Cell biology of disease Flashcards

0
Q

What size are lysosomes?

A

Vary in shape but roughly 200-400nm

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1
Q

Which cells are lysosomes found in?

A

All except red blood cells

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2
Q

What percentage of the cell volume is occupied by lysosomes?

A

1%

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3
Q

What are the roles of lysosomes

A

Macromolecules degradation
Plasma membrane repair
Act as secretory organelles in immune cells

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4
Q

How many types of macromolecules does the lumen of a lysosome contain?

A

> 45

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5
Q

What is the role of hydrolases

A

The break covalent bonds via hydrolysis so digest macro molecules into their component parts

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6
Q

What is the pH of the lysosomal lumen and how does this compare to the cytosol

A

Lysosomal lumen= 4.5-5.0

Cytosol = 7.2

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7
Q

How is the pH of the lysosomal lumen maintained

A

The vaculoar proton pump
This pump transports protons into the lumen
The proton transport is energised by ATP hydrolysis

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8
Q

Name the 3 ways in which materials destined for degradation are delivered to the lysosomes? And what types of molecules are transported by each system

A
Endocytosis = extra cellular molecules in the fluid phase and PM proteins
Autophagy= molecules in the cytosol and whole organelles 
Phagocytosis= Large extra cellular particulate species e.g microbes
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9
Q

What important role do lysosomes play in receptor signalling

A

May degrade receptor/ ligand by endocytosis

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10
Q

What is macroautophagy?

A

Is the best characterised form of autophagy
It involves the envelopement of cytoplasmic materials by a double membrane that fuses with the lysosome delivering its contents. The double membrane may be donated by the PM, ER and or mitochondria

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11
Q

How is macroautophagy enhanced by starvation of cells?

A

mTOR regulates macroautophagy
In starvation cells you get Rapamycin
Rapamycin inhibits mTOR and therefore promotes macroautophagy

Rapamycin has also been reported to promote clearance of soluble Huntingtin and huntingtin aggregates in mice and also for mutant forms of alpha-synuclein (associated with Parkinson’s)

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12
Q

Describe the role of lysosomes in apoptosis triggered via pathogen/DNA damage?

A

Increase permeability of membrane of lysosomes

This results in the release of lysosomal proteases, cathepins into the cytosol where they act on cellular targets

Cathepins although not at their optima pH can cleave proteins at cytosolic pH and can trigger the mitochondrial/intrinsic pathway of apoptosis potentially via Bid

However exact role is unclear, likely that cathepins amplify apoptosis

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13
Q

Lysosomes in PM repair

A

Lysosomes act as a reserve of membrane

Lysosomes excocytosis is triggered via Ca2+ into the cell, which is detected by the lysosomal membrane protein synaptotagmin 7

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14
Q

Lysosomal storage diseases overview

A

> 50

They are caused by defectes in the degradative function of lysosomes
They are so called due to the abnormal accumulation of molecules within the lysosome.

The accumulation process is poorly understood

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15
Q

I-cell disease: clinical symptoms and genetics

A

Also known as mucolipididosis type II

An autosomal-recessive disorder

Mutation in the gene (GNPTA) that encodes enzyme N-acetylglucosiminidase-1-phosphotransferase.

Disease is so called because of the formation of Intracellular inclusions

clinical symptoms: Facial abnormalities, skeletal abnormalities, severe psychomotor retardation and heart failure occurs in decade of life
No cure, treatment is limited to reducing symptoms

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16
Q

Molecular basis for I-cell disease

A

Cells have reduced Intracellular levels of lysosomal hydrolases, but conversely secrete these enzymes into the culture medium.

The enzyme is localised to the cis-Golgi and modifies the mannosylated glycans that are attached to newly synthesised lysosomal hydrolases.

