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CMB: FINALS WEEK? OR MY FINAL WEEK? ver. 2 > CELL CYCLE > Flashcards

CELL CYCLE Flashcards

1
Q

cycle of duplication and division

A

cell cycle

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2
Q

main goal of cell division

A

the passing on of its genetic information to the next generation of cells

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3
Q

basic concept of cell cycle

A

duplicate DNA and then segregate into two copies

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4
Q

two main phases of cell cycle

A

S phase (DNA synthesis) and M phase(mitosis and cytokinesis)

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5
Q

provide time for the cell to monitor the internal and external environment to ensure that conditions are suitable and preparations are complete

A

gap phases

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6
Q

two stages of gap phase

A

G1 phase and G2 phase

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7
Q

specialized resting state when cell cycle needs to reset

A

G0 phase

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8
Q

commitment point near the end of G1

A

restriction point

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9
Q

stain that helps identify the S phase of the cell cycle

A

bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU)

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10
Q

cell stain that measures the DNA content

A

flow cytometer

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11
Q

cell cycle is _______ (irreversible)

A

binary

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12
Q

checks every phase of the cell cycle, ensuring there is no error

A

biochemical switches

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13
Q

three major regulatory transitions

A
  1. Start (restriction point)
  2. G2/M transition
  3. metaphase-to-anaphase
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14
Q

stimulates sister-chromatid separation; completion of mitosis and cytokinesis

A

metaphase-to-anaphase

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15
Q

triggers the early mitotic events that lead to chromosome alignment on the mitotic spindle in metaphase

A

G2/M transition

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16
Q

cell commits to cell-cycle entry and chromosome duplication

A

metaphase-to-anaphase

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17
Q

cyclical changes in the phosphorylation of intracellular proteins that initiate or regulate the major events of the cell cycle

A

cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks)

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18
Q

controls cyclin-dependent kinases

A

cyclins

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19
Q

four classes of cyclins

A
  1. G1/S-cyclin
  2. S-cyclins
  3. M-cyclins
  4. G1-cyclins
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20
Q

bind Cdks soon after progression through Start and help stimulate chromosome duplication

A

S-cyclins

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21
Q

govern the activities of the G1/S-cyclins

A

G1-cyclins

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22
Q

activate Cdks in late G1

A

G1/S-cyclin

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23
Q

activate Cdks that stimulate entry to mitosis at the G2/M transition

A

M-cyclins

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24
Q

causes the loop to move away from the active site, resulting in partial activation of the Cdk enzyme

A

cyclin binding

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25
Q

a separate kinase, the Cdk-activating kinase (CAK), phosphorylates an amino acid near the entrance of the Cdk active site

A

full activation

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26
Q

active site in the Cdk protein is partly obscured by a protein loop

A

absence of cyclin

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27
Q

phosphorylates → inhibits

A

Wee1 protein kinase

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28
Q

dephosphorylates → activate/increase

A

Cdc25 phosphatase

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29
Q

inactivated cyclin-Cdk complexes

A

Cdk inhibitor proteins (CKIs)

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30
Q

progression through the metaphase- toanaphase transition is triggered by:

A

protein destruction

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31
Q

ubiquitin ligase to stimulate the proteolytic destruction of specific regulatory proteins by proteosomes; polyubiquitylate

A

anaphase-promoting complex or cyclosome (APC/C)

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32
Q

protect the protein linkages that hold sister-chromatid pairs together in early mitosis; destroyed at metaphase

A

securin

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33
Q

destruction inactivates most Cdks in the cell; proteins are
dephosphorylated

A

S- and M-cyclins

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34
Q

ubiquitin ligase; ubiquitylate CKI proteins in late G1; destruction of G1/Scyclins in early S phase

A

SCF

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35
Q

changes in its association with an activating subunit—either Cdc20 in mid-mitosis or Cdh1 from late mitosis through early G1

A

APC/C activity

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36
Q

substrate-binding subunits called F-box proteins; constant during cell cycle

A

SCF activity

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37
Q

in early animal embryos – cell-cycle depends exclusively on ___________; involve the regulation of Cdks and ubiquitin ligases and their target proteins

