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CDCs Flashcards

0
Q

Which mode of the Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) family of bombs uses the MK-83 and BLU-110 as a warhead?

A

GBU-32

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1
Q

How many fluid temperature modes are available on the polyalphaolefin (PAO) / air cooling cart?

A

2

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2
Q

What TO outlines the Air Force standard for munitions color-coding?

A

TO 11A-1-53

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3
Q

Where is the cool-air hatch on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand?

A

Top of the unit

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4
Q

During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when

A

Fueling is not being performed

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5
Q

Which warhead can be used for the GBU/EGBU-28?

A

BLU-113 A/B

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6
Q

What is the designation for the practice version of the B83 Nuclear Bomb?

A

BDU-46E

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7
Q

Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) is always configured with the wind corrected munition dispenser (WCMD) tail kit?

A

CBU-107

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8
Q

What bomb loading adapter is used in loading internal and external stores on the B-52?

A

F310707-500 bomb loading adapter

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9
Q

What ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2?

A

Linked

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10
Q

Which panel of the A/M 32A-86 generator set as the circuit breaker to shut off current flow in case f an overload?

A

External AC

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11
Q

What mechanism within the LAU-131s tube restrains the rockets against normal flying loads?

A

Detents

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12
Q

What aircraft-generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to begin its launch cycle?

A

Release consent

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13
Q

What precaution must be taken prior to attempting to loosen fittings, or remove tubes or hoses when using the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)?

A

You must vent the pressure from that part of the system through the appropriate valve

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14
Q

Which columns are capable of holding CBUs on the smart bomb rack assembly (SBRA)?

A

One, three, and four

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15
Q

What is the only gas operated missile launcher?

A

LAU-106

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16
Q

What provides electrical power and interconnection cable to the nose and tail fuzes of a bomb?

A

Initiators

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17
Q

How many main rail assemblies can be installed on the deck of the MHU-110/M trailer?

A

6

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18
Q

What is the weight of the GBU-24?

A

2000 lbs

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19
Q

In a fault isolation system using built-in test (BIT) checks, the results of the test should narrow a fault down to a

A

Subsystem or system

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20
Q

What accessory do you normally see attached to a MHU-141 trailer with a mixed load of missiles?

A

M-9 Adapter

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21
Q

The sealing wire may be removed from the M904 mechanical nose fuze only after

A

The arming wire is inserted

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22
Q

Which version of the AGM-65 is laser guided?

A

AGM-65/E

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23
Q

The FMU-152/B fuze

A

Provides in-flight cockpit selection

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24
Q

What rail missile launcher carries the AGM-114

A

Modified M299

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25
Q

What component of the 105mm gun is composed of the sleigh, recuperator assemblies?

A

Recoil mechanism

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26
Q

Due to the expansion properties of fuel, an Unmodified A-M32A-95 fuel tank should not be filled more than approximately

A

1/2 full

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27
Q

What component of a cluster rack actuated the B-11 bomb shackle to release munitions?

A

A-6 release unit

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28
Q

What bomb racks are used by the BRU-57 Smart Rack to carry stores weighing up to 1000 lbs?

A

BRU-46

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29
Q

To complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the

A

Face of the bolt

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30
Q

What is the ammunition capacity of the 20mm linkless ammunition loading system (LALS)?

A

2100 rounds

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31
Q

What additional piece of AGE is required during operation of the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/ air cooling cart?

A

None, it is a self contained system

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32
Q

The functions of the digital system are initiated by the

A

Operator

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33
Q

The Time-to-Arm (TA) and time-to-burst (TB) settings on the B-83 are behind the

A

Access door on the aft assembly

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34
Q

Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?

A

AFTO Form 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document

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35
Q

How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser?

A

Eight

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36
Q

What device ensures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power is loss or a component fails or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks?

A

Counterbalance valve

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37
Q

Bombs can be expected to detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames?

A

Two to four minutes

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38
Q

Before operating bomb bay door systems for checkout, you must make sure

A

All personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of operation

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39
Q

How is the LAU-131 rocket pod safed?

A

Electrically with a shorting pin

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40
Q

How much does the BLU-113A/B penetrator bomb weigh?

A

4500 lbs

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41
Q

How are the guidance canards of the AIM-9L/M missiles controlled?

A

Electrically

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42
Q

The fragmentation bomb is made of

A

Spirally wound spring steel

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43
Q

What section of the AIM-120 missile has the arm/fire device (AFD)?

A

Propulsion section

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44
Q

What is the weight of the MK-65 Quickstrike mine?