The resultant mannose-phosphate groups are recognised by the mannose-6-phosphate receptors in the trans-Golgi network, which sort lysosomal hydrolases to Endosome and hence to lysosomes

If the hydrolases are not modified by the enzyme they are not recognised and instead secreted by the cell

The result is that lysosomes are deficient in key hydrolases and so impaired in their ability to degrade molecules

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17
Q

Pompe disease: clinical symptoms and genetics

A

Autosomal recessive mutation in the gene that encodes the lysosomal hydrolase alpha-D-glucosidase

Clinical symptoms: progressive cardiac and skeletal myopathy (disease of muscle) In infantile onset pompe disease death usually occurs within 1st year of life due to cardio respiratory failure

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18
Q

Pompe disease: molecular basis

A

Glycogen normally stored and hydrolysed in the cytosol, but small amount enters lysosomes

Lysosomal alpha-D-glucosidase cleaves glycogen into glucose that can then transport to the cytosol

Deficiency in alpha-D-glucosidase causes the abnormal accumulation of glycogen in cells and the resultant symptoms of disease.

Can be treated with enzyme replacement therapy: intravenous infusions of mannose-phosphate modified alpha-D-glucosidase is given to patients. This is only effective in cardiac muscle

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19
Q

Fabry disease: genetics and clinical symptoms

A

X-linked disorder that results from mutations in alpha-galactosidase

Clinical symptoms: Facial abnormalities, wide range of non specific effects that include renal and cardiac problems due to problems in the vasvulature, progressive organ and tissue damage= reduced life expectancy to 40 years but can be increased to 50 with treatment for renal failure

Symptoms due to the deposition of glycolipids globotriaoslyceramide in the wall of capillaries, kidney tubule and glomerular cells, nerves and dorsal root ganglia

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20
Q

Fabry disease: molecular mechanism and treatment

A

Alpha-galactosidase removes terminal galactose from the glycolipids globotriaoslyceramide (Gb3)

Lack of alpha-galactosidase activity results in accumulation of (Gb3) and lysosomes and lipid droplets in many types of cells

Treatment: enzyme replacement thermal is used to treat fabry disease, with the administration of mannose phosphate form of the enzyme

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21
Q

Infantile Salic acid storage disease (ISASD): genetics and clinical symptoms

A

Autosomal recessive mutation in the sialin gene

Clinical symptoms: facial abnormalities, mental retardation, enlarged heart, liver and spleen, patients normally die within 1st to 2nd years of life

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22
Q

Salla diease: genetics and symptoms

A

Caused by a mutation in sialin like ISASD but is less severe, it is found in the Finnish population. But results in physical and mental impairment and life expectancy is reduced to 50 years

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23
Q

ISASD and Salla disease: molecular basis

A

Sialin is a lysosomal membrane receptor, it transports sialin acid from the lysosome into the cytosol

Sialic acids are 9 carbon monosaccharides that are amongst the breakdown produces of glycolipids, glycoproteins and glucosaminoglycans.

The loss of sialin transport activity results in the accumulation sialin acid in the lysosomes

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24
Q

How to isolate NK White blood cells

A

Take blood
Separate White blood cells by centrifugation through lymphoprep (ficoll)
Remove non NK cells by incubating with magnetic beads coated with antibodies that bind to other white blood cells

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25
Q

Where are cell lines derived from?

A

Derived from tumour cells, enabling them to grow for many generations if not indefinitely

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26
Q

Cell lines (other points)

A

Commonly used in cell biological research due to ease of culture and their readily availability.
Often more easily transfected with Nucleic acids than primary cells
May retain some but not all features, of cells from which tumour is derived.

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27
Q

HeLa cells
Where are they derived from
Why are they used

A

A cervical carcinoma cell line derived from an aggressive tumour from henrietta lacks in 1951 aged only 31
Transformed by HPV 18 and these cells have an abnormal number of chromosomes
Easy to culture and transfect

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28
Q

What is growth medium supplement with when culturing mammalian cells?

A

Serum derived from foetal calves (FCS)

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29
Q

What are mammalian cells cultured in?

A

Plastic flasks/dished in humidified incubator at 37 degrees, 5% CO2

Cells can either grown in suspension (lymphocytes) or adhere to plastic (epithelial)

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30
Q

What can also be added as well as serum when culturing mammalian cells?

A

L-glutamine, antibiotics and non essential amino acids.

