CDC Study Flashcards
Who has overall responsibility for the management of the CFETP?
Air Force Career Field Manager
What topics are discussed during a utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
Career field trends, new munitions, new training requirements, and needed changes to the
current CFETP.
What type of degree can munitions airmen obtain through the CCAF?
Associate in Applied Science Degree in Munitions Systems Technology
What is the most used section of the CFETP?
The STS - Specialty Training Standard
Who appoints personnel authorized to process, ship, and receive AA&E?
Squadron Commander
Who must select and appoint munitions inspectors?
Munitions supervision.
Who must appoint the TICMS system administrators?
MASO
Who verifies that all the element master training plans cover peacetime and contingency tasks?
Munitions section/flight chief
Who has overall responsibility to enforce supply discipline in a typical munitions element?
Element NCOIC.
Munitions control personnel notify security forces of what non-emergency
information?
Movements or facility content changes that affect security classification or risk category.
What is an OPLAN?
Any plan, except for the single integrated operational plan, for the conduct of military operations.
Within which annex listed in the OPLAN would you find nonnuclear munitions requirements?
Annex D, Logistics.
What does the BSP translate?
he BSP translates major command operation planning concepts into base-level capabilities to support forces.
What are the five phases of deliberate planning?
1 Initiation.
2 Concept development.
3 Plan development.
4 Plan review.
5 Supporting plans.
When developing a munitions employment plan, what is the most efficient way to identify resources available at a deployed location?
Specific data can be retrieved from on-site personnel or via a site survey.
What is the formula used to compute the daily consumption rate of munitions for an OPLAN?
Primary aircraft authorization X sortie rate X standard configuration load X expenditure per sortie factor.
What four orders are used to direct preparation, planning, deployment, and execution of plans in response to crises?
1 Warning order.
2 Planning order.
3 Alert order.
4 Execute order.
What order initiates the supporting and supported command to develop a course of action?
The WARNORD.
When is an ALERTORD issued?
When the situation requires continued execution planning after the warning or planning order is issued.
Who is authorized to issue the EXORD?
The Secretary of Defense.
What information can be found on an attached MSL for a palletized load?
TCN, SRAN, DoDAAC, dimensions, weight, and point of contact.
What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the US?
PL2
What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage the US war-fighting capability?
PL3
What resources are generally stored within a controlled area?
PL4 resources (e.g., category I, II, or III sensitive conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives).
Give an example of when a national defense area may be used.
1 Unplanned emergency dispersal of aircraft to civilian airports.
2 Emergency landings of aircraft carrying nuclear weapons.
3 Temporarily stopped nuclear weapon ground convoys.
4 Aircraft crashes or other unplanned emergency events.
What are the four categories of the CIICs?
Classified, sensitive, pilferable, and unclassified.
What risk category includes explosive hand or rifle grenades?
High risk category II.
What provides the necessary direction and procedures for implementing a personnel reliability program?
DoDI 5210.42, Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Assurance
What are the two PRP positions?
Critical and controlled.
Who is responsible for the certification of personnel into the PRP?
The certifying official (commander).
When are you authorized to deviate from the two-person concept?
When the nuclear weapon system safety rules specifically authorize a deviation.
During an emergency that presents an immediate threat to the safety of personnel.
What reporting flag word is used to identify nuclear weapon safety deficiencies that do not fall into the accident or incident categories?
Dull Sword.
What events or conditions involving nuclear weapons should be reported as a Dull Sword?
1 Minor damage to a nuclear component resulting from errors committed during assembly,
testing, loading, or transporting while in Air Force custody.
2
Malfunction, failure, or anomaly that results in damage to nuclear weapons systems due to sources of electrical energy (lightning, over voltage, power fluctuations).
3
Exposure of nuclear weapons or nuclear components to any abnormal environment (earthquakes, floods, tornados, etc.) that would question item’s serviceability.
4
Damage, malfunction, failure, or irregularity to items listed in the Master Nuclear Certification List.
Where does the authority originate for the AF to develop its mishap prevention program?
Federal law and DoD directives and instructions.
Who monitors, controls, and evaluates the effectiveness of explosive and munitions safety programs for the installation?
The weapons safety representative.
Who is responsible for enforcing safety requirements and standards within their specific area or activity?
Supervisors.
