Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CDFM Module 3 > CDFM 3.1 > Flashcards

CDFM 3.1 Flashcards

1
Q

In which Title of the law is the majority of fiscal law covered?

A

31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Budget and Accounting Act of 1921 established what 3 things?

A

An annual budget
Created the OMB
Established GAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of certifier, certifies Purpose, Time and Amount (PTA)?

A

Fiduciary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Funds may be obligated and expended only for the purposes authorized by what?

A

Appropriation acts or other laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The bona fide need occurs when?

A

When the order is placed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Do no-year appropriations ever move into the expired account?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who must receive notification before a bill is paid when in the expired phase, if the bill is greater than $25M?

A

Congress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

“Funds must not be made available in excess of or in advance of an appropriation” is in which of the following USC codes?

A

31 USC 1341

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When are Federal employees allowed to keep a travel voucher from an airline if they are bumped from their Government flight?

A

Federal employee volunteered to be bumped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Continuing Resolution is considered

A

A Joint Resolution signed by the President

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sequestration refers to

A

Automatic spending cut of Gov’t programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An advanced decision for DoD employees can be provided to a certifying official prior to a payment by which of the following

A

DOD General Counsel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the # of the DOD Financial Management Regulations?

A

7000.14R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the first function of finance?

A

Entitlement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Military members are entitled to __________days of leave per year and can sell back ___ days of leave during their career.

A

30, 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Civilians can use up to how many hours of sick leave for the care of a family member each year?

A

104

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Variations Authorized is a statement that is required on all travel orders:
True of False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A proper payment package should consist of a copy of what documents?

A

Purchase order
Contract
Invoice
Receipt
Acceptance Document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who prescribes the interest rates paid under the Prompt Payment Act?

A

Treasury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which method of the disbursement of Government funds is the most preferred method?

A

EFT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

GOALS II is the government wide network by which agencies provide automated _____ reports to the Treasury and OMB.

A

Financial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DNP (Do Not Pay) initiative is a list of entities or people that should not be paid.

True or False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What Act requires the Government receive a claim against it within 6 years?

A

Barring Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of Federal Accounting reflects Assets and Liabilities?

A

Proprietary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What 3 Federal organizations have a significant impact on DOD financial management?

A

OMB, GAO, Treasury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Director of Defense Contract Audit Agency reports directly to which of the following organizations?

A

USD (C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An example of a multi-year appropriation is:

A

RDT&E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A legal reservation of funds is considered a/an:

A

Obligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Resources = the Status of Resources is the accounting equation for which of the following accounting?

A

Budgetary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Assets = Liabilities plus what?

A

Net Position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What of the following is considered an Asset account?

A

Funds Balance with the Treasury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The process of accumulating, measuring, analyzing, interpreting and reporting costs describes what type of accounting?

A

Managerial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The DoD strategic long-term plan used to produce DoD auditable financial statements is called?

A

FIAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

There are 3 types of impairment to auditor independence; Personal, External and ?

A

Organizational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an element of auditor professional judgement?

A

Reasonable Care and Diligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The DOD Inspector General Office is responsible for which of the following?

A

investigate and audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The objective of a financial audit is?

A

Pre-determined and not defined by the Audit Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

he 3 phases of an audit are:

A

Plan, review, report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

DoD is seeking to obtain the best audit opinion at the conclusion of its financial audit. Which of the following is it attempting to obtain?

A

Unmodified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 4 major functions in DoD Finance?

A

Entitlements, Payments, Collections, Control of Public Funds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the primary organization in DoD with the responsibility for Finance requirements?

A

DFAS - Defense Finance and Accounting Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the acronym for disbursing office identification numbers?

A

DSSN - Disbursing Station Symbol Number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What three primary types of officials are accountable individuals in the DoD?

A

Certifying Officers, Disbursing Officers, Departmental Accountable Officials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Debt collection includes collection of debts from what three groups?

A

Current employees and Military Members, Former Employees and MIlitary Members, Vendors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the normal collection method for debts owed by active military members and civilian employees who are still in service?

