino terminal of the protein
  2. Synthesis of complex SPHINGOLIPIDS from the ceramide backbone
  3. Additional POST-TRANSLATIONAL MODIFICATIONS of proteins and lipids. For example, sulfation takes place in the trans Golgi and TGN (trans-Golgi network; misshapen membrane at very end of Golgi), near end of Golgi processing
  4. PROTEOLYTIC processing
  5. SORTING of proteins and lipids for post-Golgi compartments
92
Q

What are 3 vesicle coats and how they function in transport?

A

Clathrin
Located at trans-Golgi network
Involved in endocytosis (plasma membrane, on intracellular side)

COPI (coat protein I)
MOVE BACKWARDS
Backwards from one part of Golgi to another
Backwards from Golgi to ER

COPII
Forms vesicles on ER membrane, which go and fuse with the Golgi

93
Q

How does vesicle coat assembly work?

A

Coat proteins bind to proteins that recognize target membrane protein & cargo protein

When the coat forms a vesicle, has the right cargo

Dynamin wraps itself around neck of vesicle & strangulates it – vesicle gets released

Almost as soon as this release, the coat proteins dissociate – then it can get targeted to another organelle, or for exocytosis

94
Q

What are the key clinical features of cholera infection?

A

Dehydration - sunken eyes, dry/chapped lips, less urination
Severe dehydration - skin turgor!
Profuse, water diarrhea (like “rice porridge”)

95
Q

Describe the actions of cholera toxin’s A and B subunits

A

A subunit = active site

B subunit = transport molecule

B subunit binds to the GM1 glanglioside receptor on the surface of the cell.
A subunit cleaves off and binds to G protein; stimulates adenylate cyclase to produce cAMP.
cAMP activates CFTR.
Massive efflux of Cl ions –> extreme loss of water

96
Q

Describe the role of the Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator (CFTR) in cholera

A

cAMP activates CFTR, which opens and causes a massive efflux of chloride ions. This causes massive amounts of water loss – secretory diarrhea

97
Q

Describe the physiology behind oral rehydration solutions

A

Relies on solute-coupled sodium cotransporters. Despite the fact that you’re losing chloride ions (and thus water), the thinking is that if you bring sodium, glucose, and other solute back across apical membrane, you can draw water back in

98
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

A mode of endocytosis in which small particles are brought into the cell, forming an invagination, and then suspended within small vesicles

Uses clathrin!!!

99
Q

What are caveolae?

A

They are a special type of lipid raft – are small invaginations of the plasma membrane

Utilized by cholera toxin, folic acid, & albumin

100
Q

Describe two types of molecular chaperones

A

Hsp70
Help fold a protein by binding to exposed hydrophobic patches in incompletely folded proteins

Hsp60
Form large barrel-shaped structures to act as an “isolation chamber” into which misfolded proteins are fed to prevent aggregation & help them to refold
have GroES cap!!

101
Q

How does a proteasome work, and how is ubiquitination involved?

A

Proteasome degrades proteins!

Proteins get marked for degradation by attachment of at least 4 ubiquitin proteins

Alpha subunits (on rim of proteasome) guide misfolded protein in

Beta subunits cleave –> end up with polypeptides 7-9 aa in length –> get recycled

102
Q

What is the importance of mannose-6-phosphate?

A

It’s a sorting signal for lysosomal proteins.

Binds to a receptor –> receptor is targeted to vesicles that fuse with the endosome –> in endosome, receptor/M6P-tagged protein dissociate from vesicle –> endosome delivers the protein to the lysosome; receptor is recycled

103
Q

What are characteristic plasma membrane events of apoptosis?

A

In a normal cell, all the phosphatidylserine head groups are on the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane

Early in process of apoptosis, phosphatidylserine flips from inner leaflet to outer leaflet of plasma membrane

Becomes equalized in inner/outer distribution via scramblase

Phagocytes recognize the phosphatidylserines and use them to get the cell inside

Membrane also undergoes “boiling” action = zeiosis

104
Q

What are characteristic cytoplasm events of apoptosis?

A

Early in apoptosis, cell shrinks to about 1/3 of its size

Eventually tears itself apart into apoptotic bodies

105
Q

What are characteristic events in the nucleus of apoptosis?