A

post-transcriptional mechanisms

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38
Q

more complex cell cycles

A

transcriptional control

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39
Q

DNA replication phase

A

S phase

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40
Q

replication machinery moves outward from the origin at two replication forks

A

elongation phase

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41
Q

unwinds the DNA double helix

A

DNA helicase

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42
Q

highly condensed packaged chromatin

A

heterochromatin

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43
Q

more open packaged chromatin

A

euchromatin

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44
Q

sister-chromatid cohesion depends on:

A

cohesin

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45
Q

subunit of cohesion that forms giant ring-like structures

A

SMC proteins

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46
Q

stimulate a large increase in the synthesis of the four histone subunits that form the histone octamers

A

S-Cdks

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47
Q

stages of mitosis (cell duplication)

A

prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

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48
Q

induce the assembly of the mitotic spindle and ensure that each sister chromatid in a pair is attached to the opposite pole of the spindle.

A

M-Cdk

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49
Q

promotes the breakdown of the nuclear envelope and rearrangements of the actin cytoskeleton and the Golgi apparatus; triggered by M-Cdks

A

chromosome condensation

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50
Q

required for the normal assembly of a bipolar mitotic spindle

A

Polo-like kinase (Plk)

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51
Q

Helps control proteins that govern the assembly and stability of the spindle and controls attachment of sister chromatids to the spindle

A

Aurora kinases

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52
Q

M-Cdk activation begins with the accumulation of:

A

M-cyclin

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53
Q

M-Cdk’s ability to inhibit its own activator suggests that M-Cdk activation in mitosis involves:

A

positive feedback loops

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54
Q

two sisters are resolved into distinct, separable units

A

sister-chromatid resolution

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55
Q

sister-chromatid resolution depends on a five-subunit protein complex called

A

condensin

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56
Q

process in which depends on mitotic spindle

A

chromosome segregation

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57
Q

overlapped with the plus ends of microtubules from the other pole

A

interpolar microtubules

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58
Q

attached to sister-chromatid pairs at large protein structures

A

kinetochore microtubules

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59
Q

large protein structures where kinetochore microtubules attach to

A

kinetochores

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60
Q

radiate outward from the poles and contact cell cortex

A

astral microtubules

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61
Q

consists of a cloud of pericentriolar matrix that surrounds a pair of centrioles; contains γ-tubulin ring complexes

A

centrosome

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62
Q

move toward the plus ends; slide the two antiparallel microtubules past each other toward the spindle poles, pushing the poles apart

A

kinesin-5

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63
Q

are minus-end directed motors; cross-link antiparallel interpolar microtubules at the spindle midzone and tend to pull the poles together

A

kinesin-14

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64
Q

chromokinesins; plus-end directed motors that associate with chromosome arms and push the attached chromosome away from the pole

A

kinesin-4/10

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65
Q

minus-end directed motors; motors pull the spindle poles toward the cell cortex and away from each other

A

dynein

66
Q

helps initiate centrosome duplication

A

G1/S-Cdk

67
Q

spindle assembly begins in early mitosis and are pulled by _________; links astral microtubules to the cell cortex

A

dynein motor proteins

68
Q

M-Cdk phosphorylates several subunits of the nuclear pore complexes

A

Nuclear-envelope breakdown

69
Q

promote stability and catastrophe factors that destabilize microtubule plus ends

A

microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs)

70
Q

bound to the chromatin; nucleation and stabilization of microtubules around chromosomes

A

guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF)

71
Q

a giant, multilayered protein structure that is built at the centromeric region of the chromatid

A

kinetochore

72
Q

rod-shaped protein complex; linking the microtubule to the kinetochore

A

Ndc80

73
Q

microtubules in the vicinity of the chromosomes become embedded in the plus-end-binding sites of the kinetochore. Polymerization at these plus ends then results in growth of the microtubules away from the kinetochore.

A

absence of centrosome

74
Q

sister chromatids in a pair attach to opposite poles of the mitotic spindle

A

bi-orientation

75
Q

tension-sensing mechanism depends on the protein kinase:

A

Aurora-B

76
Q

initiates sister-chromatid separation by ubiquitylating several mitotic regulatory proteins and thereby triggering their destruction

A

anaphase-promoting complex (APC/C)

77
Q

phase where cohesins hold sister chromatids together

A

metaphase

78
Q

phase where loss of sister-chromatid cohesion occurs

A

anaphase

79
Q

blocks progression through the metaphase-to anaphase transition

A

spindle assembly checkpoint

80
Q

unattached kinetochore acts like an enzyme that catalyzes a change in the conformation of Mad2 → can bind and inhibit Cdc20–APC/C