A

2000 lbs

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45
Q

What type of projectile has a hollow body?

A

Target Practice (TP)

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46
Q

How much air pressure is produced by the MC-2A?

A

15 cfm at 200 psi

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47
Q

How is the mechanical ran assembly (MRA) primarily controlled/operated?

A

The lift trucks remote control unit

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48
Q

The function of the transfer unit on the link less system is the remove rounds from the

A

Conveyor elements and feed them into the gun

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49
Q

How many different operational modes are available on the portable control unit (PCU) that controls the MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M trailers?

A

15

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50
Q

What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU-110/M trailer?

A

15,000

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51
Q

The GFU-7/E 30 mm ammunition loader is used to load ammunition into what gun?

A

GAU-2/A

52
Q

GFU-7/E can load 30 mm rounds into the GAU-8/A at a rate of

A

300 rounds per minute

53
Q

What is the lifting height when the adapter assembly is inverted in the MHU-83-series lift truck?

A

107.5 in

54
Q

What MHU-196/M trailer component supports the lift arms under transport conditions?

A

Retractable travel locks

55
Q

On which aircraft is the A/M 32C-10 air conditioner used?

A

F-15, F-16, F-117, B-1, B-2, and B-52

56
Q

What accessory is used with the MJ-40 lift truck to load bombs in the B-1B/B-2 weapons bay(s)?

A

Ram assembly

57
Q

Which aircraft requires Armament System personnel to use the self generating nitrogen servicing cart?

A

F-22 only

58
Q

What is the maximum nuclear munitions load capacity of an MHU-226/M trailer

A

8,000 lbs

59
Q

What is the lift capacity of the MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M trailers?

A

40,000 pounds

60
Q

Which lift truck supports the use of the mechanical ran assembly (MRA)?

A

HUU-83 D/E or MJ-40

61
Q

What is the maximum static load the B-1 maintenance stand can sustain?

A

500 lbs

62
Q

What power output of the portable floodlight sets is used for powering common electrically powered hand tools?

A

115-120 VAC

63
Q

What device ensures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power loss or a component fails or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks?

A

Counterbalance valve

64
Q

How many chaff dispensers may be loaded on the B-1B when carried in conjunction with flares?

A

4

65
Q

The component that protects the pins of the umbilical connector on the AGM-65 until just before loading is called the

A

Shielding cap

66
Q

What are six classifications of High Explosive bombs?

A

General purpose, Blast, Penetration, Fragmentation, Shaped Charge, Precision guided

67
Q

What power output of the portable floodlight sets is used for powering common electrically powered hand tools?

A

115-120 VAC

68
Q

What is the correct description of the BLU-108/B submunition?

A

Anti-tank, armor piercing (EFP)

69
Q

The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled

A

Electrically

70
Q

If the tape switches on the split-deck maintenance platform detect an obstruction during operation, they stop the units

A

Forward drive, platform extension, and lowering capabilities

71
Q

What is the only pneudraulically operated missile launcher?

A

LAU-142

72
Q

What aircraft loading missions are supported by the MJ-40?

A

B-1, B-2

73
Q

What device ensures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power is lost or a component fails or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks?

A

Counterbalance valve

74
Q

How are the guidance canards of the AIM-9 L/M missiles controlled?

A

Electrically

75
Q

What is the only rail launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading?

A

Modified M299

76
Q

What ammunition fees system is used to supply the M2A1 40mm gun?

A

Clip

77
Q

Aluminums formation of a tightly adhering oxide film

A

Provides increased resistance under mild corrosive conditions

78
Q

Which type of rockets are used for target making or incendiary effects?

A

White phosphorous

79
Q

How many munitions can be loaded onto the MIL-STD-1760 enhanced conventional bomb module (SECBM)?

A

10

80
Q

Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire aircraft electrical system?

A

Aircraft power panels

81
Q

What MHU-196/M trailer component supports the lift arms under transport conditions?

A

Retractable travel locks

82
Q

Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) contains kinetic energy penetrators (KEP) arranged into packs of varying sizes?

A

CBU-107

83
Q

What is the primary reason for making sure aircraft fittings are clean before attaching hydraulic servicing hoses?

A

Dirty fittings can introduce contaminants to the hydraulic systems causing damage to valves and lines

84
Q

What component of the M61A1 breech bolt locks in the firing position?

A

Locking block

85
Q

What bomb component serves to boost the explosive train between the fuze and the bomb?

A

Adapter boosters

86
Q

What is the weight of the GBU/EGBU-28?