A

Defining morphological feature of apoptosis = COLLAPSE OF THE NUCLEUS

Chromatin becomes supercondensed and forms beads

106
Q

What are some of the differences between necrosis and apoptosis?

A

Necrosis = occurs during ischemia, mitochondria swell, Na/K pump eventually fails, cell bursts & releases contents –> INFLAMMATION

Apoptosis = no inflammation, cell shrinks, nucleases, macrophages “eat it alive”

107
Q

What are the role of caspases in apoptosis?

A

“Executioner” proteins

Caspase 9 is the main initiator caspase for the intrinsic pathway

Caspase 8 and 9 both activate the effector caspase 3. Caspase 3 causes all the changes – flipping across membranes, etc.

108
Q

What happens during the intrinsic pathway in apoptosis?

A

A cell gets signaled (via radiation, etc.), and it decides to die

Normally, mitochondrial membrane is “guarded” by Bcl family genes that associate with the mitochondrial membrane & are anti-apoptotic

Signal for apoptosis: pro-apoptotic factors move to mitochondria & replace Bcl –> –> –> Caspase 9

109
Q

What happens during the extrinsic pathway in apoptosis?

A

Killer T cells activate apoptosis in other cells

Fas ligand on the Killer cells interacts with a death receptor (Fas) that’s on most cells in your body

Fas arranges for the activation of Caspase 8 – the initiator caspase for the extrinsic pathway

Caspase 8 activates Caspase 3

110
Q

What is morphogenetic death?

A

Apoptosis that occurs during development to determine final shapes of body parts and organs (limbs, brain, thymus, etc.)

111
Q

What does FLIP do in apoptosis?

A

FLIP = a protein related to caspase-8, but proteolytically-inactive

It competes with caspase-8 for binding to FADD, and thus inhibits apoptosis signaling

There are viral FLIPs! (herpes, KSV) ►Clever pathogens will develop (or, in the case of viruses, steal) anti-apoptotic genes to keep the cell alive until they can finish their replicative cycle

CELL = ZOMBIE

112
Q

What is macroautophagy?

A

Signaling leads to formation of double-membrane vesicle that encapsulates a bunch of proteins, organelles, etc. (autophagosome)

This then fuses with the lysosome & those acidic enzymes then degrade everything inside

113
Q

What is autophagy?

A

The basic mechanism by which a cell breaks down and recycles various parts via lysosomes. Autophagy is how that stuff gets delivered to the lysosomes.

114
Q

What is chaperone-mediated autophagy?

A

Proteins have specific sequence (KFERQ) that allows Hsc70 to bind, other host of proteins bind, deliver it to the lysosome

In the lysosome, it’s degraded

115
Q

Describe the process of macroautophagy

A
  1. Induction
    a. Nutrient starvation, growth factor-mediated starvation, exposure to chemo drugs, rapamycin, etc.
  2. Vesicle Nucleation
    a. “Phagophore”
  3. Vesicle Expansion
    a. “Omegasome”
  4. Cargo targeting
  5. Vesicle Closure
    a. =autophagosome
    b. Recruits proteins & organelles
  6. Double membrane fuses with something else to make a vesicle
    a. Can fuse with endosomes from outside = “amphisome”
    b. Can directly fuse with lysosomes = “autolysosome”
  7. Enzymes degrade things that were in autophagosome
  8. Macromolecule precursors are then released back into cytoplasm
  9. Recycling! ☺

Atg genes regulate steps of this process

116
Q

Describe microtubules

A

Building blocks are heterodimers of the protein tubulin (α and β)

Each tubulin (α and β) has a binding site for GTP. The GTP bound to a tubulin is trapped and is not hydrolyzed

The GTP bound to β tubulin can be hydrolyzed and is exchangeable
Once β tubulin hydrolyzes GTP, it forms a little kink –> filament bends backwards, breaks apart

The only reason this doesn’t happen & destroy the MTs is because of the GTP cap on new tubulin heterodimers – keep them from curving back. Cap = stability

–> Regulated by MT capping proteins
Bind to the ends of the MTs and stabilize them. Bind to the GTP cap & part of stabilizing complex

Also regulated by MT severing proteins: cut an MT in the middle – now do not have GTP cap; MTs will fall apart

117
Q

Describe intermediate filaments

A

Rope-like, fibrous structures of about 10nm diameter

PROTEINS: keratins, vimentins, and neurofilament proteins –> far more heterogeneous

Fall into two categories: cytoplasmic IFs and nuclear lamins

Nuclear lamins = filamentous proteins that form a stabilizing meshwork lining the inner membrane of the nuclear envelope to provide anchorage for chromosomes and nuclear pores.

