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Cecil's Questions > Cecil's questions > Flashcards

Cecil's questions Flashcards

1
Q

Firground factors offer a standard list of items command must consider in the evaluation of tactical situations. These factors give command a “checklist” of the basic items involved in______,_______,_______,______ and _______ on the fireground.

A. Size-up, decision-making, initiating action, review and revision
B. Search, rescue, fire control and stabilization
C. Search, rescue, actions taken and size-up

A

A. Size-up, decision-making, initiating action, review and revision
(M.P.202.02 pg.1)

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2
Q

Command must apply a different form of information management to each factor. This assures effective management of each fireground factor. What are the three basic information factors?

A

Visual, recon and pre-plan (M.P.202.02 pg.1)

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3
Q

Operations usually begin after deliberate consideration of the critical fireground factors. True or False?

A

False (M.P.202.02 pg.1)

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4
Q

List all of the fireground factors

A 
Building
Fire
Occupancy
Life hazards                                          (M.P.202.02 pg. 2-4)
Arrangement
Resources
Other factors/conditions
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5
Q

Tactical priorities identify three separate objectives that must be completed to stabilize any fire situation. The order of completion is not important as long as all priorities are completed in a timely manner. True or False?

A

False (M.P. 202.02A pg.1)

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6
Q

The activities required to stop the forward progress of the fire and bring the fire under control define what tactical priority?

A

Fire control (M.P. 202.02A pg.1)

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7
Q

The tactical priorities (Rescue, Fire control, property conservation) are clear obtainable objectives. What must occur for those objectives to be considered complete?

A

When benchmarks are declared. (M.P. 202.02A pg.1)

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8
Q

The ongoing responsibilities not completed with benchmarks are often referred to as the Umbrella of Service. What are these three on-going considerations?

A

Firefighter safety, customer service, loss control. (M.P. 202.02A pg.1)

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9
Q

The “________ of__________“ is as important as the tactical priorities and is critical to the success and positive outcome of an incident.

A

Umbrella of Service (M.P. 202.02A pg.2)

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10
Q

The term “May-Day” will be reserved only to report a lost,_____,or _______ firefighter.

A

Lost, trapped or injured firefighter (M.P. 202.03A pg.1)

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11
Q

When a “May-Day” occurs, all non-emergency radio traffic shall be moved to a separate tactical channel. True or False?

A

False (M.P. 202.03A pg.1) all non-emergency radio traffic ceases until resolved

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12
Q

If a member reporting a May-Day stops communicating command must assign someone to monitor THESE radio channels, as they cannot be monitored by the Alarm room.

A

Channels 12 & 15 (M.P. 202.03A pg.2)

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13
Q

After a May-Day is transmitted you should balance the assignment to the next greater alarm with a medical component. True or False?

A

False (M.P. 202.03A pg.2) TRO will

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14
Q

During a May-Day, the IC should always attempt to operate from a mobile radio. True or False?

A

True (M.P. 202.03A pg2) with some allowance for the captain operating in the Fast-Attack command mode

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15
Q

May-Day events are low frequency-high stress events, the alarm room will dedicate a TRO to the incident, and also recall who to the alarm room?

A. Deployment Battalion Chief
B. The Fire Chief
C. Alarm room supervisor
D. Off duty TRO’s

A

A. Deployment Battalion Chief (M.P. 202.03A pg.3)

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16
Q

Typically during a May-Day command will assign the _____/___-____ crew to immediately begin rescue efforts.

A. First/on-deck
B. RIC/on-deck
C. RIC/first-in
D. ISO/on-deck

A

RIC/on-deck (M.P. 202.03A pg.3)

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17
Q

The portable radio emergency traffic button transmits an audible signal to all consoles in the dispatch center. When activated on an incident with command established the alarm room first contacts command with notification. True or False?

A

True (M.P. 202.03A pg.4) Command will then contact the affected companies to determine if an emergency exists

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18
Q

Level 2 staging should be utilized by command for all greater alarm incidents, first alarm medical or hazardous materials incidents. OR:

A. If command wishes to de-centralize resources or simply park apparatus in a central location.
B. If it is a large incident and command needs resources at different locations within the same incident.
C. If command desires to centralize resources, or simply park apparatus in a central, unobstructed location.

A

C. (M.P. 205.06A pg.1)

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19
Q

Implementation of Level II staging automatically requires the implementation of a “Staging Sector”. Command should request a separate radio channel and may designate a Staging Sector Officer. Where an officer is not designated, the _____ _________ to arrive at the designated staging location will automatically become the staging officer.

A. First Engine
B. First Ladder
C. Second Engine
D. First Company

A

First company (M.P. 205.06A pg.1)

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20
Q

The staging area should be_________ the incident site perimeter, but close enough for quick response to the scene. The staging area should allow staged companies to access any geographic point of the incident without delay or vehicle congestion.

A. Near
B. Outside
C. Inside
D. Far away from

A

Outside (M.P. 205.06A pg.1)

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21
Q

As “staging sector officer” you must monitor 2 separate radio channels. True or False

A

True ( M.P. 205.06A pg.1) Command will request a separate radio channel to be used for Command Post to Staging Sector communications and advise the Staging Sector Officer.

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22
Q

The “staging officer” is responsible for the following functions, Except:

A. Ensure that all apparatus is parked in an appropriate manner for quick exit.
B. Assume a position that is visible and accessible to incoming and staged companies. This will be accomplished by leaving the red lights operating on the staging officers apparatus and by wearing a sector vest.
C. Provide progress reports to Staging Sector indicating number and type of units available.
D. Locate an area of adequate size for all apparatus, including apparatus that may respond with additional alarms.

A

C. ( M.P.205.06A pg.2) Provide progress reports to COMMAND indicating number and type of units available.

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23
Q

Where only staff or specialized equipment is needed at the scene, staging should put required manpower into an apparatus and drop them off at the scene. True or False

A

True (M.P. 205.06A pg2) Where only staff or specialized equipment is needed at the scene, staging should arrange a “taxi” service using a single company to deliver multiple crews or specialized equipment to the scene. This will minimize site congestion

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24
Q

If Logistics Section is implemented Staging Sector works under them for the remainder of the incident. True or False

A

True ( M.P. 205.06A pg.2) During major incidents where a “Logistics” Section is implemented, the Staging Sector will be working under the direction of the Logistics Officer.

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25
Q

Nighttime operations are particularly hazardous. These are all hazards associated with nighttime operations. Except:

A. Visibility increased
B. Flashing lights
C. Multiple headlights
D. Visibility decreased

A

A. (M.P. 205.07A pg.1) Nighttime operations are particularly hazardous. Visibility is reduced, and the flashing of emergency lights tends to confuse motorists. Studies have shown that multiple headlights of emergency apparatus (coming from different angles at the scene) tend to blind drivers as they approach.

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26
Q

For nighttime operations you should turn off apparatus headlights and emergency strobes. True or False

A

True (M.P. 205.07A pg.2) For NIGHTTIME operations, turn OFF fire apparatus headlights. This will help reduce the blinding effect to approaching vehicle traffic. Other emergency lighting should be reduced to yellow lights and emergency flashers where possible.

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27
Q

Placing flares, where safe to do so, adjacent to and in combination with traffic cones for nighttime operations greatly enhances scene safety. At what distance would flares/cones start in a 40 mph zone?

A

105 ft. (M.P.205.07A) speed distance
25 mph 65 feet
40 mph 105 feet
60 mph 160 feet

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28
Q

The initial company officer, or command, must thoroughly assess the need for apparatus on the freeway and their specific positions. Companies should be directed to specific parking locations to protect the work area, patients, and emergency personnel. Other apparatus not needed for protection should be parked UPSTREAM and out of the way. True or False?