A

Mad2

81
Q

sudden loss of sister-chromatid cohesion at the onset of anaphase

A

chromosome segregation

82
Q

sub-phase of anaphase where initial poleward movement of the chromosomes

A

anaphase A

83
Q

sub-phase of anaphase where separation of the spindle poles themselves

A

anaphase B

84
Q

phase where the two sets of chromosomes are packaged into a pair of daughter nuclei

A

telophase

85
Q

spindle disassembly and the re-formation of daughter nuclei

A

dephosphorylation

86
Q

dephosphorylation and the completion of mitosis could be triggered by the

A

inactivation of Cdks, the activation of phosphatases, or both

87
Q

final stage: division of the cytoplasm in two

A

CYTOKINESIS

88
Q

local formation of actin filaments depends on

A

formin

89
Q

protein components that assembles the contractile ring

A

actin and myosin II

90
Q

persists as a tether between the two daughter cells and contains the remains of the central spindle

A

midbody

91
Q

small GTPase of the Ras superfamily; controls the assembly and function of the contractile ring at the site of cleavage

A

RhoA

92
Q

models that suggests the mitotic specificity of the site of division

A
  1. astral stimulation model
  2. central spindle stimulation model
  3. astral relaxation model
93
Q

astral microtubules carry furrow inducing signals

A

astral stimulation model

94
Q

the spindle midzone, or central spindle, generates a furrow-inducing signal that
specifies the site of furrow formation at the cell cortex

A

central spindle stimulation model

95
Q

the astral microtubules promote the local relaxation of actin myosin bundles at the cell cortex

A

astral relaxation model

96
Q

higher-plant cells are enclosed by a

A

semirigid cell wall

97
Q

formation of the cell wall during plant cytokinesis is guided by the

A

phragmoplast

98
Q

organelle that is reorganized and fragmented during mitosis

A

Golgi apparatus

99
Q

organelle that is cut into two during cytokinesis

A

ER (endoplasmic reticulum)

100
Q

the mother cell must first segregate ____________ to one side of the cell and then position the plane of division so that the appropriate daughter cell inherits these components

A

cell fate determinants

101
Q

membranes are created around each nucleus in one round of coordinated cytokinesis

A

cellularization

102
Q

cell which is carrying only a single copy of each chromosome → gametes

A

haploid

103
Q

fusion of sperm and egg cell

A

zygote

104
Q

contain two slightly different copies, or homologs of each chromosome, one from
each parent

A

diploid

105
Q

the genomes of two parents mix to generate offspring that are genetically distinct from
either parent; reduces the chromosome number by half

A

MEIOSIS

106
Q

duplicated paternal and maternal homologs pair up alongside each other

A

pair of homologs

107
Q

stage with no further DNA replication; the sister chromatids pulled apart and segregated

A

meiosis II

108
Q

four chromatid structure

A

bivalent

109
Q

homolog pairs are then locked together by:

A

homologous recombination

110
Q

the DNA of a chromatid crosses over to become continuous with the DNA of a homologous chromatid

A

crossovers

111
Q

assembles on a double strand break in a chromatid, binds the matching DNA sequence in
the nearby homolog and helps reel in this partner

A

recombination complex

112
Q

homologs condense and pair and genetic recombination begins

A

leptotene

112
Q

synaptonemal complex begins to assemble at sites where the homologs are closely associated and recombination events are occurring

A

zygotene

113
Q

assembly process is complete, and the homologs are synapsed along their entire lengths

A

pachytene

114
Q

disassembly of the synaptonemal complexes and the concomitant condensation and shortening of the chromosomes

A

diplotene

115
Q

segregation of homologs

A

diakinesis

116
Q

meiotic prophase – five sequential stages

A

leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis

117
Q

the individual crossover events between non-sister chromatids can be seen as inter-homolog connections

A

chiasmata (chiasma)

118
Q

cohesins near the centromeres are protected from separase in meiosis I by a kinetochore-associated protein called

A

shugoshin

119
Q

where DNA is accessible

A

hot spots

120
Q

heterochromatin regions (centromeres and telomeres)

A

cold spots

121
Q

the presence of one crossover event inhibits another from forming close by

A

crossover interference

122
Q

when homologs fail to separate; some of the resulting haploid gametes lack a particular chromosome, while others have more than one copy of it