Who is responsible for understanding and observing the safety standards that have been established to prevent injury or damage to equipment and property?
Everyone.
What are the two major categories of human factors contributing to hazards in the work place?
Mental and physical.
What is the best way to reduce back injuries caused from lifting?
Reduce exposure.
Explain the main purpose of vegetation control.
Limit the probability of combustible vegetation causing an unacceptable fire hazard to munitions in storage.
What is the fire extinguisher requirement for an explosive laden vehicle?
Provide each explosive laden vehicle used for transport at least two portable 2A10BC rated extinguishers.
Preferably how many seconds away from a potential chemical hazard should an emergency eyewash unit be?
No more than 10 seconds.
What criteria is used to subdivide ammunition and explosives into hazard classes?
Based on the nature of the hazard and its potential for injury or damage.
Which TO will help you find another TO by using an alphabetical listing?
TO 00518.
What are the three types of deficiency reports for a TO?
1 Emergency.
2 Urgent.
3 Routine.
What is the basic concept of explosives safety?
Preventing the premature, unintentional, or unauthorized initiation of explosives and devices containing explosives and minimizing the effects of explosions, combustion, toxicity, and any other harmful effects.
stopping muns from going boom boom accidentally
Why are forward firing ordnances so hazardous?
Because of their directional response and potential long-range if inadvertently activated on the ground.
What does INRAD refer to?
Refers to the ionizing radiation emitted from the radioactive materials in the components of a nuclear weapon. It is the radiation inherent to the design of nuclear weapons.
Who must comply with the ALARA concept?
Units with a nuclear contingency or limited nuclear mission.
When engineering design cannot reduce radiation exposure to acceptable levels, what other methods are used?
Personal protective procedures and administrative controls (such as time restrictions).
What information should be collected from the TICMS before starting an explosives operation to help fill out the pre-task safety briefing, and used to inform munitions control?
Item’s net explosive weight (NEW; the current NEW at the location; the maximum NEW allowed at the location; the fire symbol at the location and the compatibility codes at the location.
Long-life containers should withstand at least how many trips?
100
How many spare munitions containers should a unit retain?
Enough to break down all built-up complete rounds.
Where would you look to find rules and procedures concerning data management?
TO 00-20-2, AFI 21 series, system user manuals, and MAJCOM implementing directives.
Who is responsible for ensuring all maintenance documentation is complete and accurate?
The performing work center supervisor.
What are the three main types of maintenance performed on munitions equipment?
Preventive.
Periodic.
Unscheduled maintenance.
What type of maintenance is performed after a specified period of miles or hours of operation are compiled against a vehicle or piece of equipment?
Preventative
What type of maintenance is performed after a specified period of time (e.g., 30, 180, 360 days)?
Periodic
What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 95?
To provide a method of maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions for support and training equipment and other components designated by higher authority (e.g., MAJCOM and the LG.
What information is recorded on the AFTO Form 244?
Maintenance, inspection, and historical data for support and training equipment. It documents
discrepancies, corrective actions, serviceability, and inspection status.
What’s the definition of reliability as referred to in a maintenance organization?
The ability of a system and its parts to perform its mission without failure, degradation, or demand on the support system.
What is the primary purpose of the AIM and AGM RAMS?
To provide an accurate means of assessing present performance levels, as well as predicting future reliability standards for Air Force AIM and AGM assets.
What are the three levels of maintenance concepts under which the USAF operates?
Organizational.
Intermediate.
Depot.
Whose mission is to maintain an operational AIM and& AGM inventory?
Warner Robins Air Logistics Center (WRALC.
Which specific munitions are tracked in TMRS?
AIM9, AIM120, AGM65, AGM88, and GBUs.
What is often used as a guide for developing an emergency action checklist?
Unit operational plans.
Reserve stocks of high-security locks and cylinders require what type of control?
Reserve cylinders, keys, and assembled locks are kept in a safe, key box, or other suitable container, all of which must be secured by a GSA approved three-position combination lock.
Who authorizes personnel to issue and receive keys?
Munitions supervision.
What are you verifying when auditing locks, cylinders, and keys?
A physical check of each munitions maintenance and storage structure to verify that the installed locks are the same as the padlock location shown on the AF Form 2427.
What form is required for changes to the flying schedule if suggested during the daily scheduling meeting?
AF Form 2407.
