CDC PRACTICE TEST Flashcards by Nathan Palomo

The five organizational principles are emphasis on wartime task, functional grouping, lean organizational structures, skip-echelon structure, and

a. tactical functions
b. internal subdivisions
c. standard levels
d. flat structures

c. Standard levels

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MAJCOM sits on top of a __ staffing structure.

a. skip-echelon
b. flat
c. functional grouping
d. worker-to-supervisor

a. skip -echelon

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A squadron typically has __ persons assigned.

a. 1,000 - 5000
b. 500 - 2000
e. 99 or less
d. 50 - 750

d. 50 – 750

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The five types of MTFs where you can work are the typical clinic model, hospital or medical center, medical wing, limited scope medical facility, and __

a. dental squadron
b. AOC
c. medical squadron
d. TACON

c. Medical Squadron

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Speaking clearly, slowly, and loud enough for the customer to hear and understand you is

a. enunciation
b. word choice
c. tone of voice
d. active listening

a. enunciation

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The __ introduces, summarizes, coordinates, or obtains approval or signatures on correspondence

a. Official memorandum
b. AF 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement
c. Air Force approval form
d. AF Form 1768, Staff Summary

a. AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet

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The is the microprocessor, or “brain,” of the computer system.

a. memory
b. CPU
c. mother board
d. graphics card

b. CPU

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Examples of common servers include: application, database, messaging/mail, print, and __

a. hard drive
b. software web
c. web
d. clinical

c. web

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What is the response time for an immediate level work order (affects clinical/patient care work stoppage)?

a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes hour
c. 1 hour
d. 24 hours

a. 15 minutes

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True or False. Should software be added to the network without completing the proper documentation and adequate funding?

b. false

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When was CHAMPUS signed into law?

a. 1 Nov 2002
b. 1 Oct 1996
c. 31 Oct 1985
d. 2 Dec 2016

b. 1 Oct 1996

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The two distinct types of care include direct and __ care.

a. purchased
b. managed
c. fee-for-service
d. indirect

a. purchased

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True or False. All DOD military, civilians, contractors, volunteers, summer-hires, interns, and Red Cross personnel will receive initial IA training after receiving network access.

a. false

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The suffix -cele means:

a. weakness
b. cell
c. tumor
d. cyst, hernia, sac

d. cyst, hernia, sac

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The prefix intra- means:

a. over
b. within
c. many
d. negative, apart

b. within

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A __consists of two or more kinds of tissues joined into one structure that has a certain task.

a. protein
b. muscle
c.organ
d. urinary system

c. organ

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The__is the middle layer of the skin and keeps the temperature of the body.

a. dermis
b. epidermis
c. subcutaneous tissue
d. adipose

a. dermis

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__ such as the elbow, knee, and shoulder joints permit varying degrees of motion.

a. skeletal muscle
b. cartilage
c. fixed joints
d. movable joints

d. movable joints

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To protect the sensitive nature of the information, stamp records or documents__

a. “FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY”
b. “SENSITIVE MEDICAL INFORMATION”
c. “FOR YOUR EYES ONLY”
d. “DO NOT SHARE WITHOUT AUTHORIZATION”

b. “SENSITIVE MEDICAL INFORMATION”

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True or False. The DD Form 877, Request for Medical/Dental Records is used to request medical information or records.

a. True

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True or False. The MTF may sequester the original medical record or a certified copy when the situation warrants.

a. True

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In CHCS, what does entering ?? display?

a. the help feature
b. menu options
c. the secondary menu
d. name lookup

c. the secondary menu

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In DEERS, eligibility information is assumed valid for __ hours

a. 24 hours
b. 72 hours
c. 120 hours
d. 240 hours

c. 120 hours

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The__option allows you to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of the provider or other agency at the MTF.

a. Freeze/Release schedules
b. Repiace schedules
c. Cancellation by Facility
d. Partial schedules

c. Cancellation by Facility

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25. True or False. The DD Form 2138 cannot be initiated by any MTF to request outpatient records from another MTF

b. false

26. True or False. There are times when a patient may receive routine care in an MTF, even though they fail a DEERS eligibility check.

b. false

27. There are two components to the SNIAC program, the __ and the FMRC process. ## Footnote a. special needs coordinator b. MTF commander c. hospital process d. NCOIC of SNIAC

a. special needs coordinator

28. True or False. You should perform a LOD determination for pregnancy or for any diagnosis associated with pregnancy.

b. false

29. __ refers to a patient who is dead on arrival to the MTF ## Footnote a. dead on arrival b. carded for record only c. change in status d. expired

b. carded for record only

30. A_patient is a patient being evacuated from overseas or from one MTF to another. ## Footnote a. outpatient b. inter-service transfer c. transient d. admission

c. transient

31. The __ contains options allowing personnel to check bed availability on either a particular inpatient unit or all inpatient status. ## Footnote a. bed status menu b. CHCS c. A & D report d. RON roster

a. bed status menu

32. A __ serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting the patient. ## Footnote a. admission package b. patient suspense file c. outpatient record d. locator card

b. patient suspense file

34. The__ is used by the physician, dentist, or certified nurse midwife and nurse to chronologically document the patient's progress while in the hospital. ## Footnote a. SF 509, Medical Record - Progress Notes b. SF 506, Clinical Record - Physical Examination c. ST-504, Clinical Record - History, Part I d. SF 505, Clinical Record - History, Part 2 & 3

a. SF 509, Medical Record - Progress Notes

33. The remains are released to mortuary personnel within__hours after death, unless special circumstances exist. ## Footnote a. two weeks b. 30 days c. 7 days. d.24 hours