A

False (M.P. 205.07A pg. 3) Other apparatus should be parked downstream when possible. This provides a safe parking area.

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29
Q

For first arriving engine companies where a charged hoseline may be needed, angle the engine so that the pump panel is “__________,” on the ________ side of on-coming traffic. This will protect the pump operator.

A. Protected, safe
B. Upstream, same
C. Downstream, opposite
D. Upstream, opposite

A

C. Downstream opposite (M.P.205.07A pg.2) For first arriving engine companies where a charged hoseline may be needed, angle the engine so that the pump panel is “down stream,” on the opposite side of on-coming traffic. This will protect the pump operator

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30
Q

According to NIOSH driving fatalities are second only to fatalities from what?

A. Falls
B. Burns
C. Heart attacks
D. Smoke inhalation

A

C. Heart attacks

Chap. 1 IFSTA Pumping/Driving

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31
Q

NFPA 1002,___ sets the minimum qualifications for driver/operators.

A. Standards for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications.
B. Standards for Fire Apparatus Driver/operator Professional Qualifications
C. Standards on Fire Department occupational safety and health program
D. Standard on comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments

A

B. Standards for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications
(Chap. 1 IFSTA Pumping/Driving)

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32
Q

Which of the following is a skill recommended, but not required, to be a Driver/Operator?

A. Reading
B. Writing
C. Mechanical
D. Math

A

C. Mechanical skills

Chap. 1 IFSTA Pumping/Driving

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33
Q

Which following activity is not ordinarily expected of an Engineer?

A. Deploying a portable water tank
B. Using a chainsaw for ventilation
C. Connecting to a hydrant
D. Hand jacking a supply line

A

B. Using a chainsaw for ventilation

Chap. 1 IFSTA Pumping/Driving

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34
Q

NFPA 1582 requires Fire Fighters to have corrected far visual acuity of_____ with contacts or specticles.

A. 20/20
B. 20/30
C. 20/40
D. 20/80

A

C. 20/40

Chap. 1 IFSTA Pumping/Driving

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35
Q

What NFPA standard gives direction for establishing a Driver/Operator training program?

A. 1450
B. 1451
C. 1560
D. 1561

A

B. NFPA 1451 (Chap. 1 IFSTA Pumping/Driving)

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36
Q

What Canadian authority establishes the basic requirements of licensing if drivers?

A. Transport Canada
B. Canadian Transit Authority
C. Department of Transportation
D. Canadian Highway Department

A

A. Transport Canada (Chap. 1 IFSTA Pumping/Driving)

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37
Q

According to M.P 206.19 Heat Stress Management practices are to be implemented whenever
temperatures are expected to exceed 105 degrees or:

A. The station air conditioner malfunctions during the summer.
B. The combination of air temperature and
humidity equal a humiture index of 105 degrees.
C. The humidity exceeds 90 percent.
D. When your Captain announces it.

A

B. Whenever the combination of air temperature and

humidity equal a humiture index of 105 degrees. To obtain a humiture chart just Google “humiture”.

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38
Q

According to M.P 206.19 (Heat Stress Management) Command’s responsibilities when a heat stress advisory is in effect are all of the following except:

A. Establish a Rehab Sector/Division/Group on all working fires.
B. Assign companies to Rehab Sector/Division/Group as needed or requested (companies shall remain in
rehab for a minimum of 20 minutes).
C.Utilize the practice of first company in, first company out routine.
D. Advise all members on-scene follow Heat Stress reduction Protocols

A

D. Commands responsibilities are as follows:

1.Establish a Rehab Sector/Division/Group on all working fires.
2. Assign companies to Rehab Sector/Division/Group as needed or requested (companies shall remain in
rehab for a minimum of 20 minutes).
3. Utilize the practice of first company in, first company out routine.
4. Request additional resources as necessary..

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39
Q

Company officer responsibilities during a “heat stress advisory” include consuming how many ounces of fluid

A

A minimum of 64 ounces (2 quarts) of fluid should be consumed during the 24 hour shift.

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40
Q

Dispatch and Deployment will activate station packages provide a “Heat Stress Advisory” over Channel
one including the following components except:

A. This is a Heat Stress Advisory
B. The expected high temperature for the day
C. Stay indoors and limit unnecessary strenuous activity
D. All members follow Heat Stress reduction Protocols

A

C. (M.P 206.19)

DISPATCH/DEPLOYMENT RESPONSIBILITIES
Dispatch and Deployment will activate station packages provide a “Heat Stress Advisory” over Channel
one including the following components:
1. This is a Heat Stress Advisory
2. The expected high temperature for the day
3. All members follow Heat Stress reduction Protocols

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41
Q

Over-cleaning the apparatus could lead to:

A. Shorter apparatus life.
B. Poor public relations.
C. Corrosion of steel components.
D. Removal of lubrication from chassis.

A

D. Removal of lubrication from chassis.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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42
Q

During the first 6 months after a new apparatus is received, frequently washing it with what will harden the paint and keep it from spotting?

A. cold water
B. soap and water
C. warm water
D. pressure washer

A

A. cold water

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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43
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of apparatus maintenance and inspection records?

A. They may used to decide where a new station should be or where another unit should be placed.
B. They may be used by accident investigators in the event of an accident.
C. They may assist in deciding whether to purchase a new apparatus.
D. They may be used in a warranty claim to document all necessary maintenance was performed.

A

A. They may used to decide if a new station or another unit should be placed.
( IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3)

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44
Q

Dust or dirt should NEVER be removed from an apparatus by:

A. Rinsing with warm water.
B. Washing with soap and cold water.
C. Washing with soap and hot water.
D. Wiping with a dry cloth.

A

D. Wiping with a dry cloth.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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45
Q

Wash apparatus with:

A. dish detergent
B. laundry detergent
C. a good automotive shampoo
D. none of the above

A

C. a good automotive shampoo

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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46
Q

You should NEVER wash apparatus with:

A. cold water
B. extremely hot water
C. water and dish soap
D. a pressure washer

A

B. extremely hot water

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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47
Q

Dry apparatus:

A. by air drying.
B. with old soft towels.
C. with new clean towels.
D. with a clean chamois.

A

D. with a clean chamois.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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48
Q

Which of the following should not be used to clean glass?

A. Warm soapy water
B. Commercial glass cleaners
C. Dry towels
D. Warm or hot water alone

A

C. Dry towels

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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49
Q

If you are asked to wax your apparatus, it should not be applied until:

A. the clear coat has worn away
B. it is 3 months old
C. it’s one year old
D. she’s six months old

A

D. she’s six months old

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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50
Q

One particular method of performing a apparatus/pre-trip inspection is referred to as the:

A. Front to back over/under method
B. oval method
C. walk-around method
D. approaching the apparatus method

A

C. walk-around method

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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51
Q

Begin an apparatus inspection by approaching the vehicle, looking beneath the vehicle for spots that indicate:

A. the vehicle is leaning.
B. wires are loose
C. poor cleaning procedures.
D. leaking fluids.

A

D. leaking fluids.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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52
Q

What is another term for the left side of the apparatus?

A. Officer side
B. Curb side
C. Street side
D. Firefighter side

A

C. Street side

( IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3)Pg.36

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53
Q

When performing a pre-trip inspection tires should be checked for all of the following EXCEPT:

A. tire condition.
B. lug nut condition.
C. proper tire inflation.
D. valve stem condition.

A

B. lug nut condition.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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54
Q

When performing a left and right rear side inspection the dual tires should:

A. have tread separation.
B. be touching each other.
C. be touching the wheel wells.
D. not come in contact with each other.