A

Salary Offset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When collecting debts owed by vendors that have failed to properly respond to the demand letters, what is the next step?

A

Do not pay list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When in doubt about the proper use of an appropriations what may the disbursing official request from the OSD General Counsel on the propriety of the prospective payment?

A

An advance decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

To what, along with accountability, does certification equate?

A

Liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who, besides the disbursing officer, is likely to be held accountable for an improper payment?

A

The certifying officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

If a civilian employee moves from a job overseas to a job in the states, which organization pays for the Permanent Duty Travel?

A

The “losing” activity (the OCONUS activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Name the supporting documents required in the DoD Payment Package.

A

Contract, Invoice, Proof of Receipt, Acceptance Document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Name two key forms that provide accountability and control by Disbursing Officers.

A

SF 1219, Statement of Accountability (monthly)
DD Form 2657, Daily Statement of Accountability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which individuals hold personal and pecuniary liability for their actions in financial transactions?

A

Certifying Officers, Disbursing Officers, and Departmental Accountable Officials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How often does the disbursing officer need to inspect and document office security measures?

A

Semi-annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The Budget Accounting Act of 1921 established the GAO (legislative branch) to audit financial transactions of which branch of the Government?

A

Executive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The GPRA requires agencies to define goals, set performance targets m and report what?

A

Actual performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Any enforceable agreement between an agency and a business concern for the acquisition of property of services is called what?

A

A contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What term is used in SFFAS #4 to describe the process of accumulating, measuring, analyzing, interpreting, and reporting cost?

A

Managerial Cost Accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What term is used to describe Federal Government funds that have been paid but have nit yet been identified to a specific organization?

A

Undistributed Disbursements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the two self-balancing sets of accounts in the U.S. Standard General Ledger (USSGL)?

A

Budgetary and Proprietary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In proprietary accounting, assets equal liabilities plus what?

A

Net position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The aggregate amount of an entity’s funds in the Treasury is in what account?

A

Fund Balance with Treasury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

PP&E defines tangible assets with an estimated useful life of more than what number of years?

A

Two Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the Statement of Budgetary Resources equation?

A

Budgetary Resources = Status of Budgetary Resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which financial statement shows the components of the net cost of the reporting entity’s operation for the period?

A

Statement of Net Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What DoD accounting entity maintains a central general ledger?

A

The Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which three federal agencies establish the FASAB?

A

GAO, OMB, and the Department of Treasury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the Federal Law that specifically required existing CFO agencies to have statements that successfully pass a financial audit?

A

The Government Management Reform Act of 1994

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the definition of a “successful financial audit”?

A

Achieving an unmodified audit opinion (An unmodified opinion denotes that the audit was adequate in scope and that the financial statements are present fairly in all material respects and results of operations in conformity with generally accepted accounting principals applied on a consistent basis.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In which of the four waves of the FIAR process would a DoD entity expect to have an auditable Statement of Budgetary Resources, to include its Fund Balance with Treasury?

A

Wave 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Government audits provide essential elements of public accountability and what?

A

Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which standards generally apply to Federal Government audits?

A

GAO Standards od GAGAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Who conducts, supervises, monitors and initiates audits and investigations relating to DoD programs and operations?

A

Department of Defense Inspector General (DoDIG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which is the DoD document that provides policy for DoD audit and internal review offices to use for conducting audits of DoD operations, systems, programs, and functions?

A

DoDIG Audit Handbook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Auditors auditing with personal impairments violate which general standard?

A

Independence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How many hours of conducting professional education must an auditor complete every 2 years? What is the minimum number of hours that must be completed in any year of the 2 year period?

A

80 hours in 2 years
20 hours minimum each year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The auditor is restricted access to essential data necessary to satisfy the audit objective. What type of impairment would this be?

A

External Impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which type of audits are expected to determine whether:
The financial information is presented in accordance with established or stated criteria.
The entity has adhered to specific financial compliance requirements
The entity’s internal control over financial reporting and/or safeguarding of assets is suitably designed and implemented to achieve the control objectives?