Cytokines to promote growth of certain cells

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31
Q

Give two examples of mammalian expression vectors

A

pcDNA3

PEGFP-N1

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32
Q

3 transfection techniques for mammalian cells

A

Electroporation

Lipid based reagents: encapsulated DNA and fuse with PM

Calcium phosphate: forms precipitate with DNA that is taken up by cells

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33
Q

Example of a nuclear dyes

A

DAPI

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34
Q

What fluorescent dyes label acidic compartments

A

Lysotracker

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35
Q

What fluorescent dyes label mitochondria?

A

Mitotracker

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36
Q

How can trafficking of receptors be tracked?

A

Labelled ligands with labeled EGF, transferrin

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37
Q

Flow cytometry

A

Cells are stained with antibodies for the protein of interest that incorporate fluorescent dyes or secondary antibodies that are labeled with fluorescent dyes
In addition cells that express fluorescent proteins can be analysed
Cell associated fluorescence is then measured by flow cytometer

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38
Q

Major application of flow cytometry

A

Analyse the expression of proteins, especially those on the cell surface

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39
Q

The nucleus in mammalian cells
Size
Volume

A

6micrometers

10% of cell volume

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40
Q

The nuclear envelope

A

A double membrane that acts as a physical barrier. The outer membrane is continues with the ER, while the inner membrane is the primary residence of several (INM) proteins.

It is also attached to the cytoplasm by attaching, microtubules and actin filaments.

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41
Q

The inner nuclear membrane (INM)

A

The INM is connected to the nuclear lamina, a network of intermediate filaments.

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42
Q

The perpInuclear space

A

The space between to two nuclear membranes

Is about 20-40nm wide.

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43
Q

The nuclear lamina

A

A dense 30-100nm thick fibillar network inside the nucleus
Composed of intermediate filaments and membrane associated proteins
Provides mechanical support but also regulates important cellular events like DNA replication and cell division.
Participates is chromatin organisation and it anchors the nuclear pore complex, which is embedded in the nuclear envelope

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44
Q

Laminopathies

A

Group of rare genetic disorders caused by mutations in gene encoding proteins of the nuclear lamina.

Rare due to being drastic mutations

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45
Q

Main muation of Laminopathies

A

Mutation in Lamin A/C and nuclear lamina-associated proteins eg emerin

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46
Q

Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy

A

A condition that chiefly affects skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

Amount the earliest features of theis disorder are joint deformities, called contractures, which restrict the movement of joints

Most affect individuals also experience slowly progressive muscle weakness and wasting

Almost all have heart problems by adulthood. Stem from abnormalities of the electrical signals that control the heart beat (cardiac conduction defects) and abnormal heart rhythms

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47
Q

Huthchisons-Gilford progeria syndrome (HGPS)

A

HGPS is a disease in which the physical aspects of ageing are accelerated

Most have point mutation in the LMNA gene
This mutation results in the translation of Lamin A lacking 50amino acids

The mutant protein (LAD50) incorporates abnormally into the nuclear lamina, leads to mechanical defects, thickening of the lamina, loss of peripheral heterochromatin, an increased DNA damage.

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48
Q

How is genetic material organised in the nucleus

How many chromosomes

A

In human: Nucleues contains 23 Paris so 46 in total
22 of these are autosomes, and look the same in both females and male.
23 rd pair, the sex chromosome = females have two X’s whereas males only have X and Y
DNA organises itself into discrete individual patches called chromosome territories

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49
Q

How much DNA in length is in a human cell?

A

2meters

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50
Q

Euchromatin

A

Areas of DNA that are actively transcribed

51
Q

Heterochromatin

A

Areas where multiple histones wrap into a 30nm fibre consisting of nucleosome arrays in there most compact form

Here the DNA is not active so is not expressed

52
Q

When is DNA in its most compact form

A

Metaphase, during mitosis and meiosis

53
Q

Where is constitutive heterochromatin found

A

Around the central me and is never expressed

54
Q

Where is herochromatin found in the nucleus

A

Near the outer parts of the nucleus and interacts with the nuclear lamina which further packs the chromatin

55
Q

What size proteins are the Nuclear pore complex freely permeable to?