A

D. not come in contact with each other.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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55
Q

When performing an in-cab inspection, what should be done FIRST?

A. Buckle safety belt.
B. Check engine oil pressure.
C. Turn all electrical switches off.
D. Make sure the seat and mirrors are adjusted in a suitable manner.

A

D. Make sure the seat and mirrors are adjusted in a suitable manner.
( IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3)

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56
Q

What could be going on if the speedometer is showing anything other than 0 with the apparatus parked?

A. Defective gauge
B. The apparatus is idling too fast.
C. The apparatus is in drive gear.
D. pressure is being applied to the gas pedal.

A

A. Defective gauge
( IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3)
pg. 42

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57
Q

Steering wheel “play” generally should not exceed:

A. 5 degrees
B. 10 degrees
C. 15 degrees
D. 20 degrees

A

B. 10 degrees in either direction
( IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3)
pg. 44

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58
Q

The apparatus parking brake should hold the vehicle in place on grades up to:

A. 20 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 30 percent
D. 35 percent

A

A. 20 percent

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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59
Q

Air brakes should be able to build sufficient pressure within how many seconds of starting?

A. 30
B. 45
C. 15
D. 60

A

D. 60

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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60
Q

Apparatus with air brakes are equipped with an air brake protection valve that prevents the air horns from being operated when the pressure in the reservoir drops below:

A. 80 psi.
B. 100 psi.
C. 150 psi.
D. 125psi.

A

A. 80 psi.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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61
Q

If you were testing the parking brake, the apparatus should come to a complete stop within about:

A. 10 feet.
B. 15 feet.
C. 20 feet.
D. 25 feet.

A

C. 20 feet.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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62
Q

Battery terminal corrosion may be cleaned with:

A. water.
B. soda pop.
C. soap and water.
D. baking soda and water.

A

D. baking soda and water.

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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63
Q

Which of the following is NOT performed during a daily inspection?

A. Make sure the pump can be engaged.
B. Make sure the fluid level in the priming oil tank is full.
C. Make sure the booster line and fire pump are completely drained of water.
D. Make sure you charge at least one cross-lay to assure pump prime.

A

D.
( IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3)
Also completed during a daily inspection:
- check underside and inside compartments for evidence of water or foam leaking
- Test roof and bumper turrets for full range of motion and proper orientation
- inspect water and foam tanks for proper fluid level
- Make sure all gauges and valves on the pump panel are in working order. Any gauges duplicated on the pump panel and dashboard should be checked to make sure they are in agreement

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64
Q

You should check and clean the intake strainers during a weekly inspection.
True or False

A

True

IFSTA Pumping/Driving Apparatus Chap.3

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65
Q

It is our policy to respond to reports of power lines down and other hazards involving energized electrical equipment(transformers, substations, electric vaults) for fire control and public safety; we must maintain this level of safety until relieved by who?

A

205.20 another fire company, police agency or utility company.

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66
Q

Electricity will travel any conductive path it can as it seeks a ground; a direct path would be:

A

205.20 A direct path to ground can occur when contact is made between something energized and a portion of your body such as your hand, arm, head, or other body part

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67
Q

Electricity will travel any conductive path it can as it seeks a ground; an indirect path would be:

A

205.20
An indirect path to ground occurs when you are holding something or touching an object that is in contact with something energized.

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68
Q

Touching a energized fence 200’ from the electrical source would be an example of what conductive path?

A. Direct path
B. Ground fault path
C. Gradient path
D. Indirect path

A

205.20

D. Indirect path

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69
Q

What is a clear indicator of “step potential”

A

205.20 This danger could be indicated by a tingling sensation in the feet and serve as a warning to back away from the area. Step potential is more severe when the ground is wet.

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70
Q

Operating around downed power lines can be hazardous; always assume lines are energized as they can be RESET manually or automatically by the power company. Another hazard is “reel memory”, what is it?

A

205.20 Power line tends to have “Reel Memory” and may curl back or roll on itself when down.

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71
Q

Use caution when spraying water on or around energized electrical equipment. Hose streams conduct current.Never spray directly into the power lines. What WOULD be acceptable:

A. Fog spray at the base of the pole.
B. Short bursts of water at the pole.
C. No water should be sprayed.
D. Class A foam onto the pole.

A

A. Fog spray at the base of the pole. 205.20

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72
Q

Never spray water onto electrical equipment until:

A

205.20 a utility rep has confirmed that the equipment is de-energized or “dead.”

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73
Q

What are the three classifications of electrical equipment?

A

Electrical equipment is classified as:
• Energized
• De-energized (cannot be 100% guaranteed)
• Dead (confirmed by utility representatives after grounding the lines(s).

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74
Q

Responding to power lines down on an occupied vehicle can be dangerous for occupants and responders; if the occupant is conscious, alert and able to appropriately follow commands what would be the most safe course of action for the occupant?

A. Jump clear of the vehicle without touching the vehicle and ground at the same time.
B. DO not touch the outside of their vehicle.
C. Remain in the vehicle.
D. Shuffle step away from the vehicle.

A

C. Remain in the vehicle 205.20

Down Power Lines and Vehicles
• Request utility company to respond.
• Do not touch vehicle
• Have occupants remain inside the vehicle
• Place apparatus a safe distance away from down lines.
• If occupants MUST leave the vehicle (fire or other threat to life) instruct them to open the door, not step-out! They should jump free of the vehicle without touching vehicle and ground at the same time; they should walk away from the vehicle with very small steps.

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75
Q

Making entry to a sub-station or transformer fire is dangerous; you should be aware of the explosion potential. What MUST occur prior to entry?

A

205.20 Do not make entry until the utility representative has verified that the above electrical equipment has been de-energized. The utility representative may have to make entry to uninvolved sections to safely de-energize the equipment.

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76
Q

Responses to energized electrical equipment is more hazardous here in the Southwest United States. True or False

A

TRUE
Poor soil resistance in the desert southwest may not provide enough of a ground to trip a circuit even when a conductor is laying on it.

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77
Q

The time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order; defines what?

A

201.01A

“IN TRANSIT TIME”

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78
Q

A forward staging position just outside the HAZARD ZONE; defines what?

A

201.01A

“ON-DECK”

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79
Q

What is defined as: a timely and efficient means of air replacement and re-hydration of companies while maintaining their sector assignment.

A

201.01A

RECYCLING

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80
Q

If conditions permit, a companies work cycle could be up to how many air cylinders?

A

201.01A

If conditions permit, a companies work cycle could be up to 2 to 3 air cylinders.

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81
Q

The Rehab Sector may be located quite a distance from the work area and this distance could cause the following problems. Except:

A. Command losing direct accountability of companies in transit to rehab
B. Companies getting lost en-route to Rehab Sector
C. Difficulty reassembling and reassigning crews in a timely manner from rehab

A

201.01A

B. Companies getting lost en-route to Rehab Sector

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82
Q

O-Deck crews will usually be utilized for the following assignments. Except:

A. RIC
B. Re-enforcement of a position in a sector
C. Crew relief
D. Recon

A

201.01A

D. Recon

  • Reinforce a position within an assigned sector
  • Crew relief within an assigned sector
  • Any other tactical position assigned by the IC
  • Rapid intervention crew
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83
Q

It is the responsibility of the company officer to monitor the tactical radio channel while In Transit. What must the company officer do when arriving at the assigned area?

A

201.01A
Upon arrival to the assignment area the company officer must provide a radio announcement to the IC (i.e.; “E-1 On Deck in North Sector”) OR report face to face with the Sector Officer that the company is intact and in the assigned area.