A

Financial Audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which types of audits are expected to determine whether:
The entity is acquiring, using, and protecting its resources economically and efficiently
The entity’s programs are achieving the desired results or benefits
The entity is accomplishing its mission in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, and public policies?

A

Performance Audit

80
Q

Which audit phase involves gathering evidence and determining materiality and significance of the findings?

A

Review phase

81
Q

During which audit phase would the auditor select the most important areas for audit coverage?

A

Planning Phase

82
Q

What document includes the audit objectives, findings and (when appropriate) recommendations?

A

The Audit Report

83
Q

What should be considered when evaluating the effectiveness of DoD audit organizations?

A

Audit benefits

84
Q

What is the name of the GAO Standard that. provides reasonable assurance that the DoD auditors comply with the applicable auditing standards and DoD policies?

A

Quality Control and Assurance

85
Q

Inspection of the office security, separate and secure storage of records and equipment, and restricted system access are examples of what kind of controls?

A

Internal Controls

86
Q

If auditors are deterred from acting objectively and exercising professional skepticism by pressures, actual or perceived, from management of the entity being audited, what would this be called?

A

External Impairment

87
Q

Who is the head of the GAO? Who does this position report to?

A

The Comptroller General

Congress

88
Q

What does Article 1 Section 7 of the Constitution state?

A

Empowers congress to pass bills for the raising of revenue, and delineates how bills will pass from congress to POTUS for signature or veto.

89
Q

What does Article 1 Section 8 of the Constitution state?

A

Empowers Congress to collect taxes

90
Q

What does Article 1 Section 9 of the Constitution state?

A

Requires appropriations signed into law before money can be spent from the Treasury.

91
Q

What is the common name for the GAO, ‘Principles of Federal Appropriations of Law’?

A

The Red Book

92
Q

What did the Budget act of 1921 require?

A

POTUS to submit an annual budget
Established OMB
Established GAO

93
Q

What is 31 USC 1341, 1342, and 1517 known as?

A

The Antideficiency Act

94
Q

What type of certifier is responsible for the accuracy of the disbursement of funds, and the repayment of any disbursement made not in accordance with proper Purpose, Time or Amount?

A

Pecuniary Certifier

95
Q

Which US Code states “Appropriations shall be applied only to the object for which the appropriations were made except as otherwise provided by law” (Purpose)

A

31 USC 1301

96
Q

What document contains the Necessary Expense Doctrine? “ It is a well-settled rule of statutory construction that where an appropriation is made for a particular object, by implication it confers authority to incur expenses that are necessary or proper or incidental to the proper execution of the object”

A

6 Comp Gen 619 (March 25, 1927)

97
Q

What US Code States; “The balance of a fixed-term appropriation is available only for payment of expenses properly incurred during the period of availability or to complete contracts properly made within that period”? (Time)

A

31 USC 1502

98
Q

What rule provides that you will only obligate for the material requirements of the period of fund availability?

A

The Bona Fide Needs Rule

99
Q

What type of appropriation can be used for minor construction up to $2M, and purchases of items with investment unit costs of not more than $250K?

A

O&M

100
Q

What are the obligation periods of the following Appropriations
Military Personnel
Operations and Maintenance
RDT&E
Procurement
MILCON and SCN

A

MILPERS 1 year
O&M 1 Year
RDT&E 2 Years
Procurement 3 Years
MILCON and SCN 5 Years

101
Q

What type of appropriation is the Defense Working Capitol Fund

A

No Year Appropriation

102
Q

What can be done with when an appropriation is in the Expired phase?

A

Adjustments to existing obligations
Not available for new obligations
Available for payments

103
Q

What can be done with when an appropriation is in the Closed phase?

A

Not available for obligations or adjustments
Adjustments and payments are charged to currently available appropriations
Appropriation remains only for accounting tracking purposes

104
Q

What happens in the 5th year after the expiration of an appropriation?