A

40kDa

Larger molecules are transported though an active mechanism that requires soluble transport factors

56
Q

What is the mass of the NPC

What is the size of the NPC

A

125 mega daltons
145nm in diameter and 80nm long
Central channel= 69nm but can expand and contract when required

57
Q

How many nucleoporins make up a NPC

A

30-50 nucleoporins

58
Q

Organisation of the nuclear pore complex

A

NCP associated proteins are called NUP’s
8 composite rings of protein at cytoplasmic surface and 8 at the inner surface of the nuclear membrane. These are connected through spoke proteins.
Filaments attached to the 8 rings project out into the cytoplasmic side. And filaments are attached to the inner rings. These however join together to form basket like structure.
The membrane embedded part of the NPC is associated with the nuclear lamina. A central channel is positioned in the centre that extends from the inner surface of the NPC to the outer surface acts as the contractile structure.

59
Q

Mechanism for how protein are imported through the NPC

A

Protein with NLS is recognised by a importin complexed to the small GTP binding protein (Ran)
The importin then allows the complex to bind a specfic nuclear pore protein in the cytoplasmic filaments
The complex is translocated through the nuclear pore proteins
The activity of the guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) in the nucleus exchanges the GDP of Ran for GTP altering the configuration of the complex, releasing the protein
The importin-Ran/GTP complex is re-exported though the nuclear pore complex and the GTP-ase activating protein (GAP) in the cytoplasm hydrolyses the GTP to GDP
Now GDP complex is ready for next round of import

60
Q

How many NLS does importin alpha have?

A

2

61
Q

How do proteins get out of the nucleus?

A

Targeted by NES (nuclear export signal) LxxxLxxLxL where L = hydrophobic residue often leucine

Ran/GTP promotes the formation of a stable complexes between exportins and their target protein

Following transport to cytoplasm GTP hydrolysis which leads to dissociation of the target protein, so is released into the cytoplasm

62
Q

Triple A syndrome
Full name
Clinical symptoms

A

Achalasia-Addisonianism-Alarcrimia syndrome
Clinical symptoms: Autonomic dysfunction-controls heart rate, blood pressure. Adrenal insufficiency (after hormone release), Achalasia (affect muscle control in oesophagus/sphincter) and mental retardation

63
Q

Triple A syndrome

Mutation

A

Mutation associated with with a NPC component, ALADIN. Mutations affect ALADIN integration into the NPC

This specifically affects the nuclear import of certain proteins: Aparataxin; DNA ligase 1, ferritin heavy chain

These are all invloved in protecting and repairing DNA under oxidative stress.

Therefore cells more prone to oxidative damage leading to multiple effects

64
Q

How does HBV get into the nucleus

A

Capsid size 32-36nm so enter without capsid disassembly

HBV capsid have NLS accessible to bind importin

65
Q

How does herpes simplex virus and adenovirus get there DNA into the nucleus to replicate?

A

Capsid to large to pass through

HSV capsid dock to pore via importin B, then releases its DNA through the NPC into the nucleoplasm.

Adenovirus directly associated with the cytoplasmically localised nucloporin CAN? Nups214 then bind Hsc70 and histone H1, these intiate capsid disassembley prior to viral DNA release into the nucleus

66
Q

mRNA export from the nucleus

A

Process of splicing recruits the proteins necessary for mRNA to exit to the nucleus. The ribonucleoprotien

hTREX and EJC

hTREX: about 16 proteins and binds to 5’ end of the RNA. Is essential for translocation of the mRNA from the nucleus

EJC: bind every exon-exon junction, so multiple EJC’s bind to the mRNA

hTREX recruits a nucleo export factor, TAP and p15 (binds ALY)

The large complex approaches the NPC and attaches via a thin filament, it then reaches the pore centre, elongates into a 100-150A broad rod. The material passes the pore centre in a rod form, transitorily assuming dumbbell like shaped configuration.

Then the material rounds into a spherical particle and is deposited on the cytoplasmic side.