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84
Q

“In Transit” is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order. It often varies due to:

A. the fitness level of the crew.
B. the amount of equipment the company needs to assemble.
C. the arrangement of the scene

A

201.01A

B. the amount of equipment the company needs to assemble.

  • Distance between staging and the incident
  • Size of the incident perimeter
  • Amount of equipment the company needs to assemble
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85
Q

Responding to a fire in a building with a bow strung roof, what will dictate whether we operate inside or on top of that structure?

A

202.06

No fire fighter shall operate on a bow string roof if there is any evidence that the fire has penetrated the attic or involves the truss area.

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86
Q

Per Phoenix Volume 2, do we operate on residential tile roofs?

A

202.06
No fire fighter shall operate on the roof of a residential structure fire covered with tile shingles. It is unsafe to operate on these roofs under fire conditions.

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87
Q

Adequate size ventilation holes must be cut and opened if ventilation is to be successful. What is the “rule of thumb” when it comes to vent hole size?

A

202.06

Ventilation hole(s) of at least 10% of roof surface of the involved area is a rule of thumb to consider.

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88
Q

At what pump pressure is a centrifugal fire pump rated to produce 70% of its rated capacity?

A

200PSI

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89
Q

What is the fire service formula to calculate the volume of a cylinder?

A

.7854 x Diameter squared x height

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90
Q

There are ____________ cubic inches in one cubic foot.

A

1728

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91
Q

How many gallons are in a cubic foot of water?

A

7.5

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92
Q

What is the pump pressure when supplying water to a sprinkler system?

A

150psi

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93
Q

What is the formula to figure the surface area of a right triangle?

A

(Base x height) Divided by two

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94
Q

What is the weight of one cubic foot of water?

A

62.5 pounds

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95
Q

What is the nozzle pressure for a 1000 GPM fog nozzle on a master appliance?

A

100psi

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96
Q

How many cubic inches in a gallon of water?

A

231 cubic inches

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97
Q

The counterforce applied to the firefighter from a nozzle is called?

A

Nozzle reaction

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98
Q

GPM of a 60 PSI HR nozzle

A

200 GPM

99
Q

Nozzle Diameter of 800 GPM Master

Solid Stream

A

1 3/4”

100
Q

GPM of a 1 1/2” Master Solid Stream

A

600 GPM

101
Q

GPM of a 1” Handline Solid Stream

A

200 GPM

102
Q

Coefficient of 1 1/2” Fire Hose

A

24

103
Q

.2 Coefficient is for what size fire hose

A

4”

104
Q

Where should the apparatus be positioned with nothing showing?

A

Near the main entrance

IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5

105
Q

Per IFSTA what size is the collapse zone?

A

One and a half times the height of the building

IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5

106
Q

What type of jurisdiction installs “dry hydrants” at drafting sites?

A

Rural Jurisdictions

IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5

107
Q

What is the preferred type of hose for connection to a fire hydrant?

A

(IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5)

Large diameter intake hose

108
Q

What is one disadvantage of connecting to the 2 1/2” outlet on a hydrant?

A

(IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5)

It will limit the amount of water supplied

109
Q

What is the difference between dual pumping and tandem pumping?

A

(IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5)

In tandem pumping the apparatus are positioned closely together

110
Q

To reduce the risk to engine crews as much as possible at a wildland fire, their attack should always begin from an:

A

(IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5)

ANCHOR POINT

111
Q

Per IFSTA what is the function of a “rescue/squad” apparatus?

A

(IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5)

To provide extra manpower on the fire scene

112
Q

What are engine-driven appliances that take in atmospheric air, purify it, and compress it?

A

BREATHING AIR COMPRESSERS

IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5

113
Q

Per IFSTA, staged companies should be ready to respond in how many minutes?

A

THREE MINUTES

IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5

114
Q

On highway operations, the apparatus should be positioned on an angle so the operator is protected from traffic by the:

A

TAILBOARD

IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5

115
Q

Turning the wheels at a 45 degree-angle makes it easier to reposition the apparatus when positioning for hydrant operations. TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5

116
Q

Per IFSTA incidents that require mutual aid need level 2 staging. TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

IFSTA Pumping and Driving Ch.5

117
Q

On a fire use of excessive water, leaking couplings or nozzles may:

A
  1. Increase property loss inside the structure 2. Hinder fire investigations.
    (M.P.202.12E)
118
Q

Exceptions to laying your own supply line when there is evidence of a working fire include:

A

• Obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew
• Unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex
• Hydrant within fifty feet of the fire
(M.P.202.12E)

119
Q

When should a second supply line be considered?

A. Large volume of fire
B. Commercial buildings
C. Nothing showing
D. Any working incident

A

D. Any working incident

A second supply line should be considered on any working incident. Considerations include alternate side of the fire, commercial buildings, large volume of fire, etc.
(M.P.202.12E)

120
Q

While laying supply line, faster speeds result in excess hose on the roadway. Slower speeds provide what advantages?

A

• Reduces the risk of striking pedestrians or vehicles or firefighters
• Provides time for the Company Officer to size-up and evaluate critical fire ground factors.
• Provides time for the Engineer to appropriately spot the apparatus.
(M.P.202.12E)

121
Q

What is a “key” pumper

A

Staged at the hydrant of the forward pumper in the attack team

122
Q

Staging key pumpers on hydrants enhances fire ground safety in several ways:

A

• Ensures an uninterrupted water supply
• Provides volume when needed
• Ability to pump water through the forward pumper in the event of mechanical failure
(M.P.202.12E)

123
Q

.4 inch hose is limited to about 800 GPM at ____ feet in length before it must be pumped by another engine at the hydrant.

A

500 feet

A non-pumped 500 foot 4” supply line can flow 800 GPM
M.P.202.12E

124
Q

True or false, whenever pumping an elevated master stream you must have a key pumper in place.

A

TRUE
Whenever a water supply is established to operate a ladder pipe two supply lines MUST be laid between the key pump at the hydrant and the forward pump at the ladder.
(M.P.202.12E)

125
Q

5” hose can typically supply ____ GPM _____ feet away without being pumped.

A

1000 GPM 1000 feet away

M.P.202.12E

126
Q

When pumped by a key pumper, 5” hose can deliver ____-____ GPM.

A

A single 5 inch hose can deliver
1800 – 1900 GPM
(M.P.202.12E)

127
Q

What is the objective when determining attack hoseline choice?

A
  1. Provide enough GPM flow to overcome the volume of fire being produced,
  2. Have adequate flow to effectively cool and protect exposures.

(M.P.202.12E)

128
Q

In basic attack hose line placement the first line should always be placed:

A

The first stream should be placed between the fire and persons endangered by it.
(M.P.202.12E)

129
Q

Increased heat absorption/expansion would be indicative of what type of fire stream?

A

Peripheral Stream:
1. Increased heat absorption/expansion.
2. Shorter reach. (Most effective in confined spaces and protecting exposures)
(M.P.202.12E)

130
Q

What fire stream would cause LESS steam conversion?

A

Solid Stream:

  1. Greater penetration, reach and striking power.
  2. Less steam conversion.

(M.P.202.12E)

131
Q

Characteristics of 2” lines include reasonable speed, mobility and variable volume depending on pump pressure and nozzle with maximum GPM of:

A

up to 350 GPM.

M.P.202.12E

132
Q

1 3/4” lines provide a maximum GPM of:

A

175GPM
1 3/4” Fast, mobile, greater volume, 175 GPM
(M.P.202.12E)

133
Q

When operating in basement fires fog streams should be used, the increase in steam conversion will extinguish the fire faster than other methods. True or False

A

FALSE
—crews should not use fog streams when operating in basement fires. Steam production will be extensive, straight streams should be used. (M.P.202.12E)

134
Q

True or False. When there is a change in strategy from Offensive to Defensive, 1 3/4” hand lines should be shut down and pump operators should close the discharges to those lines.