What Munitions Command and Control SharePoint is used for units supporting nuclear missions?
Nuclear (NMC2)
Who determines which MMHE information (if any) will be maintained in Air Force MC2 SharePoint?
Munitions supervision
Who is normally the appointing official of the MASO?
Wing/installation commander or equivalent.
Which two documents make up the WCDO?
The detailed logistics allocation report and the tactical air missile program.
What are starter stocks?
WRM, which are prepositioned in or near a theatre of operations to last until resupply at wartime rates is established.
What are swing stocks?
WRM, that is positioned ashore (overseas and stateside) or afloat for meeting war reserve requirements of more than one contingency in
more than one theatre of operations.
What four munitions WRM positioning programs does the GAP integrate?
The afloat prepositioned fleet.
Standard air munitions packages (STAMP.
Operational in-place theater stocks.
CONUS stocks
What are allocated quantities of munitions often referred as?
Stock levels.
What identifies the intended use of munitions items and are assigned during the forecast and allocation process?
Category codes.
What program is used to request supplemental allocations and authorize loading them into TICMS?
Supplemental allocation authorization request.
What are munitions items that are installed onto an aircraft or part of an aircrew life support system called?
Time change assets.
Why do we “call-forward” munitions assets?
To offset transportation funding deficits.
WRM all-up-round missiles with the guidance and control unit (GCU removed are referred to by what name?
Donor missiles.
What will the aircraft “Transfer” action in TICMS not be used for?
To ship/receive bulk munitions assets.
Who assumes full responsibility for the accountability of all ammunition items received by their organization?
Organizational commander.
In cases of competing priorities, written approval for emergency issues must be granted by whom?
Group commander.
What form is required for an individual from another organization on base to sign for munitions and certify their expenditures?
An AF Form 68, Munitions Authorization Record approved by the organization’s commander and MASO.
Name the four basic types of turn-ins.
1 Custody.
2 Due-in from maintenance.
3 Found on base.
4 Organizational.
How long does the consuming organization or activity have to provide the MASO with expenditure documents after the expenditure has taken place?
Within two duty days.
What does the MASO review to verify expenditures were updated correctly?
AF IMT 2434 against the TICMS Daily Transaction Report (DTR.
How soon should the shipping documentation be turned over to the transportation office for MICAP shipments?
Within 24 hours.
The container identification naming convention format is outlined in what publication?
DAFMAN 21-201.
In relation to munitions accountability, how soon is a theft, suspected theft, loss, or destruction of munitions to be reported?
24 hours after discovery
Who certifies inventory adjustment documents and who approves adjustments that require a report of survey (ROS?
The MASO certifies inventory adjustment documents and the MASO appointing authority must approve any report of survey involving a
munitions stock record account asset.
What are accountable documents used to show?
An increase or decrease in stock record account balances.
What NWRM assets are managed in TICMS?
Nuclear weapons TYPE Trainers and the MK21 Rear Covers.
Prior to handling NWRM, commanders and supervisors at all levels must ensure?
Personnel who are assigned NWRM duties complete training IAW AFI 20110.
Who appoints munitions inspectors?
Munitions Supervision.
This type of flaw affects
the form, fit or function of
an item.
Major corrosion.
Any nonconformance
within specified
requirements.
Defect.
A defect likely to result in
hazardous or unsafe
conditions.
Critical defect.
A defect that reduces
materially the usability of
the item.
Major defect.
What inspection ensures the highest degree of confidence in which the inspector looks for defects that may reduce reliability?
Periodic inspection (PI)
What type of inspection is performed at the direction of competent authorities, the MAJCOM, or Air Logistics Center (ALC?
Special inspection (SPI)
What condition code applies if an item is issuable with qualification?
CC/B.
What condition code applies if an item is considered unserviceable until limited restoration has been accomplished?
CC/E.
I’ll get to it eventuall-E
What condition code applies if an item is suspended in stock?
CC/J.
What condition code applies if an item is suspended for emergency combat use only?
CC/N.
What unserviceable tag identifies condition codes H, P, and V items?
DD Form 1577/15771.
When direct input into TICMS is not used, what form is used to update item lot history?
AFTO Form 102.
What TICMS screen is used by local MASOs and Equipment Specialists at the Ammunition Control Point to provide final disposition instructions on ADR actions?