67
Q

Two types of cell specific signalling

A

Contact dependant

Synaptic

68
Q

Two types of cell types specific signalling

A

Paracrine

Endocrine

69
Q

Name the receptor families

A

G protein coupled (largest family over 800)
Enzyme coupled
Adhesion receptors
Pathogen recognition receptors

70
Q

G-protein coupled receptors

A

Comprise of 7transmembrane helices which span the membrane

Ligand binding causes conformational change
Leads to a signal transduction
And secondary messenger generation

Which leads to a phenotypic change
Includes Chemokine, glucagon, glutamate, ordorant, GABA receptors

GDP —-> GTP upon ligand binding

71
Q

Examples of secondary messaged in G protein receptor mechanisms

A

cAMP ^ or down

Ca2+

IP3

72
Q

PTHR

A

PTHR = parathyroid hormone receptor ( GPCR)
Expression in the kidney regulates of calcium and phosphorus concentration. Also regulates chondrocyte growth and differentiation

Mutation from H to R. Leads to permanent activation of receptor G alpha subunit. So get an ^ in cAMP

Leads to Jansens metaphysical chondrodysplasia (shortened dwarfism)

73
Q

TSHR (GPCR)

A

Autoimmune disease via antibody agonists/antagonists

Graves’ disease caused by hyperthyroidism via TSHR agonist antibodies.
Causes excess cAMP via G alpha subunit. Leads to weight loss bulging eyes due to fat being metabolised. Sweaty appearance.

Opposite
Hashimotos disease caused by antagonistic autoantibodies results in decrease in cAMP
Leads to weight gain fatigue, often postpartum. Can occur after childbirth.

74
Q

What receptor does cholera toxin use to enter cells

A

Ganglioside Gm1 ( a GPCR)

75
Q

Cholera toxin mechnism (GPCR)

A

After activation it catalyzes ADP-ribose transfer from NAD+ to an arginine residue to G alpha subunit. (ADP- ribosylation)
Prevents hydrolysis of GTP so increase in cAMP

Increase in Cl- release in to the gut
Decrease in NA+ resulting in water diarrhoea

76
Q

Whooping cough

A

Pertussis toxin prevents activation of G alplha I via ADP-ribosylation. Inhibition leads to increase in cAMP. Affect ion flux in lung epithelial.

Life threatening for neonates.

77
Q

Albright syndrome

A

Activating G subunit alpha mutations (GNAS gene) - gain of function
Two major mutations =
Arg201 is in the GDP/GTP binding domain of the protein
Gln227 required for intrinsic GTPase activity

Non germ line (somatic) defects can give mosaic/sporadic phenotype

78
Q

Fibrous dysplasia osteoblast dysfunction

A

Bone dysfunction

Embryonic lethal

79
Q

Pseudohypoparathyroidism (PHP1)

A

Caused by loss of GNAS function essential for PTH signalling

Different phenotype depending on whether inherited from farther or mother

Good example of an imprinting gene -(monoalleliec) expression in certain tissue

PHP1b caused by epicene tic changes rather than classic coding mutation

80
Q

Enzyme-coupled receptor tyrosine kinases

A

Not coupled to G proteins
Signal via phosphorylation cascades
Includes many growth factors
VEGF,EGF,M-CSF,Ephrin and insulin receptor
Ephrin: receptors invloved in axon guidance and segmentation during development

81
Q

Insulin receptor main role

A

Increase in glucose uptake

82
Q

Type-1 diabetes

A

Lack of insulin due to autoimmune destruction of Beta-islet cells

83
Q

Can type 2 diabetes lead to type 1

A

Yes

84
Q

Mechanisms of receptor desensitisation

A

Endocytosis and degradation of receptor

Phosphotyrosine phosphatses (PTPases)

Down regulation of P13K and IRS proteins

85
Q

What receptors are invloved in capture and rolling of leukocytes

A

Selectins

86
Q

What receptors and invloved in arrest, firm-adhering, and spreading

A

Integrins

87
Q

What receptors mediate migration of leukocytes

A

ICAMS

88
Q

Two way leukocytes can migrate through cells

A

Parracellular

Transcellular

This process is called diapedesis

89
Q

Mice lacking endothelial expression of phosphoninositide 3-kinase-(P13K)