A 
TRUE
Smaller (1 ¾”) hand lines should be shut down after changing to a defensive operation. Pump operators should close the discharges to these lines (M.P.202.12E)
135
Q

What is the field calculation of nozzle reaction for a solid stream?

A

Hand line: NR= 80xDiameter squared

Master line: NR= 125xDiameter Squared

136
Q

What would the nozzle reaction field formula for master 1 3/4” solid stream look like?
A. NR=80x .8 squared
B. NR= 125 x (1.75x1.75) =

A

B.
NR= 125 x (1.75x1.75) =
NR= 125 x 3.06 =
NR= 382 pounds

137
Q

What would the nozzle reaction field formula look like for a 1 3/4” H/R fog?

A 
NR= .5 x GPM
NR= .5 x 125
NR= 1/2 of 125= 62.5 pounds
138
Q

What would the nozzle reaction field formula look like for a 2 1/2” fog?

A 
NR= .5 x GPM
NR= (.5 or 1/2) x 250
NR= 125 pounds
139
Q

Extrication sector will assist triage with any patient treatment that is necessary ____ to disentanglement.

A

PRIOR

M.P. 203.03

140
Q

Extrication Sector has all of the following responsibilities except:

A. Determine the number and condition of patients.
B. Assign and supervise extrication teams.
C. Extricate and deliver patients to the treatment areas.
D. Assist treatment sector by performing BLS treatment.

A

D. Assist treatment sector by performing BLS treatment
(M.P. 203.03)

OTHER RESPONSIBILITIES:

  • Determine if treatment will be performed “in-place” or at the entrance to the treatment area.
  • Determine resources.
  • Provide frequent progress reports to command.
  • Ensure safety and accountability of all pts and assigned personnel.
  • Notify command when all pts removed and companies are ready for reassignment.
141
Q

Extrication Sector Officer shall wear a sector vest. True or False

A

TRUE

M.P. 203.03

142
Q

The first priority for removal to the treatment area will be ________ patients followed by ______ patients.

A. IMMEDIATE, MINOR
B. MINOR, DELAYED
C. ambulatory, incapacitated
D. IMMEDIATE, DELAYED

A

D. IMMEDIATE, DELAYED

M.P. 203.03

143
Q

An evaluation of the of the number of patients involved and the complexity of extrication requirements is an immediate priority. A reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per( )victims.

A

( 5 )

M.P. 203.03

144
Q

Extrication sector may decide to move ambulatory patients to an “Assembly Area”.
What will be used to identify this area?

A. Yellow fire line tape.
B. Green salvage cover.
C. Red fire line tape.
D. Purple salvage cover.

A

B. Green salvage cover.

M.P. 203.03

145
Q

In disciplinary procedures, what generally is the first course of action?

A

Counseling

General Orders 102.08

146
Q

All of the following forms must be attained through Melissa Carerro in Personnel except:

A. Memo of correction
B. Verbal counseling form
C. Written reprimand
D. Memo of expectations

A

B. Verbal counseling form is found on the Fire intranet page- forms file

(General Orders 102.08)

147
Q

Which Sector has the intenttoprevent the risk ofinjurythatmayresultfromextended
fieldoperationsunderadverseconditions.

A

RehabilitationSector

M.P 202.08

148
Q

TheRehabilitationSector,radiodesignation
REHAB,provideaspecificareawhere
personnelwillassembletohave:

A
  1. Assessmentofvitalsigns
    2.Revitalization‐rest,hydration,
    refreshments,andtemperatureregulation
    3.Medicalevaluationandtreatmentof
    injuries,ifneeded
    4.Transportationforthoserequiring
    treatmentat medicalfacilities
  2. Reassignmentasneeded
    (M.P 202.08)
149
Q

Members assigned to Rehab do not report back to their previously assigned sector. If FF Travis was finished in Rehab and wanted an assignment, what must occur?

A. Nothing, Travis would just report back to his Captain.
B. Travis would need clearance from rehab and be assigned by command.
C. Any FF or Crew in rehab must be cleared by rehab before resuming work on the fireground.

A

B.
Members assigned to Rehab do not report back to their previously assigned sector.
To be reassigned to another sector, they must be assigned by Command after being cleared by Rehab
(M.P 202.08)

150
Q

A Rehab truck will be automatically dispatched on the following assignments
Except:

A. All second alarm incidents
B. Whenever Command requests it
C. Heat Stress advisory days
D. All first alarm assignments

A

B. Would not be automatic then
(M.P 202.08)
ARehabtruckwillbedispatchedonallFirstAlarm
andgreaterincidents,orwhenheatstressadvisoryisin effect

151
Q

A Rehab Sector will have only __ entry point

A

one
(M.P 202.08)

152
Q

Rehab Sector will have one entry point and be divided into four functions. Which of the following is not one of these functions?

A. Vital signs and assessment standards for REHAB.
B. Medical treatment and transport.
C. Documentation.
D. Assessment.

A 
A. Vital signs and assessment standards for REHAB.( part of med tx. and transport)
(M.P 202.08)
Four Functions:
1.  Assessment
2. Hydration and nourishment
3. Medical treatment and transport
4. Documentation
5. Reassignment
153
Q

Function A. Assessment is the first step in rehab, designed to ID those members needing further attention. Any member with a pulse rate greater then___ beats will be recorded and reassessed in___ minutes if the rate is still above ___ beats, or has signs and symptoms of dehydration the member will receive ____ interventions.

A

120 beats/min, 20 minutes, 120 beats, ALS

M.P 202.08

154
Q

To be reassigned from rehab members must NOT have the following, except:

A. Heart rate above 100
B. Diastolic BP below 100
C. Any complaints
D. Any neurological findings.

A

B. Diastolic BP below 100 ( you want diastolic below 100 )
(M.P 202.08)
Tobereassigned–Membersmusthave: -Aheartratebelow100bpmwith
noirregularbeats
-SystolicBPbelow160 -DiastolicBPbelow100 -Respiratoryratebetween12‐20perminute -Noabnormalneurologicalfindings.
-Nocomplaints

155
Q

If Jimmy is in rehab, and after 20 minutes of rest, his heart rate is 105 beats what does Jimmy get?

A. Enema
B. more rest
C. 12 lead EKG
D. ALS and transport

A 
C. 12 lead EKG
(M.P 202.08)
Responderswithapersistentheartrate
over100BPMafter20minutesof
restshallreceivea12leadEKG,
ALSevaluationand treatmentasneeded
156
Q

True or False. Company officers must keep crews intact and deliver passports upon entry to Rehab?

A

TRUE

M.P 202.08

157
Q

True or False. All members reporting to rehab will have some sort of documentation completed on them?

A

FALSE
(M.P 202.08)
Anymemberrequiringfurtherevaluation beyond20minwillbedocumentedonan
EMSpatientcarereport.

158
Q

Per C.O.G employee development, all employees are eligible for participation in training opportunities upon:

A

Supervisor approval

HR Policy 502

159
Q

Prohibited harassment includes all of the following except:

A. Retaliation
B. Intimidationorpersistentabuse
C. Filing a false complaint
D. Creating a amicable workplace environment.

A

D. Creating a amicable workplace environment

HR Policy 503

160
Q

Eachmanagerandsupervisortowhoman
actofprohibitedharassmenthas beenreportedorwhobecomesawareof
actsofprohibitedharassment shallreportittothe:

A

Human resources director

HR Policy 503

161
Q

______ ____ or designeesareresponsible
forinitiatingandcompletinginvestigationsof
complaintsunderthedirectionofthe
Human ResourcesDirector.