A

The account is closed and any remaining balances (obligated or unobligated) shall be cancelled and no longer available for any purpose.

105
Q

What are the canceled/closed phases of the following Appropriations
Military Personnel
Operations and Maintenance
RDT&E
Procurement
MILCON and SCN

A

Military Personnel 6 Years
Operations and Maintenance 6Years
RDT&E 7 Years
Procurement 8 Years
MILCON and SCN 10 Years

106
Q

If funds were not available in a closed appropriation and funds are payed out of an available appropriation, then an ADA violation occurs. True or False?

A

True

107
Q

What 3 codes form the cornerstone of the Anti-deficiency Act?

A

31 USC 1341 Obligating or expending in advance or in excess of the approriation

31 USC 1342 Accepting voluntary services for the United States

31 USC 1517 Obligating or expending in excess of the apportionment

108
Q

True or False. A judgment fund is a permanent indefinite appropriation

A

True

109
Q

Can an employee purchase 10 reams of paper with personal funds, and file a claim for reimbursement?

A

Yes

110
Q

If an agency receives funds for damages to government property what can be done with the funfds?

What about real property?

A

The funds must be forwarded to the Treasury

DoD can retain funds for damage to real property

111
Q

Can Federal Employees retain travel promotional items earned on official travel?

A

Yes, according to the FY2002 NDAA.

112
Q

FMR Volume 14 030102 requires what when an ADA violation is discovered

A

notice of the ADA violation to be sent to higher headquarters within two weeks of discovery

113
Q

When should an ADA violation preliminary review happen?

A

Within four months of the initial discovery.

114
Q

What are the responsibilities of a Certifying Officer

A

Correctness of facts on the document
Correctness of computations
Legality of payment under the appropriation involved
The CO is NOT responsible for Timeliness

115
Q

Prior to paying/disbursing Government funds, the paying office must confirm what?

A

Eligibility to the entitlement

116
Q

What are some type of “authorizing” documents that become back-up documentation for a disbursement?

A

Travel Orders
Contract
Purchase request
Training orders

117
Q

Who approves the use of disbursement forms?

A

Comptroller General of the United States

118
Q

Certifying Process

Fiduciary
When:
What:
Who:

Pecuniary
When:
What:
Who:

A

Fiduciary - Upfront
When: During commitment process
What: Purpose, Time, Amount
Who: Comptroller/Resource Manager

Pecuniary - Backend
When: Prior to payment
What: Proper payment
Who: Departmental Accountable Official, Certifying Officer, and Disbursing Officer

119
Q

What is a Departmental Accountable Official

A

Provide source information to a disbursing or certifying officer during the payment process. Held Pecuniary liable. Do not certify documents.

120
Q

Who has the ability to get an advance decision from the General Counsel of the DoD on the propriety of a payment?

A

The DO or Certifying Official
A customer can not.

121
Q

If a military member dies on AD, how long can their family remain in quarters?

A

365 days

122
Q

A reservist with no dependents who has been mobilized and assigned Gov quarters is entitled to what?

A

partial BAH

123
Q

How many discretionary allotments can a member elect to have?

How many Non-discretionary?

A

Six

Unlimited

124
Q

What are types of Premium Pay for Civilians?

A

Overtime
Night Pay
Holiday Pay
Hazard Pay

Travel Pay is not Premium pay

125
Q

Can leave donors under the Federal Leave Sharing Program contribute directly to a supervisor?

A

No

126
Q

What is the amount of withholding for cash awards to civilian employees?

A

25%

127
Q

When are 1099s due to contractors?

When are they due to the IRS?

A

31 Jan

28 Feb

128
Q

What is the form number for a Travel Voucher

A

DD Form 1351-2

129
Q

Do verbal orders provide a basis for reimbursement?

A

No

130
Q

Can non-appropriated fund employees use Invitational Orders?

A

No

131
Q

For a Civilian PDS who pays?

