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1C5 5 Study > CDC Vol 3, 403 Theater Air Control System Identification Operations > Flashcards

CDC Vol 3, 403 Theater Air Control System Identification Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Under the most centralized chain of command in the TACS, who has ID authority?

A

AOC

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2
Q

What flowchart is used to determine what ID method will be used, and in what order?

A

ID Matrix

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3
Q

What method of identification is normally the result of an interception?

A

VID

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4
Q

Combined with the ATO, what is the TACS’ primary method of identifying aircraft as friend?

A

IFF/SIF

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5
Q

How many threat modes are used by the TACS elements?

A

Three: Low, Medium, and High

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6
Q
  • What is the next step after you have detected a target and initiated a track on the target?
A

ID the track

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7
Q
  • Under the least centralized chain of command in the TACS, who has ID authority?
A

Each TACS element could have the authority to ID all tracks in their AOR.

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8
Q
  • What document will you find who has ID authority?
A

Operations Order (OPORD)

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9
Q
  • What document provides ID criteria?
A

Operations Order (OPORD)

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10
Q
  • What is the process of attaining an accurate characterization of detected objects in the operational environment sufficient to support an engagement decision?
A

Combat Identification (CID)

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11
Q
  • When is the NORAD definition of an ADIZ applicable to the TACS?
A

Only when the TACS is conducting operations within the NORAD region.

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12
Q
  • When the TACS units conduct operations outside the NORAD region, who has the authority to establish the ADIZ?
A

The host nation or operational command assigned.

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13
Q
  • What document establishes the ADIZ?
A

Operations Order (OPORD)

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14
Q
  • True or False: In relation to an ADIZ, tactical airspace within the TACS must be much more flexible in dimension in order to fit the circumstances or the situation?
A

True

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15
Q
  • What process uses the most positive ID methods available to allow the highest confidence required for the ID of targets/tracks?
A

Combat Identification (CID) Process

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16
Q
  • Who determines the CID process and what supports the CID process?
A
  • The Joint Force Commander (JFC)

- Rules of Engagement (ROE)

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17
Q
  • What is the primary way an aircraft is identified?
A

Flight plan correlation

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18
Q
  • Flight plan correlation happens when an aircraft is ___ minutes from the planned time and by being within ___ or ___ miles from the center line of the planned flight path?
A

Within 5 minutes and 10 or 20 miles of the flight plan, depending on the the AOR.

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19
Q
  • In a combat area, instead of flight plan correlation, what would and operator use?
A

ATO or ACO Correlation

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20
Q
  • What two factors allow an operator to use the “previous identification” procedure for an aircraft?
A

(1) When the ID was previously ID by an air defense facility and (2) remains under continuous surveillance while crossing region/sector boundaries.

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21
Q
  • When can an operator ID an aircraft as friendly based on specified ground speed or computed true air speed behavior? & What is this ID procedure called?
A
  • Only during peacetime

- Track behavior

22
Q
  • What areas can an operator ID an aircraft as Friend based on the aircraft’s origination location?
A

In a free or friendly area

23
Q
  • If a track originates from a free or friendly and leave, when can that same track keep its ID when it comes back from the other area?
A

Only if the aircraft remains under continuous surveillance.

24
Q
  • What is a passageway leading to and from friendly and enemy controlled airspace?
A

Minimum risk routes (MRR)

25
Q
  • What are the four closely defined factors in a MRR?
A
  1. Effective time
  2. Altitude
  3. Width of boundary
  4. Course
26
Q
  • What is the document that randomly publishes the activated and deactivated scheduled for the MRR?
A

ACO

27
Q
  • What is the name of the test that an operator can program with their systems database that uses MRR procedures to ID aircraft?
A

Corridor test

28
Q
  • What VFS is used to establish missile detection and maneuver test parameters and triggers the system to take a predetermined set of self-defenses actions when these parameters are met?
A

Profile Test VFS

29
Q
  • What test is similar to the corridor test and the operator needs to select one of the two tests because the system can not run both of them at the same time?
A

Sanctuary Test

30
Q
  • What are the three factors to a sanctuary test?
A

1 - Effective Time
2 - Altitude Blocks
3 - Speeds

31
Q
  • What test allows the system operator to enter a specific series of maneuvers or legs to ID a track?
A

Maneuver Test

32
Q
  • In the maneuver test, what are the four factors of the test?
A

1 - Headings
2 - Turns
3 - Altitudes
4 - Times of flight at these parameters

33
Q
  • What is the primary method of ID in the TACS?
A

ATO information correlated with IFF/SIF

34
Q
  • What modes can be changed in the aircraft by the pilot while airborne?
A

Modes 1 and 3

35
Q
  • Is mode 2 changeable while airborne?
A

In most aircraft, no

36
Q
  • Is mode 4 changeable while airborne?
A

Yes, but only between two different preloaded sets of codes.

37
Q
  • What mode is sometimes referred to as the mission code?
A

Mode 1

38
Q
  • What is the digit’s value range for mode 1?
A
  • First digit is 0 to 7

- Second digit is 0 to 3

39
Q
  • What is the digit range for both mode 2 and 4?
A

0 to 7

40
Q
  • When does a mode 2 become classified?
A

When a specific code is associated with a specific aircraft.

41
Q
  • What is the TACS’ primary method of military aircraft ID?
A

Mode 2 combined with ATO association

42
Q
  • What are the three mode 3 emergency codes?
A

7500 - Hijack
7600 - Radio out
7700 - General emergency

43
Q
  • What are the responses an operator will see from a mode 4 interrogation?
A
  • Valid
  • Invalid
  • No Response
44
Q
  • What mode is used by both military and civilian aircraft but is designated for use by NATO countries?
A

Mode 5

45
Q
  • What are the two levels to mode 5?
A
  • Level 1: Encrypted mode for allied aircraft

- Level 2: Identical to level 1 with the added ability for transponders to report altitude and location.

46
Q
  • What mode and code can be stored in the database and has the ability to alert the operator to the significant nature of that specific flight?
A

Special modes

47
Q
  • What identification process uses airborne equipment that senses and interpolate the normally occurring electronic emanations from another aircraft?
A

Electronic Identification (EID)

48
Q
  • What are the four main classification categories?
A
  • Pending
  • Unknown
  • Friend
  • Hostile
49
Q
  • What are the unknown subclassifications?
A
  • Assumed Friend
  • Suspect
  • Evaluated Unknown
50
Q
  • What threat level does the operator need to manually interrogate mode 4 and ID the air track?
A

Low threat mode

51
Q
  • What threat level does the operator accomplish mode 4 interrogation while the system scores the mode 4 test and will automatically ID the aircraft as assumed friend with a high confidence mode 4?
A

Medium threat mode

52
Q

What threat level does the system automatically perform a mode 4 request on unknown and assumed friend and will ID a high confidence mode 4 up to Friend?

A

High threat mode

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