A

Show more than tenfold elevated rolling velocities

90
Q

LAD

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

Causes recurring infection

91
Q

LADI

A

Lacks CD18 (crucial integrin)

92
Q

LADII

A

Lacks fucosytransferase that generates selectin ligands

93
Q

LADIII

A

Integrin activation defect (KINDLIN-3 mutant)

94
Q

Are adhesion molecules important during development

A

Yes

95
Q

Major class of PRR

A

Toll receptors

96
Q

PRR carbohydrate binding receptor

A

Lectins

97
Q

What can cause increased susceptibility to candida infection

A

Single nucleotide polymorphism in the promotor of the human Dectin-1 promotor increases susceptibility to candida infections

98
Q

Listeria

A

Can bind Intigrins via ic3b casing formation of pores, can then allowing access to the phagosomal membrane.

99
Q

Anti-epileptic drugs

A

Block Na+ channels

Examples include Novartis and tegratol (carbamazepine)

100
Q

Angina drugs

A

Voltage gated Ca2+ channel inhibitor

Example= verapamil

101
Q

Diabetes

A

ATP sensitive K+ channel inhibitor

Example= Gilbenclamide 5

102
Q

Patch clamping

A

Whole cell patch clamp- study of multiple ion channels in cells

Glass pipette makes tight contact with an area, or patch of membrane
Forms a high resistance seal
Suction within pipette disrupts membrane patch
Interior of pepette-continues with cytoplasm of the cell
Measurements of electrical potentials and currents form entire cell-whole cell recording

103
Q

Channelopathies

A

Diseases caused by disrupted function of ion channel subunits or the protein that regulate them.
Can be congenital or acquired
Examples include: cystic fibrosis, insulin disorders, cardiac arrhythmias

104
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive genetic disorder primarily affecting the lungs
Abnormal transport of Cl-and Na+ across an epithelium, leading to thick, viscous secretions
Characteristic scarring (Fibrosis) and cyst formation with the pancreas
Frequent lung infections
Lung transplant often necessary

105
Q

Cause of CF

A

Mutation in the gene that encodes for the protein cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)

Most common: F508, loss of amino acid phenylalanine at position 508
Causes two-thirds (66-70%) of CF cases

Majority have two working copies of CFTR gene, only one is needed to prevent CF

Fewer active channels-reduced Cl- transport. Cl- encourages the movement of sticky mucous

106
Q

Insulin disorders

A

Channels comprised of Kir6.x-type subunits and sulphonylurea receptor (SUR) subunits

Normal condition-Katp active. K+ flows out the cell-resting membrane
Increased glucose metabolism
Increased levels of ATP
Katp channel close
Membranes potential depolarises
Promotes insulin release due to Ca2+ influx

107
Q

Profound neonatal diabetes

A

KATP channel mutations (many identified) that reduce the ability of the channels to be inhibited by ATP-channels are overactive
Gilbenclamide (glyburide) inhibits SUR1-causes cell membrane depolarisation opening voltage-dependant Ca2+ channels-stimulation of insulin release.

108
Q

Long QT syndrome (LQTS)

A

Delayed repolarisation of the heart beat
Increased risk of seizures, sudden cardiac death, structurally hearts are healthy.
Mutations of one of several gene that prolong the duration of the ventricular action potential, lengthening the QT interval
Mutations in the human ether-a-go-go related gene (HERG) -over 30 identified.

K+ channels play a critical role in cardiac action potential repolarisation
HERG encode a voltage-gated potassium channel
Suppression of the HERG current action potential prolongation and cardiac arrhythmias

109
Q

Pufferfish toxin

A

Toxin: Tetrodotoxin TTX
Blocks action potentials in nerves by blinding to the voltage gated fast Na+ channels in nerve cells.
Can cause coma, cardiac arrhythmias and death

Toxin works by binding to the channel preventing the flow of Na+

110
Q

Mamba snake toxin

A

Toxin: dendrotoxin K
Can kill within 20 minuets
Blocks voltage-gated K+ channels in neuronal tissue
Voltage gated K+ channels control excitability of nerves and muscles