A

The gaining unit. Except from OCONUS to CONUS. OCONUS to Hawaii

132
Q

When can advance payments to contractors be made?

A

If;
the contractor gives adequate security
it is in the best interest of National Defense
the advance is no more than the unpaid contract price

133
Q

What should be included in a proper payment package?

A

PO or contract
Invoice
Receipt of service/product
Acceptance of the service/product

LOA is not needed

134
Q

What is the term for acceptance under the Prompt Payment Act when acceptance documents have not been received in a timely manner?

A

Constructive acceptance

135
Q

If you receive a bad invoice how long do you have to return it?

A

7 calendar days

136
Q

With purchase card invoices when does the 30 days for payment begin?

A

When the invoice is received.

137
Q

What are 4 reasons that an invoice payment can be accelerated?

A

Invoices under $2500
Payments to small businesses
Payments for Emergencies/Disasters
Deployments

138
Q

Is prompt payment interest due if a late payment occurs as a result of a contract dispute?

What would be the settlement date for a payment by check?

For EFT?

A

No

Date on check

Date funds hit the payee’s account

139
Q

Interest rates for late payments are set by whom?

How often are they updated?

Where are they published?

A

Secretary of the Treasury

Every 6 months

In the Federal Register

140
Q

What is the identification number that indicates the authority to receive and disburse funds and issue Treasury checks?

Where must this number appear?

A

DSSN - Disbursing Station Symbol Number

Must appear on all documents and reports processed by the Disbursing Office

141
Q

DSSNs are assigned by _______ to _______ .

A

Treasury DFAS

142
Q

What payment method is required for Federal payments?

A

EFT

143
Q

What program electronically transfers money and remittance information through ahe ACH network?

A

Vendor Express

144
Q

What is the collection and processing service provided by certain financial institutions called?

A

General Lockbox Network (GLN)

145
Q

What form is used to collect receipts into the DO’s accoutability?

A

DD Form 1131 (Cash Collection Voucher)

146
Q

Where are reimbursements applied?

A

To the appropriation used for the work.

147
Q

What percentage of Military or Civilian member’s pay can be offset to collect a debt?

A

15%

148
Q

If a debt is owed by a former Mil or Civ employee, who can the debt be referred to for collection?

A

The IRS

149
Q

If a debt is owed and involves fraud or false claims where should the debt be referred?

A

to the Dept of Justice

150
Q

What law requires agency’s to refer debt more than 180 days delinquint to the Bureau of Fiscal Services?

A

The Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996

151
Q

Can the same person input both contract and invoice data?

A

No

152
Q

What term describes and irregularity in the financial accountability of a DO’s account?

A

Out of Balance

153
Q

What is the term for when a check amount is greater than amount reported by the DO, or the amount of the payment voucher?

A

Check Issue Overdraft

154
Q

For an undeliverable check, what form credits the funds back to the appropriation originally charged to issue the check?

A

SF 1098

155
Q

How long is a US Treasury check payable for?

A

up to one Year.

156
Q

Who has the authority to reissue a check?

A

The Disbursing Officer

157
Q

Is there a prescribed format for submitting an invoice to DoD?

A

No

158
Q

What must be prepared by the DO for each day business is transacted?

A

DD 2657, Daily Statement of Accountability

159
Q

What is the monthly form that needs to be prepared by the DO for transactions that occured or didn’t occur?

Who is it submitted to and when is it due?

A

SF 1219, Statement of Accountability

Must be submitted to Treasury no later than three working days following the end of the month

160
Q

What are the three accounting systems in the Federal Government?

A

Budgetary - (Fund Control), Flow and use of funds - Appropriation through Outlay

Propriety - (Financial) Assets, Liabilities, Net Position, Revenue, Expenses - CFO act

Managerial Cost - Cost of doing business to provide goods and services. - Federal Financial Management Improvement Act of 1996

161
Q

What is Net Position?

A

The difference between assets and liabilities

162
Q

What law requires Chief Financial Officers in 24 major Federal Agencies and requires financial reports for business operations

A

1990 Chief Financial Officers Act

163
Q

What legislation required a consolidated financial statement for the entire Executive Branch?