All IF proteins = long molecules w/ α-helical domain –> forms coiled-coil with another monomer –> dimers associate anti-parallel –> form tetramers –> IF polymerization

They are not polarized

118
Q

What is the MTOC?

A

Microtubule-organizing center

Two main functions: organization of flagella/cilia and growth of mitotic spindle apparatus

Structure: a pair of centrioles making up a centrosome. On the centrosome are of rings of γ-tubulin which initiate MT growth –> MTs anchored at - end, grow at + end

119
Q

What do spastin and katanin do?

A

They’re microtubule-severing proteins –> increase microtubule instability by cutting & exposing GDP-rich parts of microtubules

120
Q

What do Colchicine, Vinblastin, and Vincristine do?

A

They inhibit MT polymerization

Block mitosis & thus are of interest in cancer treatments

121
Q

What are some examples of molecular motors for microtubules?

A

Kinesins – go to (+) end
Dyneins – go to (-) end

Kinesins:

  • they’re a coiled-coil; there are many different kinds
  • they bind to adaptor molecules (>100 different kinds), which provide specificity for binding of cargo vesicle
  • head binds to MT, tail binds to adaptor protein/cargo

Important for axonal transport

122
Q

Describe the kinesin cycle

A

Kinesin Cycle

  • When ADP is bound –> kinesin is released
  • When ATP is bound –> kinesin is bound to MT
  • Hydrolysis of ATP –> ADP will change the conformation of the head domain and make a little kink –> moving forward
123
Q

How is actin formed?

A

G-actin + ATP –> two-stranded, helical filaments (F-actin)

A trimer of actin monomers is necessary to initiate nucleation (formation)

Actin-ATP units polymerize at positive end
Actin-ADP units de-polymerize at negative end (treadmilling)

124
Q

What are the two major proteins involved in actin formation?

A

Arp2/3 and Formin

Arp2/3 (actin-related protein)

  • looks like an actin dimer
  • attaches to an actin monomer –> now you have the actin trimer necessary for nucleation & creation of an actin strand
  • creates new filaments AT ANGLES –> branched network
  • key for cell motility

Formin (FH2)

  • creates long actin cable filaments that are PARALLEL
  • key for cell division
125
Q

Which drugs interact with actin formation?

A

Phalloidin

Extracted from the highly toxic fungus Amanita phalloides (“death cap” mushroom), which binds to and stabilizes F-actin (causing a net increase in actin polymerization)

126
Q

What happens in microvilli inclusion disease?

A

Broadly: microvilli are lost

Myosin V helps deliver cargo vesicles along actin –> this is mutated in microvilli inclusion disease

Myosin V deliver vesicles that have a regulator that induces formation of a terminal web

Mutant = no terminal web, no anchor for microvilli actin fibers to bind to

127
Q

What is the molecule motor used for actin filaments, and how does it work?

A

Myosin –> binds to actin

Myosin forms coiled-coil structures with tails & heads – binds together with other myosin bundles to form large bipolar assemblies

ATP-driven myosin heads “walk” along actin filaments = sliding mechanism of muscle contraction

10% of the time will be attached to myosin (ATP bound)
90% of the time will not

Muscle contraction works because of multiple heads, so overall binding - you don’t want too much binding b/c muscles will be stiff

128
Q

How does a cell move?

A

At growing end, Arp 2/3 actin will polymerize at head & grow. Protrusion of fillopodia and lamellipodia is driven by polymerization of actin meshworks at the leading edge.

At retracting end, Formin filaments will cause retraction together with myosin II

RhoGTPases respond to signals (chemotaxis, etc.)

129
Q

Describe the actomyosin ring in cell division

A

Actin plays a key role during cytokinesis

The formation & contraction of the actomyosin ring drives the formation of the cleavage furrow and separation of the daughter cells

–> also determine symmetry of cell separation

Regulated by RhoGTPase

When it’s bound to GTP, it’s active. When it’s activated, it’ll activate Formin –> forms contractile ring

Activation is dependent on astral MTs – some of these have Rho attached to tips. As they go to midzone region & overlap with MTs from other side, they activate RhoA, etc.

