Cell Cycle Flashcards

1
Q

4 stages of the cell cycle

A

G1: growth prior to DNA synthesis
S: DNA replication (leaves each chromosome with identical sister chromatids linked at centromere)
G2: second growth period preceding cell division
M: mitosis

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2
Q

G0

A

Cells that have differentiated and are no longer dividing have exited the cell cycle and are said to be at this stage (way to remember: G0 = G “not” growing!)

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3
Q

Stages of interphase

A

G1, S, and G2 (time between each mitosis)

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4
Q

Cell cycle checkpoints

A

G1/S: start/restriction point where cell determines if conditions are favorable
G2/M: all DNA has been replicated and still good to divide
Metaphase/anaphase transition point: all chromosomes attached to mitotic spindle

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5
Q

DNA damage checkpoint

A

Cells with damaged DNA arrest until damage can be repaired or enters apoptosis if too severe

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6
Q

Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK)

A

Serine/threonine kinases that function in association with cyclins (regulatory subunits); different CDK/cyclin complexes are active at different stages of cell cycle due to presence or absence

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7
Q

CDK/cyclin complexes that are most important at M-phase

A

Cyclin A/CDK1 and cyclin B/CDK1

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8
Q

CDK/cyclin complexes that are most important at mid-G1 phase

A

Cyclin D/CDK4 and cyclin D/CDK6

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9
Q

CDK/cyclin complexes that are most important at late G1 phase

A

Cyclin E/CDK2

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10
Q

CDK/cyclin complexes that are most important at S phase

A

Cyclin A/CDK2

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11
Q

How are cyclins degraded?

A

By ubiquitin-dependent proteolysis after function has been discharged

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12
Q

Mitogenic signals

A

Tissue-specific growth factors that are typically required to stimulate cell growth and division

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13
Q

Contact inhibition

A

Inhibitory effect of interactions between cell and extracellular matrix of neighboring cells that promotes cell division; loss of inhibition leads to cancer

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14
Q

How do growth factors stimulate cell division?

A

Growth factors are added to cells to stimulate transcription of early-response genes, such as transcription factor c-Fos (also c-Jun and c-Myc); altogether these factors stimulate transcription of delayed-response genes

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15
Q

Role of tyrosine kinase receptor in cell division stimulation

A

Receptor for growth factors; ligand binds to trigger dimerization and autophosphorylation of the tyrosine residues in the receptor that form docking sites where signaling molecules can bind

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16
Q

Growth factor signaling/cell division process

A
  1. GRB2 binds to phosphotyrosine residues in activated receptor
  2. GRB2 also binds Sos protein to bring it to cell membrane
  3. Sos meets Ras (small G-protein) and activates Ras
  4. Ras activates Raf
  5. Raf activates MAP kinase kinase
  6. MAP kinase kinase activates MAP kinase which enters nucleus and regulates transcription
  7. Early-response genes are transcribed (including c-Fos, c-Jun and c-Myc)
  8. c-Fos + other transcription factors stimulate transcription of delayed-response genes which encode additional transcription factors and certain cyclins
17
Q

Early-response genes

A

Transcription factors c-Fos, c-Jun, and c-Myc

18
Q

Delayed-response genes

A

Additional transcription factors, mid-G1 cyclins and CDKs (D-type cyclins, CDK4, and CDK6) and late-G1 cyclins (cyclin E/CDK2)

19
Q

Main point of growth factor signaling

A

Activation of MAP kinase stimulates c-Fos transcription, leading to progression through restriction point

20
Q

Retinoblastoma protein (Rb)

A

Key target for cyclin D-CDK4/6 complex; binds to histone deacetylase and methylase to promote chromosome condensation and transcription inhibition; also binds protein products of delayed-response genes (E2F proteins) causing:

  • -Repression of transcription of genes for DNA replication
  • -Repression of transcription of late G1 cyclin (cyclin E), S-phase cyclin (cyclin A), S-phase CDK (CDK2), and E2F’s own genes
21
Q

Why is phosphorylation of Rb so important?

A
  1. Phosphorylation by cyclin D-CDK4/6 causes dissociation of Rb from E2F proteins to activate transcription of genes to enter into S phase of cell cycle
  2. Cyclin E-CDK2 is produced as result of E2F action that phosphorylates Rb (so when cyclin E-CDK2 is present, Rb phosphorylation becomes independent of cyclin D-CDK4/6 and does not need growth factors to progress through cell cycle)
22
Q

What kinases phosphorylate Rb?