A

5,000 lbs

87
Q

What is the maximum load capacity of an MHU-110/M trailer?

A

15,000 lbs

88
Q

What are the primary kill mechanisms of high-explosive (HE) bombs?

A

The blast effect and dispersed case fragments

89
Q

How many ADM-160B Miniature Air Launched Decoys (MALDs) may be carried by the heavy stores adapter beam?

A

8

90
Q

What corrosion catalyst agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waster materials provide?

A

Electrolyte

91
Q

What device controls the engine speed of the MHu-83?

A

Hand throttle

92
Q

What component of the A-10 ammunition loading system (ALS) interfaces with the aircraft during ammunition loads?

A

GFU-7E ALA

93
Q

Which panel of the A/M 32A-86 generator set has the circuit breaker to shut off current in case of an overload?

A

External AC

94
Q

Which aircraft carries the AGM-88 high-speed antiradiation missile (HARM)?

A

F-16

95
Q

How many hinged deck panels are incorporated in the MHU-141/M munitions handling trailer design?

A

1

96
Q

The explosive charge of most penetration bomb is what percentage of the total bomb weight?

A

35 percent

97
Q

Where are the A/M 32C-10 duct hoses stored?

A

In the rear storage compartment

98
Q

How many main rail assemblies can be installed on the deck of the MHU-110/M trailer?

A

6

99
Q

The height of burst built into the FMU-113B fuze is how many feet above ground level?

A

15

100
Q

How many hinged deck panels are incorporated in the MHU-226/M munitions handling trailer design?

A

3

101
Q

What is the maximum amount of bleed-air pressure that may be applied to the C-10 air conditioner?

A

45 psi

102
Q

What is the lift capacity of aluminum rollers when installed on the MJ-1?

A

3,000 lbs

103
Q

What two munitions may be used as the warhead for a GBU-15?

A

CBU-75 or an MK-84, 2,000 lb bomb

104
Q

How accurate is the GBU-31?

A

Within 10 meters of the target

105
Q

What is the meaning of the detonator safe?

A

The detonator must move into line with the striker or firing mechanism

106
Q

When are the M904 and M905 delay elements inserted?

A

Just before installing the fuse

107
Q

Why must the delay element be inserted prior to fuse installation?

A

Because the empty delay element cavity acts as an interrupted to the explosive train of the fuse during handling

108
Q

What secured the aft cover to the stabilizer housing of the BSU-49 AIR bomb?

A

Two spring-loaded latch assemblies

109
Q

Proximity fuses will produce airbursts at heights between?

A

20 and 125 feet above ground level

110
Q

The height of burst built into the FMU-113/B fuse is about?

A

15 ft

111
Q

How many detent settings does the timer of the LUU-2/B flare have?

A

8

112
Q

What type of stores management system may or may not employ the use of a computer?

A

Hybrid type system

113
Q

What is the purpose of the structure assembly of rail launchers?

A

Provides and attach point for the rail or track assemblies and houses the various components of the launchers

114
Q

What is produced by a manual input to the bombing system during manual-computed weapons release?

A

Allows computed release pulses to be distributed to the various selected aircraft bombing system weapons stations

115
Q

What provides for the control and monitoring of nuclear or conventional weapons in the B-1 aircraft?

A

Management subsystem

116
Q

How many main rail assemblies can be installed in the deck of the MHU-110/M trailer?

A

6

117
Q

What practice bomb has NO safety device?

A

BDU-48, 10-lb practice bomb

118
Q

What must be removed from the M904 fuse to allow SECOND TO ARM settings below 6 seconds?

A

The stop set screw

119
Q

The B83 bomb has two suspension lugs on the

A

Forward assembly

120
Q

What must you do when changing the arming time settings on the M905 tail fuse?

A

Depress the timing lock

121
Q

Which of these flares simulates the infrared energy produced by the A-10 aircrafts engines?

A

M-206

122
Q

What is/are the purpose(s) of the rail or tracks on rail launchers?

A

Act as an aft support for the missile; they guide the missile at initial launch

123
Q

What is used to safe the firing circuit of the LAU-132 launchers?

A

A shorting pin

124
Q

In what type of release the proper weapons release time be calculated using previously input data?

A

Automatic and computed

125
Q

Through what launcher component is voltage supplied to ignite the missile has grain generator?

A

Launcher power supply

126
Q

During selective jettison, what circuits are normally disabled?

A

Mechanical fuzing

127
Q

How do you normally begin fault isolation procedures?

A

By determining the type of problem, either mechanical or electrical, or a combination of two

Weapons (6 decks)

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