Search Ammunition Disposition Request Report.
When you identify a supply discrepancy, what is the first thing you must determine?
The category it falls into. Is it a shipping or packaging type discrepancy?
Which publication identifies the time standards for submitting supply discrepancy reports (SDRs)?
DLM 4000.25, Volume 2, Chapter 17, Supply Discrepancy Reporting.
If problems attributable to a carrier are found during a receiving inspection, who should you notify immediately about the discrepancies?
Transportation officer or the transportation management office (TMO.
What is the role of munitions inspectors for processing a transportation discrepancy report (TDR?
To assist TMO in identifying the information required to complete the transportation discrepancy report.
What form is used to report transportation discrepancies and is used to notify or confirm notification to carriers of problems with a shipment?
DD Form 361, Transportation Discrepancy Report (TDR.
361 this aint gone be fun
What TO identifies the proper marking requirements for inert and empty items?
TO 11A-1-53
What types of items are required to have holes drilled in the area that contained explosive material?
All components stocklisted as explosive which have had their explosive material removed for training, display, or research and development.
During an initial inspection of an inbound shipment what do you inspect first?
The seals.
What is the governing directive for munitions shipments by military air?
AFMAN 24-604.
muns off the floor
What TO provide guidance on blocking and bracing munitions for over-the-road travel?
TO 11A1-61-1.
Who regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft?
The Federal Aviation Administration.
Who regulates the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water in commercial common carrier vessels?
The US Coast Guard.
Where can you find the criteria for inspecting the ISO container?
MILSTD 3037, Inspection Criteria for International Organization for Standardization (ISO
Containers and Department of Defense Standard Family of ISO Shelters
What is the purpose of POP?
To keep the hazardous materials inside the container and away from people and the environment.
In regards to UN specification POP requirements, what items are exempt under the grandfather clause?
Government owned goods packaged before 1 January 1990.
What automated source can be used to verify the proper shipping name for a munitions item?
Joint Hazard Classification System (JHCS
Who issues competent authority approval?
Ogden-Air Logistics Center (OOALC.
What are the two general types of munitions storage magazines?
1 Earth covered and (2 above ground.
What are the major differences between 7-bar, 3-bar, and undefined earth-covered
magazines (ECMs)?
7-bar strongest
3-bar middle
undefined weakest
What is the most common type of munitions storage structure?
Arch-type igloo.
To keep locks operating properly, how often should they be opened and closed?
Once a month.
What is the source document for explosives capacities and controls for your facilities?
The explosive site plan.
What type of barricade also known as an “Armco revetment”, can be temporarily positioned on the flightline for separating munitions?
The earth filled, steel bin barricade.
According to DESR 6055.09_AFMAN 91201, what exception will be made with storing special weapons or nuclear munitions?
Warning symbols will not be posted.
Where is the basic guidance for creating storage locations identified?
TO 11A-1-61
What identifies the standard location designator for munitions?
An 11 digit alphanumeric system.
For what purpose was buffered storage designed and tested?
To increase the explosive storage capacity of limited NEW igloos, without increasing QD
separation requirements.
What do you do before drilling in metal or other hard surfaces?
2.Use a center punch to mark the exact center of the hole to be drilled.
Which TO contains information on the MHU-141 trailer?
TO 35D3-2-27-1
What is the maximum turning angle of the MHU-141 trailer?
40 degrees in either direction.
Which TO contains information on the MHU-110 trailer?
TO 35D3-2-26-1.
What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU-226 trailer?
12,000 lbs for conventional loads and 8,000 lbs for nuclear loads.
How many openings are on the deck of the MHU-226 trailer?
Three
Name the three types of trailers you may encounter.
Vans (closed), Flatbed (open), Rollerized.
What is the actual length of a 40 foot trailer when you include the gooseneck?
2.51 feet.
The rollerized trailer is designed for what specific purpose?
3.To handle cargo loaded on 463L aluminum aircraft pallets.
Who has the responsibility to detect deficiencies on trailers?
4.The using vehicle operator.
What is the standard lifting capacity of the MJ-1 lift truck?
3,000 lbs.
What is the maximum capacity of an MHU-83 lift truck using the fork adapter
assembly?
6,000 lbs.
What are the two types of tactical forklifts?
2.Rough terrain and adverse terrain.
Name the two special-purpose forklifts.