A

Department heads

HR Policy 503

162
Q

Anemployeewhobelievesheorshehas
beenharassedinviolation oftheCity’spolicyandprocedureis
encouragedtofileacomplaint. Who can an employee report such harassment to:

A 
• Immediatesupervisor 
• Anymanagerorsupervisorwithinor
   outsidethe department 
• Departmenthead 
• TheHumanResourcesDirector 
• TheCityManager’s“Hotline” 
(HR Policy 503)
163
Q

During the course of a harassment
complaint represented, employees have a right to have a representative present it is generally advised to have an attorney as that representative. True or False?

A

FALSE
(HR Policy 503)
therepresentativeshallbefromtheCity
andshall notbean attorney

164
Q

After any harassment investigation is complete, who will offer advise on the appropriate action to be taken?

A 
Thedepartmentheadshallsubmita
reportofthefindingsofthe               investigationtotheHuman
ResourcesDirectorwhowill
offeradvice onappropriateaction.
(HR Policy 503)
165
Q

Bombthreatscanbereceivedinanumber

ofways, what three ways does C.O.G recognize?

A
  1. Phone
  2. Message
  3. Third person
    (HR Policy 503)
166
Q

Upon receiving a bomb threat, as a supervisor you should evacuate the building where the threat was received.
True or False?

A

FALSE
(HR Policy 503)
Uponreceivingathreat, theGlendalePolice
Departmentwilldeterminewhetheran
evacuation isnecessary dependingontheseriousnessofthe threat.

167
Q

Ifanemployeereceivesasuspicious
packageorletter,he/sheshould handleitaslittleaspossibleandcontact theGlendalePoliceDepartment andhis/hersupervisor.Some things to look for are:

A

-marked“personal”or“private”
-inaccuratemailinginformation
-noreturnaddress
-titlesbutnonames
-discoloredstainsonthepackagematerial
-excessivepostage
-packagesmaybeirregularlyshapedwithsoftspotsor bulges.
(HR Policy 503)

168
Q

Using your position or title of Firefighter to form contacts and solicit discounted services for Glendale Charities could be interpreted as a violation of employee conduct. True or False

A

FALSE
(HR Policy 504)
Employees should maintain the utmost standards of personal integrity, truthfulness, honesty and fairness in carrying out their public duties, avoid any improprieties in their roles as public employees, and never use their City position or power for improper PERSONAL gain

169
Q

Heavy Rescue / Squad will be assigned to all 3-1 assignments within __ miles of the apparatus

A

5 (G.O.104.06)

170
Q

How many Heavy Rescue/Squad units are deployed throughout the Valley?

A 
Tempe-1         (8) total
Chandler-1  
Glendale-1  
Mesa-2
Phoenix-3
(G.O.104.06)
171
Q

The following training is required prior to being assigned to a Heavy Rescue/Squad Unit.

A. 80 hour Haz-Mat, 80 hour TRT
B. 200 hour Haz-Mat, 200 hour TRT
C. Meet with Capt. Shaver and Thompson
D. (16) 4hr Training sessions of HAZ and TRT until formal training is offered

A

The following training requirements will be met by all members assigned to a Heavy Rescue/Squad:
-Hazardous Material Tech-200hr
-Technical Rescue Tech-200hr
(G.O.104.06)

172
Q

Heavy Rescues are outfitted with firefighting equipment most similar to:

A

Ladder Tender

G.O.104.06

173
Q

True or False. A 2nd alarm assignment will have two Heavy Rescues dispatched or on-scene.

A

FALSE
(G.O.104.06)
One Heavy Rescue /Squad will be assigned to all working 1st Alarm assignments. All greater alarms will receive two ADDITIONAL Heavy Rescues.

174
Q

During Hose Testing the length shall not exceed ___ feet.

A

300 feet
(G.O 105.05)
Length of hose to be tested will not exceed 300 feet per discharge outlet

175
Q

To avoid pump damage during hose testing you should:

A. Avoid hose testing.
B. Gate all discharge lines down until they are “just cracked open”.
C. Fully open the pump cooler valve located on the pump panel.
D. Flow water through a non-dedicated discharge drain valve.

A

D. Flow water through a non-dedicated discharge drain valve. (G.O 105.05)
IMPORTANT: To avoid pump damage…flow water through a slightly opened red line nozzle, or a non-dedicated discharge drain valve, in order to keep the water temperature cool.

176
Q

During hose testing the pump pressure should be ___ PSI for all hose except 4” rubber, and shall be maintained at said pressure for ___ minutes.

A

300 PSI, 5 minutes
(G.O 105.05)
(4” Rubber hose 200 PSI)

177
Q

After completing hose testing you should:

A. Tell the booter to send an email to the hose testing manager, Randy Hanson.
B. Note the section numbers and input into FH.
C. Record the section numbers, E-mail Randy Hanson and CC your immediate supervisor.

A

B. (G.O 105.05)

When completed, all tested hose will have their section numbers recorded in Fire House Records.

178
Q

During hose testing, if any hose is found to be damaged, the hose section needs to be tagged, the tag must list the ______ and ______.

A

problem and location
(G.O 105.05)
Example: “Torn jacket 5 feet from female coupling.”

179
Q

Send the damaged hose to ___________ for repair and/or replacement.

A

Send the damaged hose to Support Services for repair and/or replacement.
(G.O 105.05)

180
Q

True or False. While hose testing you should connect the hose to a discharge located near the pump panel.

A

FALSE (G.O 105.05)
Connect hose to be tested to the discharge outlets on the opposite side of the Engineer’s pump panel, or to the rear of the truck.

181
Q

What does (HIPAA) stand for:

A

Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act
(G.O.107.02)

182
Q

If the Glendale Fire PIO is unavailable, who is responsible for communicating with the media?

A

If the Glendale Fire PIO is unavailable it is the responsibility of the highest ranking officer on scene, or his/her designee, to communicate with the media at the scene
(G.O.107.02)

183
Q

If the on-duty PIO is not on scene and is not responding to the incident, who has the authority to call them out?

A

he/she can be called out at the discretion of the Incident Commander (IC). Or the IC or designee can contact Phx. Alarm to have them respond.
(G.O.107.02)

184
Q

If the PIO is not on-scene and comments are made to the media, what shall the highest ranking officer on-scene than do:

A. Contact the WDC and provide what info was shared and to which news outlets
B. Nothing, everyone will see it later anyway
C. A follow-up phone call or email to the PIO
D. A call to your mom telling her to watch the news because now “ I’m a star”

A

C.
(G.O.107.02)
Once comments are made to the media by the highest ranking officer or designee, a follow-up phone call or email will be given to the primary PIO or the PIO’s supervisor to alert them of detailed the information shared with the media.

185
Q

It is the responsibility of the primary PIO to coordinate what training annually?

A

The Primary PIO will coordinate media training for captains and chiefs at a minimum of once per year
(G.O.107.02)

186
Q

What is the objective of Treatment Sector?

A

Rapidly treat and transport all patients

M.P 203.04

187
Q

If treatment will occur “in place,” companies should be directed by the Treatment Sector officer to specific patient or vehicle. The goal will be:

A. transport all patients to a trauma center.
B. assign one BLS company and one rescue to each patient.
C. assign one ALS company to each patient.
D. remove patients from vehicles as quickly as possible.

A

B. assign one BLS company and one rescue to each patient.
(M.P 203.04)
The goal will be to assign one ALS or BLS company and one Rescue to each patient, resources permitting.