Dendrotoxin prolongs action potential
Increases acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction
Results in muscle hyperexcitability and convulsive symptoms

111
Q

Terfenadine

A

Seldane marketed as first non-sedating anti-histamine for the treatment of allergic rhinitis
People with liver disease also taking ketoconazole, an antifungal agent/ erythromycin suffered cardiac arrhythmia if they took Seldane too.
FDA removed Terfenadine containing drugs

Prolonged ventricular repolarisation and an increased risk of ventricular arrhythmia
HERG blocker ( now checked early in drug development stages)
112
Q

Venoms as a therapeutic agent

A

Ziconotide a synthetic peptide of a conotoxin from cone snail
Blocks voltage gated Ca2+ channels of the spinal cord
Reduces pronociceptive neurotransmitter release in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord
Results in inhibiton of pain signal transmission

113
Q

Egg and sperm =?

A

Zygote
Totipotent stem cell
Goes on to divide into 3 types of tissue: ecotoderm, mesoderm and endoderm

114
Q

Other than zygote what 2 types of stem cell are found in mammals

A

Embryonic: can diffenerentiate into each of the >200 cell types of the adult body

Adult stem cells: Divide into lineage restricted cell types

115
Q

Different types of stem cells

A
Totipotent: intire organism
Pluripotent: all linages (embryonic)
Multipotent: multiple linages
Oligopotent: 2 or more linages
Unipotent:single lineage eg sperm stem cells
116
Q

Where were embryonic stem cells first derived?

A

In mice in 1981

Applied to human stem cells in 1998

117
Q

How is pluripotentcy maintained in EC

A

Through the the transcription factors OCT4, SOX2,NANOG and KLF4, which suppress the expression of genes necessary for differentiatio.

Also express certain cell surface markers of stage specfic embryonic antigens SSEA3, SSEA4 and keratan sulphate antigens Tra-1-60, Tra1-81

118
Q

Tests for pluripotent stem cells?

A

Allow cells to differentiate spontaneously by clumping; formation of embroyoid bodies
Manipulate cells so will differentiate into 3 germ line cells
Inject into an immunosurpressed mouse to test for formation of a tetratoma. Tetratoma= typically contain mixtures of differentiated and partially differentiated cell types

119
Q

ES issues

A

Ethical: need in vitro fertilisation

Express MHC so can provoke immune response. Only truly compatible with person they come from/mother or farther

120
Q

How to produce iPS (induced pluripotent stem cells)

A

Pluripotent stem cells artificially derived from adult somatic cells using four genes
Oct-3/4, Sox 2, c-Myc, KLF4

121
Q

Haematopoietic stem cells

A

First discovered in mice
1in 10,000 cells in myeloid tissue (red bone marrow)
Non adherent, round, large nucleus.
Have not been isolated as a pure population
Detected by lack of and expression on certain receptors: CD34+, CD59+, Thy1/CD90+, CD38-, C-kit, CD177+, Lin -

122
Q

Mesenchymal stem cells

A

Cannot identify by microscope
Are adherent, so will stick to plastic
Cells capable of multiple mitosis in vito, but have a limited mortality.
Flow cytometry identification
Or a tri-lineage differentiation; bone, cartalige and fat

123
Q

How long have stem cells been used in health and disease

A

Over 50 years.

124
Q

Autologous HSC transplantation

A

Used to treat: Multiple myeloma, lymphoma

Patients donate there own stem cells
Progenitors are typically collected from bone marrow or peripheral blood
may use G-csf to recruit stem cells of the bone marrow and enrich progenitor cells in blood
Cancer cells destroyed in bone marrow by radio therapy or chemo therapy
Progenitor cells are grown up
Translated into the same patient via intravenous infusions
No immunosuppressive therapy

125
Q

Allogenic HSC transplantation

A

Donated by another person

Patients normally giving immunosuppressive therapy

126
Q

Clinical potential of MSC

A

Regenerative medicne, regenerate bone, cartilage, ligaments, tendons
Potent immunosuppressive cells