130
Q

What are some examples of 2nd messengers?

A
  • Ca2+ enters through ion channels
  • cAMP is generated by adenylate cyclase
  • IP3 (inositol triphosphate) and DAG (diacylglycerol) are generated by PLC (phospholipase C)
  • NO (nitric oxide) generated by NOS (nitric oxide synthase)
131
Q

What does phosphodiesterase (PDE) do?

A

It breaks down cAMP and cGMP into AMP and GMP

132
Q

How does Viagra work?

A

Acts on catalytic site of PDE –> breaks down cGMP to GMP –> reduces intracellular Ca levels –> smooth muscle relaxation –> vasodilation –> penile erection

133
Q

How do receptor tyrosine kinases get activated?

A

Ligand binding to receptor on extracellular side –> dimerization of receptors –> activates catalytic activity of the kinase –> autophosphorylation of tyrosine on cytoplasmic side

134
Q

Explain the molecular mechanism of stimulation of Ras GTPase by receptor tyrosine kinases

A

Phosphorylation of tyrosines on receptor –> binding by Grb2 –> binds Sos (a Ras GEF = GTP exchange factor)

This brings Sos to the plasma membrane, where it interacts with Ras –> activation by removing GDP, attaching GTP (GEF action)

more detail
Grb2 binds to receptor TK via SH2 domain, which recognizes 3 aa on the receptor

Sos binds to Grb2 via the SH3 domain, which binds to proline domains

135
Q

What are two receptor tyrosine kinase agents that act as anti-cancer drugs?

A

Antibodies

  • block ligand binding to the receptor (extracellularly)
  • prevents receptor DIMERIZATION, activation of growth factors

TKI (Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors)

  • block TKR kinase activity – bind in substrate-binding (usually ATP) site of the kinase
  • inhibit CATALYTIC activity
136
Q

What is the membrane topology of a G protein-coupled receptor?

A
  • 7 helical transmembrane domains
  • N-terminus outside; C-terminus inside
  • 1st and 7th domain fold back to each other to form a barrel structure
  • ligand binding occurs in pocket on extracellular side

Ligand binds –> conformational changes –> down to intracellular side –> changes the way it interacts with G protein

137
Q

How do G protein-coupled receptors activate G proteins?

A

Resting state: trimeric G protein bound to GDP

Activate = NUCLEOTIDE EXCHANGE
Upon ligand (agonist) binding, receptor catalyzes GDP dissociation (=rate-limiting step)

GTP then binds very quickly to nucleotide-free G α-subunit –> additional conformational changes –> active state of G-protein complex

Active state = G-α-subunit-GTP dissociates from receptor & βγ-subunit –> effectors

138
Q

How do G protein-coupled receptors turn off G proteins?

A

= NUCLEOTIDE HYDROLYSIS

α-subunit is a GTPase –> hydrolyzes bound GTP to GDP –> subunits reassociate & recouple to receptor

139
Q

β1-adrenergic receptor signaling – in the heart

A

G-protein coupled receptor in the heart

  • via Gs
  • stimulates AC (adenylyl cyclase)
  • cAMP production from ATP (by AC)
  • cAMP activates PKA (protein kinase A)
  • PKA phosphorylates proteins –> Ca2+ influx increases –> increased heart rate and contraction
  • agonists: norepinephrine, epinephrine, isoproterenol
  • antagonists: propranolol, metropolol
    o These drugs are β-blockers – they block activation of β-receptor and reduce blood pressure (and heart rate)
140
Q

α1-adrenergic receptor signaling

A

G-coupled protein receptor in the peripheral vasculature

  • via Gq
  • stimulates PLC activation
  • PLC cleaves PIP2
  • PIP2 releases IP3 and DAG
  • IP3 & DAG cause influx of Ca2+
  • Ca2+ triggers smooth muscle contraction –> peripheral vasoconstriction decreases blood flow to skin –> increases blood pressure & shifts blood flow to heart, lungs, and skeletal muscle
  • Agonists: norepinephrine, epinephrine, or phenylephrine
  • Antagonists: prazosin
    o These drugs are α-blockers – they also reduce bp
141
Q

What is mTOR?