188
Q

Immediate patients can easily be spotted with night-reflective IMMEDIATE labels placed on or near their bodies by:

A. treatment sector.
B. the first company on-scene.
C. the patient.
D. triage teams.

A

D. triage teams.
(M.P 203.04)
These patients can easily be spotted with night-reflective IMMEDIATE labels placed on or near their bodies by the triage team(s).

189
Q

When assessing an adequate location for a treatment area, what is a consideration.

A. Think big!
B. Allows easy access for companies.
C. Should designate “IMMEDIATE” and “MINOR” treatment areas.
D. Location of hospitals.

A

A. Think big
(M.P 203.04)
-The treatment area should be large enough to absorb all patients and the large numbers of treatment personnel-THINK BIG!
-allow for easy access by rescues or ambulances
-Treatment should designate separate “IMMEDIATE” and “DELAYED” treatment areas

190
Q

Members can minimize their risks when responding and operating at violent incident by doing all of the following. Except:

A. Follow SOP’s
B. Make decisions based on previous experience.
C. Size-up based off information gathered.
D. Using information available utilize a standard risk management decision.

A

B. Make decisions based on previous experience.
(M.P 206.01, 02/10-R)
-Making a size-up based on the information available.
-Make a standard risk management decision based on information gathered.
-Identify the appropriate deployment of resources based on the risk assessment.
-Follow Dept. Standard Operating Procedures/Guidelines.
-Continually assess the situation to determine if your deployment model is appropriate for the conditions.

191
Q

Operations at violent incidents pose risk to responders, all of the following are situations where staging in-quarters is appropriate. Except:

A. close proximity to responding company.
B. C958 is not on-scene.
C. no secure perimeter.
D. reports that suspects are not in custody.

A 
A. close proximity to responding company.
(M.P 206.01, 02/10-R)
Also considered:
- little or no information is available
- proximity to station
192
Q

True or False. You should have your crew conduct a 360 during the size-up of operations at violent incidents?

A

TRUE
(M.P 206.01, 02/10-R)
During size-up:
slow down when approaching the scene and conduct a 360 degree scan by all crew members for immediate threats

193
Q

Arriving on-scene of a violent incident and talking with a uniformed officer can be an example of what?

A. interagency cooperation
B. enhanced scene safety
C. size-up
D. Unified Command

A

D. Unified Command
(M.P 206.01, 02/10-R)
-initiate contact with law enforcement on the scene to establish a Unified Command if possible. This may be as simple as the first arriving Company Officer talking to a uniformed officer.

194
Q

C958 Captains function is to establish a liaison with law enforcement. The information gained through this liaison includes:

A. safe staging locations.
B. police agency tactical plans.
C. safe routes into the scene.
D. law enforcement needs from the fire department.

A

A. safe staging locations.
(M.P 206.01, 02/10-R)
Other information includes:
- routes into and out of the area and a safe extrication/treatment areas within the hazard area
- information about injuries to officers, bystanders, or suspects

195
Q

While operating at a violent incident, sending a firefighter to retrieve gear from the apparatus while the rest of the crew attends to a critically injured police officer can be considered:

A. appropriately using the risk management assessment.
B. working within our general orders.
C. not following SOP’s.
D. following SOP’s

A

C. not following SOP’s.
(M.P 206.01, 02/10-R)
Operating on-scene:
-All fire department units will remain intact and under the direct supervision of a Company Officer.

196
Q

If transporting a patient under arrest they should be:

A. sedated to reduce danger to fire department personnel.
B. restrained to the gurney in the prone position with two sets of restraints.
C. seated upright on gurney, both wrists behind the back handcuffed.
D. seated upright on the gurney with both wrists restrained together in front.

A

C. seated upright on gurney, both wrists behind the back handcuffed.
(M.P 206.01, 02/10-R)
- at NO time should the patient be transported with both wrists restrained in the front. In this position the patient may be able to escape and could assault First Responders.

197
Q

Level 1 staging is automatically in effect for all incidents with:

A

3 or more responding companies

M.P 205.06

198
Q

Effective utilization of staging procedure will:

A. prevent units “skipping” other units to be first.
B. assures units will be assigned in order.
C. reduce radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident.
D. allow excessive apparatus congestion at the scene.

A

C. reduce radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident.
(M.P 205.06)
Effective utilization of these procedures will:
Prevent excessive apparatus congestion at the scene.
• Allow time for Command to evaluate conditions prior to assigning companies.
• Place apparatus in an uncommitted location close to the immediate scene to facilitate more effective assignment by Command.
• Reduces radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident.
• Allow Command to formulate and implement a plan without undue confusion and pressure.
• Provides a resource pool from which Command may assign units and resources at his/her leisure.

199
Q

After re-stocking EMS supplies from the station supply you should:

A. do nothing, resource will re-stock the station.
B. call SWA supervisor to restock.
C. get what you used from a different station.
D. re-stock from SWA on the next EMS call.

A

D. re-stock from SWA on the next EMS call.
(G.O 108.08)
Re-stock from the limited station supply of EMS disposables. The station supplies must be replaced from Southwest Ambulance at the next opportunity. (EMS call)

200
Q

Upon returning to quarters from a EMS call in Phoenix you should:

A. have re-stocked your supplies from a Phoenix Rescue.
B. re-stock from SWA on the next EMS call.
C. call for a Southwest Ambulance to respond to your station.
D. fill out a SWA re-stocking form.

A

C. call for a Southwest Ambulance to respond to your station.(FIRST)
(G.O 108.08)
Upon return from an EMS response into the City of Phoenix, call for a Southwest Ambulance unit to respond to your station. Fill out the Southwest Ambulance re-stocking form carried by that ambulance and replace EMS disposables used.

201
Q

True or False. SWA re-stocking forms must accompany the PCR to Fire Administration.

A

TRUE
(G.O 108.08)
Both copies of the completed re-stocking form must accompany the EMS charts when submitted to Glendale Fire administration. Do not separate copies of the re-stocking form.

202
Q

Station repairs needing immediate attention shall be reported:

A
  • by telephone, from the Station Captain to the Resource Management Support Supervisor
  • A follow-up email with the attached GFD RFS request shall also be sent
  • upon confirmation the station Captain will then forward the request to the Battalion Chiefs and the Captains assigned to that fire station
    (G.O 108.08)
203
Q

Station repairs not needing immediate attention should be requesting using the RFS system. True or False?

A

TRUE

G.O 108.08

204
Q

After hours emergency station repairs should be reported:

A. to the station Captain.
B. by the station Captain to the on-duty BC.
C. to Support Services C 716.
D. to the next on-coming crew.

A

B. by the station Captain to the on-duty BC.

G.O 108.08

205
Q

The Glendale Fire Department will provide youth firesetter intervention education to youth firesetters ages __-__.

A

(ages 3-17) and their families who reside in the City of Glendale, or any neighboring city, in order to decrease incidents of youth firesetting. (G.O 110.02)

206
Q

While on-scene a seven year old child confesses to starting a fire, what should you do?

A. Call an AZPOST certified Deputy Fire Marshal or Police Department
B. Call Dr. Janet Boberg.
C. Nothing
D. Tell the parents.

A

B. Call Dr. Janet Boberg.(Youth Firesetter intervention Program)(G.O 110.02)
If the child confesses to starting the fire and is age 8 or above, call an AZPOST (Arizona Peace Officer Standards and Training) certified Deputy Fire Marshal or Police Department Patrol Officer immediately.

207
Q

If a parent comes to the station to inquire about the Youth Firesetter Program you should:

A. take the youth on a tour of the station while your Captain speaks with the parent(s).
B. fill out a youth firesetter intake form.
C. send the family to the nearest Phoenix Station.
D. call Dr. Boberg for further instructions.