A

nondisjunction

123
Q

trisomy 21

A

Down syndrome

124
Q

stimulate cell growth; synthesis of proteins and other macromolecules

A

Growth factors

125
Q

promote cell survival; suppressing apoptosis

A

Survival factors

126
Q

organisms where the rate of proliferation depends on theavailability of nutrients

A

unicellular organisms

127
Q

organisms where cells divide only when the organism needs more cells

A

multicellular organism

128
Q

first mitogen identified; observation that fibroblasts in a culture dish proliferate when provided with serum not when provided with plasma

A

platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

129
Q

acts not only on epidermal cells but also on many other cell types, including both epithelial and nonepithelial cells

A

epidermal growth factor (EGF)

130
Q

only induces the proliferation of red blood cell precursors

A

erythropoietin

131
Q

inhibitory extracellular signal proteins; inhibit proliferation

A

transforming growth factor-β (TGFβ)

132
Q

cell cycle phase when neurons and skeletal muscles; cell-cycle control system is completely dismantled

A

terminally differentiated or G0 state

133
Q

bind to specific DNA sequences in the promoters of a wide variety of genes that encode proteins required for S-phase entry

A

E2F proteins

134
Q

in the absence of mitogenic stimulation, E2Fdependent gene expression is inhibited by an interaction between E2F and members of the:

A

retinoblastoma protein (Rb) family

135
Q

a result of spontaneous chemical reactions in DNA, errors in DNA replication, or exposure to radiation or certain chemicals

A

DNA damage

136
Q

acts as ubiquitin ligase that targets p53 for destruction

A

Mdm2

137
Q

at undamaged cells, it is highly unstable and is present at very low concentration

A

p53

138
Q

defect in ATM; very sensitive to x-rays and suffer from increased rates of cancer

A

ataxia telangiectasia

139
Q

changes in the structures of the telomeres; synthesized by the enzyme telomerase; promotes the formation of protein cap structures that protect the chromosome ends

A

replicative cell senescence

140
Q

programmed cell death; “falling off”

A

apoptosis

141
Q

cells that die in response to an acute insult

A

cell necrosis

142
Q

a form of programmed cell death that is triggered by a specific regulatory signal from other cells

A

necroptosis

143
Q

have a cysteine at their active site and cleave their target proteins at specific aspartic acids

A

caspases

144
Q

begin the apoptotic process; apoptotic signal → assembly of large protein complexes → dimers → protease activation

A

initiator caspases

145
Q

inactive dimers; cleaved by an initiator caspase at a site in the protease domain → rearranged to active form → amplifying proteolytic cascade → kill the cell

A

executioner caspases

146
Q

a protein that normally holds a DNA degrading endonuclease (iCAD) in an inactive form; its cleavage frees the endonuclease (CAD) to cut up the DNA in the cell nucleus

A

lamins

147
Q

transmembrane proteins; extracellular ligand-binding domain, a single transmembrane domain, and an intracellular death domain

A

death receptors

148
Q

help prevent the inappropriate activation of the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis

A

FLIP

149
Q

depends on the release into the cytosol of mitochondrial proteins

A

intrinsic or mitochondrial pathway

150
Q

released into the cytosol → binds to an adaptor protein called Apaf1 (apoptotic protease activating factor-1) → oligomerize into a wheel-like heptamer called an apoptosome → recruit initiator caspase-9 proteins

A

cytochrome c

151
Q

major class of intracellular regulators of the intrinsic pathway

A

Bcl2 family

152
Q

types of Bcl2 family involved in apoptosis

A

pro-apoptotic and antiapoptotic

153
Q

includes Bcl2 and BclXL

A

antiapoptotic

154
Q

involves effector Bcl2 family proteins and Bh3-only protein

A

pro-apoptotic

155
Q

first identified in insect viruses (baculoviruses); encode IAP proteins to prevent a host cell that is infected by the virus from killing itself by apoptosis

A

inhibitors of apoptosis (IAPs)

156
Q

destruction for proteosomes

A

polyubiquitylate caspases

157
Q

chromosome translocation causes excessive production of the Bcl2 protein; B cell lymphoma

A

Bcl2 gene

158
Q

genes that are inactivated when the conditions were few cells dies from apoptosis;

A

Fas death receptor or the Fas ligand

159
Q
A

CMB: FINALS WEEK? OR MY FINAL WEEK? ver. 2 (3 decks)

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