A

= mammalian target of rapamycin

MTOR is a serine/threonine protein kinase that regulates cell growth, cell proliferation, cell motility, cell survival, protein synthesis, and transcription

Acts on, among other things, CDK2

142
Q

What does prazosin do?

A

It’s an α-blockers –> causes decrease in bp

143
Q

m2-muscarinic cholinergic receptor signaling

A

G-protein coupled receptor in the heart

  • via Gi
  • counters the actions of Gs –> suppresses AC activity –> Ca2+ influx decreases –> decreased heart contraction
  • also targets K channels
    o βγ-subunit acts on K channel called GIRK & activates it (opens it)
    o loss of K hyperpolarizes the cell & makes it less excitable
    o Makes it harder to open the Ca2+ channel –> decreased Ca2+ influx –> decreased heart rate & contraction
144
Q

What do atropine and epinephrine do?

A

Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist –> would increase the heart rate via blocking the parasympathetic system

Epinephrine is a β-agonist –> would also increase the heart rate via the sympathetic system

145
Q

What do caffeine and theophylline act upon?

A

They inhibit PDEs, which convert cAMP into AMP and thereby reduce Ca influx

Thus, they have a stimulatory effect

146
Q

β2-adrenergic receptor signaling – in the LUNGS

A
  • via Gs
  • stimulates AC (adenylyl cyclase)
  • cAMP production from ATP (by AC)
  • cAMP activates PKA (protein kinase A)
  • PKA inhibits smooth muscle contraction (different!!!)
  • Smooth muscle relaxation –> bronchodilation (and dilation of vasculature of blood to lungs/heart/muscle)
  • Albuterol is a β2-selective agonist
    o Causes bronchodilation
147
Q

m3-muscarinic cholinergic receptor signaling – in the LUNGS

A
  • via Gq
  • triggers PLC –> PIP2 –> IP3 + DAG –> Ca2+ influx –> stimulates smooth muscle contraction –> bronchoconstriction
  • Ipratropium is a muscarinic antagonist
    o Prevents bronchoconstriction; relieves acute asthma symptoms
148
Q

What does GRK do?

A

Involved in receptor desensitization:

If you turn on a G-protein coupled receptor receptor for a long time, it favors activation of a kinase called GRK –> phosphorylates the receptor –> β-arrestin binds to phosphorylated receptor –> inhibits re-binding of G-proteins; now they’re uncoupled :(

β-arrestin also favors endocytosis of these receptors – they get removed from the plasma membrane

149
Q

How does cAMP activate PKA?

A

PKA is bound to regulatory subunits. Binding of cAMP causes release from these regulatory subunits; phosphorylation and activation of catalytic subunits of PKA

150
Q

How does CDK2 get activated?

A

CDK2 kinase activity only turns on if one phosphate has been added, one phosphate has been removed, and cyclin is present to activate it

151
Q

How do kinases work?

A

A kinase has a small & large lobe. ATP binds in the cleft between the lobes (but basically to the small lobe). Protein substrate usually binds to large lobe.

A glycine-rich loop in small lobe clamps down on ATP; positions γ-phosphate correctly.

“Closed conformation” of the glycine loop in the small lobe forces the γ-phosphate into the right position for phosphorylation (=fast reaction).

“Open conformation” of the glycine loop allows exchange of ADP molecule –> new ATP (=slow reaction). Kinase activity requires alternating open and closed conformations.

Some (but not all) kinases have activation loop on large lobe that needs to be phosphorylated in order to work.

152
Q

What does parvalbumin do?

A

It’s a cytoplasmic buffer of Ca2+ - restricts the spatial and temporal spread of the ions

153
Q

What do buffers of Ca2+ do?

A

Restrict the spread of ions

Buffers also serve as a temporary storage site for Ca2+ – allow muscle contraction & relaxation to take place rapidly, despite the fact that Ca2+ extrusion transport processes are operating slowly

154
Q

What does calsequestrin do?

A

In the ER/SR lumen, high-capacity low affinity buffers (like calsequestrin) allow large quantities of Ca2+ to be stored without the generation of a large gradient – the molecules stick a lot of Ca2+ onto themselves, which is vital in order to prevent a large gradient, but release it rapidly (important for IP3 and ryanodine receptors – there needs to be a higher gradient of Ca2+ in the ER/SR)

155
Q

How does Ca2+ enter the cell?