A

B. print out a youth firesetter intake form.
(G.O 110.02)
If the parent/guardian brings a child to a station for initial contact, the engine company crew will fill out the Youth Firesetter Intake Form on the Fire Department home page on the intranet.

208
Q

How long after receiving a youth firesetter intake form will the parent(s) or guardian be contacted?

A

within 48 hours

G.O 110.02

209
Q

The firefighters must ensure the equipment the apparatus carries is ready at all times. True or False?

A

False
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 1)
The Driver/Operator must ensure the apparatus and the equipment it carries are ready at all times.

210
Q

SAFTEY ALERT! Remember what the job is:

A

To safely transport people, tools and equipment to a destination.
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 1)

211
Q

Aerial Fire Apparatus come in three categories:

A
  • Aerial ladder apparatus
  • Elevating platform apparatus
  • Water towers
    (Aerial Apparatus Chap 3)
212
Q

Three TYPES of Elevating platform apparatus:

A
  • Telescoping aerial apparatus
  • Articulating aerial apparatus
  • Aerial ladder platforms
    (Aerial Apparatus Chap 3)
213
Q

The required minimum floor area of a platform is:

A

14 feet

Aerial Apparatus Chap 3

214
Q

A kick-plate is required at floor level on the platform and should be 4” high. The kick-plate does:

A

Prevents the firefighters feet from slipping off the platform in case of a slip or fall.
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 3)

215
Q

True or False. All elevating platforms are REQUIRED to have two operator control stations.

A

TRUE
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 3)
One at street level and one in the platform.

216
Q

A heat reflective shield is built-in under the platform to provide firefighters protection from radiated heat. The heat reflective shield can lose its ability to reflect heat through:

A

age, dirt and damage.

Aerial Apparatus Chap 3

217
Q

Platforms are required to have a minimum load capacity of ___ pounds when the aerial device is fully extended, at any elevation within its normal range of motion and no water in the piping system.

A

750

Aerial Apparatus Chap 3

218
Q

An additional added benefit of a articulating aerial platform is:

A

the ability to go “up and over” and into areas not accessible with straight line apparatus.
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 3)

219
Q

Keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness defines:

A

Maintenance

Aerial Apparatus Chap 4

220
Q

To restore or replace parts on components that have become inoperable defines:

A

Repair

Aerial Apparatus Chap 4

221
Q

True or False. Diesel fuel residue sticks to anything it touches, leaving a gummy sticky residue.

A

True
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 4)
Oil, moisture, dirt and grime should not be permitted to collect on the undercarriage or in the engine compartments. Diesel fuel residue is particularly problematic because it sticks to anything it touches, leaving a gummy, sticky residue.

222
Q

During a air brake test on apparatus, the low air warning light and buzzer should activate prior to:

A

reaching 60 psi.

Aerial Apparatus Chap 4

223
Q

During a air brake test on apparatus, with the parking brake released, the parking brake should “pop-out” automatically at:

A

20-40 psi.

Aerial Apparatus Chap 4

224
Q

Primary air pressure gauge needles are what color? And secondary needles are?

A

Primary: white or green
Secondary: red or yellow
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 4)

225
Q

Gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) is the maximum weight at which the apparatus can be safely operated on roadways. What is “curb” weight?

A

The weight of a empty apparatus off the assembly line with no tools, water, equipment or passengers.
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 4)

226
Q

Each department has their own SOP regarding minimum fuel permissible, a general rule of thumb is:

A

to keep the fuel tank at three-quarters full at all times.

Aerial Apparatus Chap 4

227
Q

When charging apparatus batteries, the driver/operator should always:

A

be wearing safety eye protection.

Aerial Apparatus Chap 4

228
Q

When charging apparatus batteries, the positive(+) red charger cable should be attached to the red battery terminal:

A

first and then attach the negative(-) black.

Aerial Apparatus Chap 4

229
Q

The operational inspection on aerial apparatus serves two purposes:

A

First: Ensures the aerial device is in proper working order.
Second: The inspection serves as a review of the aerial device operation for the driver/operator.
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 4)

230
Q

True or False. Rotating and extending the aerial device at the same time is an acceptable practice as long as the operator maintains smooth control while performing it.

A

FALSE
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 4)
It is not advisable to rotate the device AND extend the device at the same time. While the apparatus is capable of doing this, such actions overtax the hydraulic system and may cause damage.

231
Q

Apparatus testing should occur:

A

annually

Aerial Apparatus Chap 4

232
Q

When positioning aerial apparatus at multi story buildings, the aerial should be placed curb side closest to the building if:

A

the building is greater than 5 stories tall.
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 5)
If a building is more than 5 stories tall, the aerial apparatus should be positioned inside of the pumper closer to the building providing maximum reach; conversely if the building is less than 5 stories, the pumper takes the closest position and the aerial positions outside of it.

233
Q

The four main uses of aerial devices include:

A
  • rescue
  • access to upper levels
  • ventilation
  • fire suppression
    (Aerial Apparatus Chap 5)
234
Q

Aggressive attack upon a fire from the exterior with a large diameter fire stream defines:

A. Defensive attack
B. Offensive attack
C. Blitz attack
D. Gable attack

A

C. Blitz attack
(Aerial Apparatus Chap 5)
IFSTA defines defensive attack as: exterior attack with an emphasis on exposure protection.

235
Q

The driver/operator must consider what factors when determining the final positioning of aerial apparatus?

A
  • surface conditions
  • weather and wind
  • electrical hazards and ground or overhead obstructions
  • angle and location of aerial device operation
  • fire building conditions
    (Aerial Apparatus Chap 5)
236
Q

The primary spotting consideration associated with hot weather is:

A

extreme heat may tend to weaken asphalt surfaces.

Aerial Apparatus Chap 5

237
Q

The Glendale Fire Department shall respond to requests for Mutual Aid from outside fire agencies into unincorporated areas within the City of Glendale. The request for Mutual Aid shall involve:

A

emergency incidents deemed life threatening.

G.O 111.04

238
Q

A single Glendale Fire engine can be dispatched on mutual aid structure fires. True or False.

A

False
(G.O 111.04)
At no time shall a single Glendale Fire Unit be dispatched to unincorporated areas of the City for a reported structural fire

239
Q

If dispatched to a mutual aid EMS incident, the GFD company shall ______ __ ____ upon the arrival of an outside ALS unit.

A

transfer pt. care.
(G.O 111.04)
The Fire Department shall transfer patient care and disposition upon arrival of an ALS outside fire agency unit, and return to “available on radio” status.

240
Q

After a mutual aid response the Captain shall notify:

A

the shift responder.
(G.O 111.04)
Fire Department Company officers shall forward all necessary information to the shift responder, including a copy of the incident history report showing all Fire Department units responding.

241
Q

A painter comes to the front door of your station and advises you he is in possession of 1 gallon of acetone; what information do you need prior to accepting this waste:

A
  • is he a private citizen?
  • the hazardous waste was derived from the household and NOT FROM A BUSINESS
  • the materials are not recyclable, such as used oil, paint or batteries
    (G.O 111.07)
242
Q

When a citizen brings household hazardous waste to the station, the materials are not to be brought inside the building or the bay. Before the citizen leaves he(she) must:

A

complete and sign a form identifying the material and verifying that it is from a household.
(G.O 111.07)

243
Q

Stations receiving household hazardous waste shall immediately contact:

A
  • C1557
  • Special Operations Division Chief
  • Hazardous Incident Response Team
    (G.O 111.07)
244
Q

All requests of resources during a disaster unless previously agreed upon must go through:

A

the City of Glendale Emergency Operations Center.

Cecil's Questions (1 decks)

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