A

Cyclin D-CDK4/6 and cyclin E-CDK2

23
Q

Describe how protein phosphorylation and p27KIP1 act to inhibit cyclin A-CDK2 and prevent entry into S phase.

A

Cyclin A-CDK2 is initially found in inhibited state due to complex it forms wih p27KIP1

24
Q

How is inhibition of cyclin A-CDK2 relieved?

A
  1. Phosphorylation of p27KIP1 late in G1 by cyclin E-CDK2 complex triggers polyubiquitination and proteolysis of inhibitor
  2. Additional regulation is done by a specific phosphatase that removes inhibitory phosphate from CDK2
  3. DNA replication can begin after inhibitors are degraded
25
Q

What is the most important driver for events leading to mitosis?

A

CDK1 with cyclins A and B

26
Q

How is entry into mitosis coupled to completion of DNA replication?

A

Dephosphorylation of inhibitory phosphorylation of CDK1 subunits results in activation of cyclin/CDK1 complexes that phosphorylate many protein substrates such as histone H1, chromatin-associated proteins, nuclear lamins, microtubule-associated proteins, and proteins of inner nuclear membrane that drive mitosis (especially chromosome condensation, formation of mitotic spindle, and disassembly of nuclear membrane)

27
Q

Anaphase promoting complex

A

Participates in chain of events leading to degradation of cohesin complexes holding sister chromatids together at centromere to move them towards opposite ends of cell; polyubiquitinates cyclin A and B so they are destroyed by proteasome

28
Q

Would a normal cell divide if chromosomes were not correctly attached to mitotic spindle?

A

No, because certain protein factors recognize kinetochores that are not associated with spindle and initiate inhibition of anaphase promoting complex

29
Q

How is G2/M checkpoint regulated?

A

ATM detects replication forks and is active as long as replication forks are present; ATM activates “checkpoint” kinase that prevents dephosphorylation and activation of cyclin/CDK1 complexes needed to enter mitosis

30
Q

How is ATM activated?

A

In response to double-stranded DNA breaks (such as those caused by irradiation)

31
Q

How is ATR activated?

A

By DNA damage caused by UV light and certain drugs

32
Q

2 ways ATM/ATR kinases can prevent cell cycle in face of DNA damage

A
  1. Activation of both of these kinases inhibits phosphatases that normally dephosphorylate and activate cyclin/CDK2 and cyclin/CDK1 complexes so that they are blocked
  2. Together they phosphorylate p53, which stabilizes it to affect transcription of many different genes, targeting p21CIP1 which inhibits CDKs (BOTH cyclin/CDK1 and cyclin/CDK2) and stops transition of cell cycle
33
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia

A

Rare inherited disorder caused by mutations in gene encoding ATM so that response to double-stranded breaks of DNA is impaired; causes progressive difficulty in coordination, small and widened blood vessels, increased susceptibility to infection (especially in lungs), and increased risk of leukemia and lymphoma

34
Q

Apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death that is important for:

  • -Removing cells that are damaged or infected
  • -Normal cell turnover, embryonic development, and immune system function
  • -The way cytotoxic chemicals exert their effects
35
Q

Steps of apoptosis

A
  1. Chromosome condensation occurs
  2. Cell shrinks in size due to cytoplasmic condensation
  3. Nuclear envelope breaks down and nucleus fragments
  4. Cell fragmentation occurs, forming apoptotic bodies that are phagocytosed by surrounding cells
36
Q

Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis

A

Can be initiated by internal signals such as p53

37
Q

Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis

A

Receptors known as death receptors bind external signals to trigger apoptotic process (ex. death signals such as tumor necrosis factor, TNF, and Fas ligand)

38
Q

What enzymatic activity do caspases possess?

A

Initiator caspases are activated by apoptotic signal and activate executioner caspases that hydrolyze cellular proteins (ex. components of nuclear lamina and cytoskeleton) and trigger DNA fragmentation

39
Q

Describe how activation of p53 leads to apoptosis.

A
  1. Activation of p53 leads to induction of proapoptotic proteins PUMA, BID, and BAX (Bcl-2 family)
  2. PUMA and BID stimulate activity of BAX, which allows release of cytochrome c from mitochondria into cytoplasm
  3. When cytochrome c enters cytoplasm, binds Apaf-1, triggering its oligomerization and leading to formation of apoptosome
  4. Apoptosome recruits and activates initiator caspase-9 activating executioner caspase-3 to cause apoptosis