A
  • ion channels
  • voltage- and ligand-gated Ca2+ channels
  • store-operate Ca2+ channels
156
Q

How does Ca2+ move from ER/SR into the cytoplasm?

A
  • IP3 receptors

- ryanodine receptors

157
Q

How does Ca2+ get extruded from the cytoplasm into the extracellular space?

A
  • PMCA pumps use ATP to pump Ca2+ extracellularly

- Na+/Ca2+ exchanges move 3 Na+ ions in and 1 Ca2+ ion out – derive energy from Na+ gradient

158
Q

How does Ca2+ get extruded from the cytoplasm into the lumen of the ER/SR?

A

SERCA pumps use ATP to move Ca2+ into lumen of ER/SR

159
Q

What are C2 domains?

A

The C2 domain of PKC is activated by Ca2+ –> PKC sticks to membrane –> phosphorylates various substrates

C2 domains are also important in synaptotagmin – has 2, C2A and C2B. Synaptotagmin is stuck into synaptic vesicle (ball full of neurotransmitter). C2A and C2B are sticking out of the vesicle. When Ca2+ binds to them, the vesicle fuses to the presynaptic membrane

160
Q

What are EF hands?

A

Calmodulin has 4 “EF hand” Ca2+-binding domains, 2 at either end. When Ca2+ binds, calmodulin can go bind to other things (ion channels, protein kinases/phosphatases, cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterases)

EF hand motif is found on many other Ca2+ effectors, including parvalbumin (cellular Ca2+ buffer), calpain (Ca2+-activated protease), and troponin

161
Q

What are the four major components of the ECM?

A
  1. Glycosylaminoglycans (GAGs), which usually form proteoglycans
  2. Fibrous proteins, like collagen and elastin
  3. Multidomain adaptor proteins, like fibronectin and laminin
  4. Water and many solutes
162
Q

What are GAGs?

A

Polysaccharide chains with disaccharide repeats

1 sugar = amino sugar
1 sugar = uronic acid

High negative charge –> becomes very hydrated –> forms gels

163
Q

What are proteoglycans?

A

Covalently linked complexes of GAGs and proteins

Core protein has serine, which attaches a special tetrasaccharide, which then allows polymerization of disaccharide repeats

Polymerized sugars may be modified further (sulfation)

164
Q

What are two types of fibrous proteins?

A

Collagens: ~20 different kinds. Collagen I is most abundant. Collagen IV is in basal lamina.

Elastin: network of elastic fibers in the ECM that provide elasticity

165
Q

What are some multidomain adaptor proteins?

A

They help to organize the matrix and attach cells to it

Fibronectin:

  • large, dimeric glycoprotein
  • linked by disulfide bonds
  • “type III fibronectin repeat” binds to integrins

Laminin:

  • three subunits (α,β,γ)
  • form an asymmetric, disulfide-linked cross
  • found in the basal lamina only
166
Q

What do matrix metalloproteases do?

A

Remodel the ECM by eating up the matrix

= allow cell migration, facilitate cell signaling

Important in development in tissues and used by pathogens to invade tissues.
Sometimes they unmask cryptic cell binding sites to promote cell binding or migration.

Promote cell detachment. Activate growth factors. Release ECM bound extracellular signals. Highly regulated and can be specific.

167
Q

What are some cellular adhesion molecules?

A

Cadherins:

  • homodimer transmembrane protein
  • requires calcium
  • homophilic binding to other cells via other cadherins

Ig-CAMs:

  • also homophilic binding mechanism
  • do NOT form dimers or require Ca

Integrins:

  • heterodimers with α and β subunits
  • heterophilic binding = large variety
  • ligands include ECM proteins laminin, fibronectin, collagen
168
Q

What are the sources of androgen in the body relevant to prostate cancer?

A
  1. Testes – 90-95% of systemic testosterone
  2. Adrenal glands – 5-10% of systemic testosterone
  3. Intracrine androgen production in the prostate cancer cells themselves
169
Q

What do enzalutamide and abiraterone do in terms of treating resistance in prostate cancer?

A

Abiraterone is a specific blocker of CYP 17 –> eliminates testosterone completely

Enzalutamide binds to AR –> inhibits nuclear translocation

170
Q

How are voltage-gated Na and K channels activated?

A

K only has activation gate

Na has activation & inactivation gate