Who prepares it?

Who audits it?

A

1994 Government Management Reform Act (GMRA)

Treasury Dept

GAO

164
Q

What organization enforces the law, manufactures coins and currency, compiles the consolidated federal financial statements, and publishes the US Standard General Ledger

A

The US Treasury

165
Q

What publication feeds to all financial reports and makes the consolidated financial statements possible?

What org produces it?

A

The US Standard General Ledger

US Treasury

166
Q

What two Statements of Federal Financial Accounting Standards form the basis of the Federal GAAP (Generally Accepted Accounting Principals)?

What body recommends them?

A

Statement of Federal Financial Accounting Concept (SFFAC)

Statement of Federal Financial Accounting Standard (SFFAS)

Federal Accounting Standards Advisory Board (FASAB)

167
Q

What links appropriations to specific budget accounts?

A

Accounting Classification Codes

168
Q

What are the objectives of SFAC (Statement of Federal Financial Accounting Concept)?

A

Budgetary Integrity
Operating Performance
System Control
Stewardship

169
Q

What is the source implementation for SFFAC NO.2 (Statement of Federal Financial Accounting Concept)?

A

OMB Circular A-136 Federal Financial Reporting Requirements

170
Q

What is used to classify all financial transactions as to, assets, liabilities, income, expenses, in order to control summarize and report results?

A

The General Ledger

171
Q

Who directs DFAS and DCAA?

A

USD(C)

172
Q

What volume of DoD FMR 7000.14R covers Travel?

Administrative Control of funds and ADA violations?

A

Vol 9

Vol 14

173
Q

What is a commitment?

and what type of certification is required for one?

A

An administrative reservation of funds

Fiduciary certification

174
Q

What type of account holds funds that have been paid, but have not been identified to an organization?

A

Undistributed disbursements

175
Q

What is the term for the total cost of the amount paid for an asset, plus transportation, installation and other related costs?

A

Acquisition Value

176
Q

For fixed assets, what is the amount expected to be recovered from asset disposal called?

A

Residual Value

177
Q

Excess, obsolete, and unserviceable inventory should be valued at what?

A

Net Residual Value

178
Q

What is the basis for recording Accounts Payable?

A

Receiving reports showing quantity received and accepted

179
Q

What law mandates auditor independence?

A

The IG act of 1978

180
Q

What are the four standards for audits?

A

Auditor Indepence
Auditor Professional Judgement
Auditor Competence
Quality Control and Assurance

181
Q

True or False
Auditors should exercise reasonable care and diligence

A

True

182
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that staff members collectively have the necessary knowledge, skill, and discipline needed to conduct each audit?

A

The audit agency

183
Q

How often must an audit agency have a external peer review?

A

Once every three years

184
Q

What organization’s purpose is to conduct, supervise, monitor and initiate audits and investigations related to DoD programs and ops?

A

DoD IG

185
Q

Who heads the GAO?

How long is their term?

A

Comptroller General

15 Years

186
Q

True or False
Auditors must report illegal acts to external partners?

A

True

187
Q

in attestation engagements, who reviews for errors, fraud, illegal acts violations or abuses?

A

The practitioner

188
Q

What are the 3 phases of a government audit?

A

Plan
Review
Report

189
Q

What is the basic tool used by auditors to organize and control audits?

A

The audit program

190
Q

What portion of the audit plan contains the particular aspects of a program to be reviewed, period of time, and locations?

A

The scope

191
Q

What is the begins the audit review phase?

A

Gathering audit evidence

192
Q

Audit evidence should be both…

A

Sufficient-quantity
and
Appropriate-quality

193
Q

Auditors should document their evidence in…

A

audit documentation aka working papers

194
Q

True/False

Auditors using client provided data must validate the data

A

True

195
Q

True/Flase
The audit report must comply with standards for form, content and distribution

A

True

CDFM Module 3 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions