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CE 680 NJA Soveriegn initial > CE 680 FlightSafety PTM Sytem Questions > Flashcards

CE 680 FlightSafety PTM Sytem Questions Flashcards

1
Q

1 Aircraft General

The CE 680 is certified according to?

A

CFR Part 25

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2
Q

1 Aircraft General

The micro switch that signals the amber [NOSE DOOR OPEN L-R] CAS message is located where?

A

At the mechanical latches

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3
Q

1 Aircraft General

How can the emergency over-wing exit be opened?

A

Can be removed from inside or outside of the aircraft

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4
Q

1 Aircraft General

Which publication must be immediately available to the Flight Crew?

A

The FAA approved AFM

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5
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

What can be expected if the RED [BATTERY O’TEMP] CAS message is displayed and the affected battery button is placed in the “OFF” position with the generators online?

A

Battery is isolated, but all Main DC powered items operate normally.

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6
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

If the AMBER [REMOTE CB TRIPPED] CAS message is displayed what has happened?

A

A circuit breaker has tripped that is not readily accessible by the Crew.

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7
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

What is permissible if a generator current is greater than the maximum flight limitation?

A

Is permissible provided the AMBER [DC GEN O’CURRENT] CAS message is not displayed.

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8
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

Primary DC Electrical Power sources include?

A

Engine Generators, APU Generator, GPU

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9
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

With regard to the batteries during engine starts, when are they included?

A

In every engine start ( except windmilling )

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10
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

How does the Electrical Bus Tie operation function?

A

Automatically on the ground and must be manually closed in flight.

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11
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

Which engine must be started first?

A

Either Engine may be started first.

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12
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

In the event of the RED [DC GEN OFF L-R-APU] CAS message is displayed:

A

(NJA) Consult the - DC Gen Off QRH

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13
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

The APU generator power is supplied to?

A

Left Emergency Bus only when the left Engine Gen is offline or unavailable.

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14
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

The AMBER [BUS TIE CLOSED] CAS message is displayed when?

A

In flight if the BUS TIE button is selected closed for more than 5 minutes with both Engine Gens online.

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15
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

If the Bus Tie is manually selected closed in flight, when does it automatically open?

A

When an overcurrent condition of over 600A is detected.

*Bus Tie will be latched open until aircraft is powered down.

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16
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

What triggers a RED [BATTERY O’TEMP L-R]?

A

When a battery temp exceeds 63° C.

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17
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

Considering electrical bus tie operation, primary sources of power consist of?

A

Engine Gens, APU Gen, GPU

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18
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

How and when does the Electrical Bus Tie open and close?

A

Automatically on the Ground and Manually in Flight. One exception in Flight is an over current of 600A + in which the bus tie will open Automatically and latch open.

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19
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

What kind of system is the Main Aircraft Electrical System?

A

A split bus system with two DC Generators and two DC Batteries.

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20
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

What does the WHITE AVAIL light signify on GPU Power Switch?

A

That the GPU is plugged in, running and the proper voltage is “Available” on the GPU Bus

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21
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

During a Ground Battery Start of the first Engine, what is the minimum Battery Voltage required?

A

Must indicate 24V or higher.

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22
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

What position should the generator switches be in for engine start?

A

On for all starts.

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23
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

What takes place when placing the INTERIOR Button to OFF on the electrical panel?

A

Remove all electrical power to the cabin except for Cabin Emergency lighting.

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24
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

If the left engine generator is powering the Left EMER bus what happens to the APU generator?

A

The APU generator will not come online.

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25
Q

2 Electrical Power Systems

How are the batteries used during engine start?

A

Both batteries assist in every engine start. Except windmilling starts.

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26
Q

3 Lighting

When are the Cabin Entry lights available?

A

With the batteries installed and connected the Cabin Entry lights illuminate if selected ON.

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27
Q

3 Lighting

What powers the Cabin Entry light button?

A

Cabin Entry lights are powered by the Right Battery Bus and on a timer.

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28
Q

3 Lighting

Selecting the PAX SAFETY button illuminates the….?

A

No Smoking Light and Cabin Emergency Lights.

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29
Q

3 Lighting

With the emergency light switch armed what turns on the emergency lights?

A

Cabin emergency lighting illuminates automatically upon loss of Main DC Power, a 5G impact, or with PAX SAFETY button selected on.

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30
Q

3 Lighting

With batteries installed and connected, but no power has been turned on in the cockpit, the following items are powered:

A

Book answer…Tail Cone Service lights, and Baggage Compartment lights.

Full answer.. Battery Hot Bus. PLANET CB
Pylon work light
Lav service door light
APU service panel
NWS bleed button light
ELT panel
Tail cone bay light
Cabin entry light
Baggage light

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31
Q

4 Master Warning System

Which Modular Avionics Units (MAUs) process aircraft Crew Alerting System (CAS) messages?

A

MAUs 1 and 4

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32
Q

4 Master Warning System

What is the purpose of the left and right monitor warning system (MW1 or MW2)?

A

To process and display CAS messages.

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33
Q

4 Master Warning System

How does the loss of a single Monitor Warning System affect the Master Warning System?

A

A loss of redundancy occurs for the monitor warning.

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34
Q

4 Master Warning System

What causes the large red “X” across the CAS display in the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) window?

A

The loss of MAUs 1 and 4.

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35
Q

4 Master Warning System

What is the default position of the EICAS window?

A

The default position is DU2.

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36
Q

4 Master Warning System

How is the EICAS system powered?

A

It is selected with its own switch separately from the avionics buttons.

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37
Q

4 Master Warning System

Can EICAS messages be displayed elsewhere?

A

EICAS window can be selected to the DU3 position with the EICAS reversion button after the AVIONICS buttons are selected on.

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38
Q

4 Master Warning System

How are RED CAS messages displayed?

A

Flash inverse video RED until acknowledged (reset) and illuminate the Flashing MASTER WARNING buttons.

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39
Q

4 Master Warning System

How are Amber CAS messages displayed?

A

Flash inverse video Amber until acknowledged (reset) and illuminate a steady Amber MASTER CAUTION light.

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40
Q

4 Master Warning System

How are CYAN CASS messages displayed?

A

Flash inverse video cyan and automatically self acknowledge after five seconds.

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41
Q

4 Master Warning System

How is invalid data displayed on the EICAS?

A

*Are displayed as Amber dashes in the place of numbers
*Does not activate any CAS messages
*Can be the result of a sensor failure

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42
Q

4 Master Warning System

Can EICAS messages be scrolled?

A

Only Amber and Cyan CAS messages can be scrolled up and down on the CAS display.

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43
Q

4 Master Warning System

How does the Engine Shut Down Inhibit (ESDI) function?

A

*ESDI is activated when the Engine Throttle is placed in Cut Off.
*The Amber [Engine Shut Down L – R] CAS message illuminates during ESDI.
*During engine start, ESDI is deactivated at start completion.

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44
Q

4 Master Warning System

What is the purpose of the standby annunciators?

A

The standby annunciators are a back up to selected EICAS instrument indications.

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45
Q

4 Master Warning System

Can you takeoff with a DU in reversionary mode?

A

No, dispatch with a DU and reversionary mode is prohibited.

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46
Q

4 Master Warning System

What is the limitation when a Comparison Monitor Warning is displayed ?

A

Autopilot operation is prohibited if any Comparison Monitor Warning is active.

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47
Q

5 Fuel System

How does a fault in the fuel quality system make itself known to the pilots?

A

By amber dashes displayed in the respective tanks EICAS fuel quantity digits display (invalid data).

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48
Q

5 Fuel System

The CE – 680 maximum fuel capacity is:

A

10,800 using single point fueling.
11,200 over the wing fueling.

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49
Q

5 Fuel System

When is it required for the single point refueling pre-check procedure to be completed?

A

Must be completed prior to every single point refueling operation.

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50
Q

5 Fuel System

How does a Main DC power failure affect the fuel Crossfeed Valve?

A

The Fuel Crossfeed Valve fails in its current position, parks.

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51
Q

5 Fuel System

The left fuel tank has 200 pounds more fuel than the right tank. What are the correct cockpit indications during crossfeed from left tank to right engine?

A

Cyan [FUEL BOOST L] and Cyan [FUEL CROSS-FEED] CAS message are displayed.

*Amber [FUEL CROSS-FEED] denotes fuel being cross fed from the incorrect tank (low tank, wrong way)

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52
Q

5 Fuel System

What can be done when one pre-check lever is pulled out on the single point refueling panel.

A

The selected fuel tank can be de-fueled, but not refuel.

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53
Q

5 Fuel System

If the left engine experiences low fuel pressure:

A

Amber [FUEL BOOST PUMP ON L] CAS message is displayed and the boost pump is auto on.

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54
Q

5 Fuel System

Fuel crossfeed from left tank to right engine may not occur if the:

A

Amber [FUEL MOTIVE FLOW VLV FAIL R] CAS message is displayed.

*Denotes associated Motive Flow Valve has failed to close and stop the engine feed jet pump.

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55
Q

5 Fuel System

With the fuel boost pump buttons in a NORM position, when will the boost pump run?

A

Fuel boost pump automatically activates for Engine Start, Fuel Crossfeed, and Low Fuel Pressure.

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56
Q

6 APU

What happens when the Red [APU FIRE} illuminates?

A

APU automatically shuts down and after eight seconds the BAG/APU fire bottle discharges.

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57
Q

6 APU

What does APU provide?

A

DC Electrical Power and Bleed Air?

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58
Q

6 APU

What happens when an APU fire detection system has failed?

A

Amber [APU FIRE DETECT FAIL] CAS message is displayed in the APU automatically shuts down.

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59
Q

6 APU

What happens if the shared BAG/APU fire bottle becomes low?

A

The APU shuts down.

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60
Q

7 Powerplant

The normal way to check the engine oil is?

A

Check for the Amber [OIL LEVEL LOW L-R] CAS message.

61
Q

7 Powerplant

The PW 306 sea engines on the Sovereign are rated to?

A

Rated at 5770 pounds thrust at sea level up to 30° C.

62
Q

7 Powerplant

The Amber [GROUND IDLE] CAS message illuminates when?

A

When the FADEC remains in ground idle mode while the aircraft is airborne.

63
Q

7 Powerplant

The N1 target indicator (bugs) turn amber when?

A

When the monitoring FADEC channel is unable to set the N1 bug and it is subsequently posted by the controlling FADEC channel.

64
Q

7 Powerplant

How is Engine Sync indicated when it is active?

A

It is displayed as a green SYNC annunciation above the EICAS N1 tapes when the engines are synchronized.

65
Q

7 Powerplant

What makes up the FADEC system?

A

The FADEC consist of two EEC’s (A and B channel) and an Engine Diagnostic Unit (EDU).

66
Q

7 Powerplant

What happens with the ignition switch is in a NORM position.

A

With the ignition switch in the norm position, Ignition is applied as required by the FADEC.

67
Q

7 Powerplant

What does pressing the event marker button accomplish?

A

Records 5 minutes of the Engine Parameters in the EDU for later inspection. Four minutes prior to the button one minute after.

68
Q

8 Fire Protection

What happens when the Smoke Detector detects smoke in the baggage compartment?

A

The BAG FIRE light illuminates and the Baggage Heat Shutoff Valve automatically closes.

69
Q

8 Fire Protection

What areas are monitored by the Fire Detection System?

A

Engines (Fire), APU (Fire), Baggage Compartment (Smoke).

70
Q

8 Fire Protection

During flight with respect to the fuel system, what occurs when the LH ENG FIRE PUSH button is pressed?

A

The Cyan [FUEL F/W SHUTOFF] CAS message illuminates after the valve closes.

71
Q

8 Fire Protection

What happens if the Red BAG FIRE button is pushed?

A

Immediate Discharge of the BAG/APU fire bottle located in the Tail Cone (HDR) and a Metered Discharge of the Baggage Fire Bottle (MDR) located in nose compartment into the baggage compartment.

*The APU also shuts down if running due to loss of Fire Portection.

72
Q

9 Pneumatics

What does the Pressure Source Selector on the Bleed Air panel control?

A

Bleed Air from the Engines for Environmental and Pressurization applications only.

73
Q

9 Pneumatics

What does the NORM selection on the L/R Bleed Air Selectors do?

A

Selects LP or HP pressure according to Normal Logic.

74
Q

9 Pneumatics

What happens when the Bleed Air Leak Detection Systems detects and over temperature situation?

A

Specific Bleed Air Valve close to isolate the Zone where the condition was detected.

75
Q

9 Pneumatics

What does the Left Bleed Air Selector control?

A

It controls engine bleed air entering the Left Pylon Pre-cooler.

76
Q

9 Pneumatics

When is Baggage Heat available?

A

It is available airborne only with the left engine bleed operating.

77
Q

9 Pneumatics

With the Baggage Heat button in the NORM position and after landing the aircraft, what happens to the baggage heat valve?

A

It Closes

78
Q

9 Pneumatics

What happens with an ACM BLEED LEAK.

A

Emergency Pressurization Bleed Air activates automatically.

79
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

What powers the windshield heat.

A

Two Engine Driven Alternators.

80
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

The Electrically Powered Anti-Ice systems on the Sovereign include?

A

RAT Heat, Windshields, Pitot/Static Heat, AOA Heat.

81
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

Which Anti Ice Systems use Bleed Air?

A

Engine Spinner (Always heated), Engine Inlet and Stators, Wing Leading Edges, Horizontal Stab Leading Edges.

82
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

What happens with a Main DC power failure with respect to the Pneumatic Anti Ice System

A

Bleed Air for Anti-Icing is still on but bleed air temperature monitoring is off.

83
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

The Amber [WING ANTI-ICE O’TEMP L] CAS message means?

A

Left wing anti-ice is too hot and the shut off valve has closed.

84
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

The Cyan [ENG ANTI-ICE COLD] CAS message indicates?

A

That after the anti-ice system Is selected on it is inhibited for two. Five minutes on the ground and 2.5 minutes in flight.

85
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

How are the RAT anti-ice heaters powered?

A

They are electrically heated when the ENG/STAB anti-ice buttons are on.

86
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

Windshield rain removal is provided by?

A

W/S fan on the ground or in-flight and a rain repellent coating during flight.

87
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

The amber [RAT HEAT FAIL] CAS message indicates?

A

The ENGINE/STAB ant-ice buttons are ON and the engines RAT probes are not receiving electrical current.

88
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

The windshield anti-system contains the following components:

A

AC alternators, DC controllers, heating elements in the front and side windows, and temperature sensors.

89
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

The Cyan [INBD WING A/I COLD L-R] CAS message on the ground indicates that?

A

ENGINE/STAB anti-ice was selected ON and the Wing LE Surface has not reached it’s minimum operating temperature.

90
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

Ice detection is provided by?

A

Two Red ice detention lights pointed at the underside of the windshield and two wing inspection lights.

91
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

What happens when ant-ice over temperatures are detected?

A

Anti-ice over temperature sensors automatically shut off bleed air to the affected area.

92
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

What happens when selecting the WING/STAB XFLOW button to XFLOW?

A

The CYAN [WING A/I CROSSFLOW OPEN] CAS message is displayed when the valve opens.

93
Q

10 Ice and Rain Protection

What is heated when the ENG/STAB ANTI-ICE is selected ON?

A

Bleed Air is supplied to the Nacelle, Stator Vanes and INBD Wing Leading Edge, and Electrical Heat is sent to the RAT probes.

The Nose Cone is heated anytime the engine is operating and so is the Engine Spinner.

94
Q

5 Fuel

What is the meaning of the Reverse Highlighted Amber Fuel Indication?

A

If an individual tank quantity display is less than 500 pounds, or if total fuel quantity display is less than 1000 pounds, then the respective quantity indication will turn from Green to Amber inverse video.

95
Q

5 Fuel

What does an Amber [FUEL LEVEL LOW L-R] indicate?

A

Fuel in the respective hopper has dropped below 540 lbs +/- 60.

Fuel Boost Pump on the affected side will be turned on per the QRH.

96
Q

11 Air Conditioning

The temperature control valves TCV’s control Cockpit/Cabin temperature by?

A

Mixing cold ACM air with pre-cooled bleed air bypassing the ACM for the under floor ducting.

97
Q

11 Air Conditioning

Air entering the cabin through the overhead WEMAC system is?

A

Recirculated cabin air mixed with cold air from the ACM.

98
Q

11 Air Conditioning

How can you monitor the air entering the cockpit or cabin through the underfloor duct?

A

Temperatures can be monitored with the SUPPLY position on the temperature controller.

99
Q

12 Pressurization

The amber fault light illuminator on the pressure controller indicates?

A

The controller has failed and automatically switch to manual mode.

100
Q

12 Pressurization

When does the Cyan [CABIN ALTITUDE] CAS message illuminate?

A

The cabin altitude cast message illuminates when the cabin altitude has exceeded 8000 feet and the Pressurization controller is set for the high altitude airfield mode.

101
Q

12 Pressurization

How is the cabin altitude limited to its maximum altitude?

A

Maximum Cabin altitude is limited to approximately 14,500 feet by cabin altitude limiters.

102
Q

12 Pressurization

What happens if the Pressurization controller fails or if there is a loss of Main DC power?

A

Cabin pressure must be controlled with the Red CABIN ALT manual toggle lever.

103
Q

13 Hydraulic Power System

The hydraulic systems main components include?

A

A reservoir and fluid, two engine driven pumps, an auxiliary pump, and pressure/volume indicators.

104
Q

13 Hydraulic Power System

What systems are hydraulically powered?

A

Speedbrakes/Roll Spoilers, Landing Gear, Brakes/Anti-skid, and Nose Wheel Steering.

105
Q

13 Hydraulic Power System

While airborne, what signals the loss of both hydraulic pumps?

A

An AMBER [HYDRAULIC PRESSURE LOW L-R] CAS message

106
Q

13 Hydraulic Power System

In an emergency standby hydraulic pressure may be obtained by?

A

There is no standby hydraulic pressure available in flight.

107
Q

13 Hydraulic Power System

What does the Main Hydraulic System Reservoir preflight require?

A

Reference to a temperature/pressure placard on the ground service panel to determine the correct reservoir pre-charge pressure.

108
Q

14 Landing Gear and Brakes

What does the Amber [ANTISKID FAIL] CAS message indicate?

A

It illuminates if an anti-skid fault is detected or if the switch is turned off.

109
Q

14 Landing Gear and Brakes

The proper method of checking brake wear during pre-flight is to set the parking brake and ensure that?

A

The brake wear indicator pen is not recessed into the caliber housing.

110
Q

14 Landing Gear and Brakes

If the Amber [ANTISKID FAIL] CAS Message illuminates prior to landing and the message cannot be extinguish what do you have available?

A

Power breaking is still available, but antiskid protection is lost and landing distance must be extended.

111
Q

14 Landing Gear and Brakes

What is required for nose wheel steering to be operable.

A

You need hydraulic system pressure and main DC power for nose wheel steering to operate.

112
Q

14 Landing Gear and Brakes

How is nose wheel steering deactivated when there is an uncommitted nose wheel deflection?

A

An uncommitted nose wheel to flexion can be overcome by pressing, and holding, the red AP/TR I M/NWS button on either yoke.

113
Q

15 Flight Controls

How are the primary flight controls operated

A

All primary flight controls are manually operated no hydraulic system pressure required.

114
Q

15 Flight Controls

Roll controls consist of what components?

A

Ailerons and hydraulically actuated Roll Spoilers.

115
Q

15 Flight Controls

What happens when a jammed roll control occurs and the PITCH/ROLL DISCONNECT handle is pulled?

A

The primary flight controls are broken out and the Pilot’s control column is connected to the Ailerons and Left Elevator, and the Co-Pilot’s control column is connected to the spoilers and Right Elevator.

116
Q

15 Flight Controls

What flight controls does the PITCH/ROLL DISCONNECT affect?

A

It breaks out the ailerons and spoilers and the left and right elevator.

117
Q

15 Flight Controls

What is the minimum altitude for the speedbrakes to be deployed?

A

Speedbrakes should be stowed below 500’ AGL.

118
Q

15 Flight Controls

What does the primary pitch trim system control?

A

The electrically controlled movable horizontal stabilizer.

119
Q

15 Flight Controls

Can the flap handle be set in between flap positions?

A

No the flap handle may only be set in the slotted positions 0° 7° 15° and 35°. If the handle is set anywhere in between a [FLAP FAIL] CAS message will occur and the flap reset button will illuminate.

120
Q

15 Flight Controls

What does the flap stabilizer interconnect system do?

A

It automatically trims the horizontal stabilizer when the flaps are in motion between 15 and 35 with or without the auto pilot engaged.

121
Q

15 Flight Controls

What does the MACH trim system do?

A

It trims a stabilizer/elevator flow tabs above 0.77 Mach.

122
Q

15 Flight Controls

How does the Rudder Bias system function?

A

It requires bleed air pressure from the engines.  It is rigged so that the loss of air pressure from one of the engines will cause the actuator to kick the rudder in the proper direction for single engine operation.

123
Q

15 Flight Controls

How does speed affect the Rudder Bias operation?

A

The amount of travel is less above 125 KIAS if an engine fails.

124
Q

15 Flight Controls

When the Rudder Gust Lock is engaged how is takeoff prevented?

A

The Cyan [GUST LOCK] CAS message is illuminated and contributes to the [NO TAKEOFF] warning system.

125
Q

15 Flight Controls

How is the crew alerted to a fault in aileron ratio changer

A

The Amber [ROLL SYSTEM CONTROL FAULT] CASS message is displayed on the EICAS.

126
Q

15 Flight Controls

What controls the primary flight controls?

A

Primary flight controls are manually controlled with the yoke via pulleys and cables.

127
Q

15 Flight Controls

What will happen if you try to take off with either the ROLL/PITCH DISCONNECT and/or the Stabilizer trim not in a takeoff position?

A

It would trigger the [NO TAKEOFF] warning system on the EICAS.

128
Q

16 Avionics

What happens when the standby power switch is selected on?

A

The lead acid battery and the nurse compartment powers of standby instruments for 180 minutes during emergency bus operation.

129
Q

16 Avionics

When will the Auto Pilot EMERGENCY DESCENT mode activate?

A

When the auto pilot is engaged, the airplane is above FL310 and the cabin altitude exceeds 14,500 feet.

130
Q

16 Avionics

How is the TOLD/V speed information originating from the FMS displayed?

A

FMS derived data is displayed in magenta digits.

131
Q

16 Avionics

What temperature indications are displayed in the Primus EPIC system?

A

SAT, ISA, and RAT are displayed on the MFD. RAT is also displayed on the EICAS.

132
Q

16 Avionics

The changer-over (C/O) button on the flight guidence control panel does what?

A

It allows the crew to change the digital speed indication on the PFD between IAS and Mach speed.

133
Q

16 Avionics

During cruise flight, altitude hold is verified when?

A

The green ALT annunciation is displayed in the top of each PFD scorecard.

134
Q

16 Avionics

When the left HSI is an arc mode how can you change the range?

A

The left CCD can select range on the left HSI and the right CCD changes the range on the right HSI

135
Q

16 Avionics

The standby flight display SFD displays navigation information from what source?

A

From NAV1 or FMS1 through the menu button only if the standby HSI fails.

This answer doesn’t make sense! Need to verify

136
Q

16 Avionics

When are the AOA indication shown on the left PFD?

A

Continuous or automatic operation is selected through the left MCDU.

137
Q

17 Oxygen System

How many oxygen bottles are on the Sovereign?

A

One oxygen storage bottle in the fuselage fairing. There is an option for a second long range bottle.

138
Q

17 Oxygen System

What is the acceptable pressure for an oxygen during pre-flight?

A

Pressure within the green arc on the oxygen pressure gauge indicates an acceptable preflight pressure range.

139
Q

17 Oxygen System

What does selection of the PASS OXY knob to AUTO do?

A

It arms a mask for automatic deployment at 14,500 feet of cabin altitude.

140
Q

17 Oxygen System

What does selecting the PASS OXY knob to OFF do?

A

Shut off O2 pressure to the passenger oxygen mask only crew masks still have oxygen available.

141
Q

17 Oxygen System

How are the crew oxygen mask tested during pre-flight?

A

They are preflight tested while remaining stowed in their service box.

142
Q

17 Oxygen System

How are the passenger oxygen mask operated after being deployed?

A

A lanyard/cord that attaches the mask to it’s respective dropbox must be pulled in order to receive oxygen through the mask.

143
Q

17 Oxygen System

Either the normal or extended range oxygen system quantity can be pre-flight from where?

A

Requires oxygen quantity preflight from the cockpit only.

144
Q

17 Oxygen System

When do the red indicator lights on the extended range control panel Illuminate?

A

They illuminate only if the pressure in the supply line from the respective bottle is low.

145
Q

17 Oxygen System

During the emergency bus condition, how does the PASS OXY knob function?

A

It deploy’s the passenger masks when in the ON position. Auto function requires Main DC

146
Q

17 Oxygen System

Memory items associate with SMOKE/FIRE/FUME (NJA)

A

Oxygen mass and goggles Don in emergency, establish crew communications, and then call for the Smoke/Fire/Fume QRC.

*This is NJA specific.

147
Q

17 Oxygen System

What is the highest cabin altitude for crew and passenger oxygen masks?

A

Crew and passenger oxygen mask or not approved for use about 40,000 feet cabin altitude.

148
Q

17 Oxygen System

What qualifies the crew masks as quick dawning masks?

A

The crew masks must be properly stowed in their containers to qualify as quick donning oxygen masks.

149
Q

17 Oxygen System

With respect to the oxygen system if the aircraft has been exposed to prolong temperatures below -9° C what must be accomplished?

A

The cabin must first be warmed up to at least 60° F on the cabin temperature gauge if the aircraft is to be flown above FL250.

CE 680 NJA Soveriegn initial (7 decks)

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