4.Variable-reach forklift and swingmast forklift.
Which aircraft will the LALS service?
F-15, F-16, and F-22 aircraft.
Which container is used to house the 30 mm ammunition in link tube carriers?
2.CNU309/E, CNU332/E, or CNU383/E.
Which TO contain specific information on the two munitions assembly conveyors in use by the 2W0 career field?
TO 35D2-17-1 and TO 35D2-17-11
What is the minimum space requirement (in feet) for the A/E32K-9, MAC II?
50x150 feet
How are munitions and explosives affected by quantity distance criteria while in the transportation mode?
.Quantity distance criteria does not apply to munitions and explosives in the transportation
mode.
When is it acceptable to push or pull munitions containers?
3.Containers designed with skids may be pushed or pulled for positioning.
When, if ever, is it acceptable to roll un-palletized conventional high explosive bombs or other explosives?
If authorized by the item TO. Munitions protected by dunnage rails may be rolled.
List five examples of general-purpose hand tools that do not require
nuke certification
1Manually operated hydraulic pallet jacks.2Pliers.3Wrenches.
4Vacuum cleaners.5Screwdrivers.6Magnifiers.7Pry bars.
How does the Department of Defense (DOD normally transport nuclear weapons?
1.By truck or air.
What types of aircraft are normally used for Department of Defense (DOD nuclear
weapons shipments?
C-17 or C-130 aircraft
Who is notified in the event of an accident or delay involving a shipment of nuclear
weapons?
The shipping and receiving commanders.
How often are DOE couriers certified?
At least annually.
Why would a DOE convoy seek sanctuary (Safe Haven) at a military base?
As a result of a hostile or emergency situation.
What type of operational movement happens inside the WSA?
An intra-area movement.
What is the brisance of a military explosive?
The shattering or fragmentation effect.
What term describes the tendency of a substance to produce vapors?
Volatility.
When a military explosive does not react with the metal that encases it or with
another explosive, it is said to have what characteristic?
natural compatibility.
What is meant by explosive toxicity?
An explosive’s poisonous characteristics.
What is hygroscopicity?
The moisture-absorbing property of an explosive.
What term do we use to describe the tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion?
Deflagration.
What condition is essential for an explosive to detonate rather than to merely deflagrate?
It must be confined.
What effect causes greater penetration of the explosive charge?
Munroe effect.
What happens when you increase the standoff distance of an explosive?
Its penetrating capability is increased.
What are the two effects of signals?
Light and smoke.
Which military weapons do we classify as “small arms”?
Those with a bore diameter (inside diameter of the barrel) of 0.50 inch or less.
What color is the tip of an AP bullet painted?
Black.
What are the classifications of Air Force grenades?
Service, practice, and training.
What is the rate of detonation for detonating cord?
Between 20,000 and 21,000 feet per second.
What do we use a galvanometer for?
To check electrical circuits and their components.
Which two fuzes are used by both the Navy and the Air Force?
FMU139 and FMU152.
What provides electrical power in the FMU139 series fuze?
FZU48 initiator.
What provides electrical power in the FMU143 series fuze?
FZU32 initiator.
What type of sensor is the DSU33?
Doppler ranging radar proximity sensor.
Which tail fuzes are used with the DSU33?
FMU139 and FMU152.
Which dispenser(s) uses the FZU39/B proximity sensor?
The SUU64/B, SUU65/B and SUU66B
What are the function height settings for the FZU39/B?
Ranges from 300 to 3,000 feet.
Which BLU series bomb uses the MK83 Mod 4 bomb body?
The BLU110.5.
The BLU126/B LCDB designed to be used in what type of situations?
Situations where friendly forces and/or civilians are close to the target.
What is the NEW of the BLU126/B LCDB?
27 pounds
When would you use the CXU-3A/B spotting charge?
When the danger of starting brush or forest fires is high.
3 too hot for me
The CBU105 series is designed for what type of target?
Tanks and armored support vehicles
What color(s) are 30 mm API and APIT rounds painted?
- Bronze or gold projectile with black markings.
Name three examples of a Cartridge Activated Device (CAD).
Initiators
Thrusters
Catapults.
What is a propellant-actuated device (PAD?
A device that uses a propellant that is an integral part of the device to provide a source of
gas pressure to perform its intended function.