d. 24 hours

35.__ codes are commonly referred to as pass-through codes ## Footnote a. A b. B c. C d. D

c. C

36. ICD-9-CM codes beginning with the letter _ describe external causes of injury, poisoning, and adverse reactions. ## Footnote a. A b. I c. X d. E

d. E

37. The __ is responsible for planning and providing the medical support necessary to sustain maximum combat capability and effectiveness. ## Footnote a Air Force Medical Service b. National Security Council System c. Joint Strategic Planning System d. Air Reserve Component

a. Air Force Medical Service

38.__is the movement, or relocation, of forces (people, ammunition, equipment, supplies) to a desired area of operation. ## Footnote a. contingency b. deployment c. assumption d. employment

b. Deployment

39. The__includes common user assets, such as global mobility forces, special recovery forces, space forces, and other uniquely categorized forces that provide support to the Department of Defense. ## Footnote a. in-place support b. Enabler force c. readily available force d. institutional force

b. Enabler force

40. __has a threefold purpose. One purpose is to provide data critical to crisis planning. ## Footnote a. JOPES b. MPERS c. IDP d. SORTS

d. SORTS

41. The__is a C2 function activated to oversee the mission operation of the installation. ## Footnote a. crisis action b. incident commander c. contamination control team d. empergency operation center

a. Crisis action

42. A military map, also known as a _map, is a graphic representation of the earth's surface to include man-made features as well as natural features through the use of symbols, lines, colors, and forms. ## Footnote a. topographical b. city c. highway d. off-road

a. Topographical

43. The _is the area where the actual incident occurred, and contamination exists. ## Footnote a. warm zone b. cold zone c. hot zone d. battlefield

c. Hot zone

44. Patient movement is composed of two sequential steps: regulating and__. ## Footnote a. reporting b. moving c. operating d. organizing

b.moving

45. The CONUS reception aerial port. is responsible for coordinating ## Footnote a. JPMRC b. EMEDS c. TPMRC-A d. aerial port

c. TPMRC-A

46. In the AE system, a medical attendant is classified as a: ## Footnote a. 2A b. 3B c. 6A d. 7A

c. 6A

47.__ is the precedence used for stable patients capable of waiting up to 72 hours for evacuation on the next scheduled mission. ## Footnote a. routine b. ASAP c. urgent d. priority

a. routine

48. What is the form number for the Aeromedical evacuation patient record? ## Footnote a. AF Form 210 b. DD Form 2766 c. AF Form 3899 d. AF Form 560

c. AF Form 3899

49. Class_ patients, or litter patients, are required to be on litters when they move. ## Footnote a. 2 b. 3 c. 6 d. 7

a. 2

50. __at locations where RONs (remaining over night) occur are responsible for the care of patients and securing medical records and narcotics during the stop. ## Footnote a. MTF commanders b. attending physician c. TPMRC d. Flight nurse

a. MTF commanders

51. True or False. The Integrated Disability Evaluation System is a DOD program that exists to help the Air Force, Army, Navy, and Marine Corps determine whether wounded, ill, or injured service members are able to continue to serve.

a. True

52. A __ is a condition or occurrence that may indicate a member has a health condition that is inconsistent with retention standards or deployability. ## Footnote a. profile condition b. defect c. trigger event d. accident

c. trigger event

53. True or False. An assignment availability code is both a medical and personnelist code.

b. false

54. What is the correct form number for the Duty Limiting Condition Report? ## Footnote a.AF Form 3766 b. AF Form 469 c. AF Form 910 d. AF Form 2766

b. AF Form 469

55. The __ is responsible for obtaining, assembling, and forwarding all documents and records required by the PEB. ## Footnote a. MTF commander b. MSC C. MEB clerk d. PEBLO

d. PEBLO

56. __ are assigned to members whose medical conditions are expected to result in their separation from active duty. ## Footnote a. federal recovery coordinator b. case manager c. attending physician d. wounded warrior representative

a. federal recovery coordinator

57. The purpose of the __ is to ensure individuals selected and retained are emotionally stable and physically capable, and have demonstrated reliability and professional competence to perform duties with nuclear weapons or to provide presidential support. ## Footnote a. Mental Health Services flight b. Nuclear Assurance Program c. Sensitive Duty Program . d. Safe Military Program

c. Sensitive Duty Program

58. Category_ personnel assigned on a permanent or full-time basis to duties in support of the president or vice president (to include all individuals under his or her control). ## Footnote a. 1 b. 2 c. A d. B

b. 2

59. The Category __ discrepancy reporting program tracks and manages high priority and mission affecting processes and programs. ## Footnote a. I b. III c. IV d. VI

a. I (one)

60. When a person is NOT reliable, what type of PRP disqualification will they get? ## Footnote a. suspension b. temporary c. permanent d. fatal

c. permanent

61. True or False. An operating budget account number is a four-position alpha or numeric control code identifying fund accounts to which operation and maintenance and military funds are authorized.

a. true

62. True or False. The fourth quarter runs from 1 January through 31 March.

b. false

63. The is the HIGHEST level of accounting. ## Footnote a. summary account b. sub-account c. MAJCOM account d. functional account code

d. functional account code

64. __ collect operating expenses when two or more work centers share physical space, personnel, and/or supplies. ## Footnote a. sub-accounts b. cost pools c. ambulatory care centers d. summary accounts

b. cost pools

65. __ are expenses charged directly to a FCC work center. ## Footnote a. direct expenses b. step-down expenses c. critical expenses d. medical expenses

a. direct expenses

66. The __ field shows the grade that the military can provide for the position. ## Footnote a. required grade b. AFSC c. NCO d. funded grade

d. funded grade

67. True or False. The UPMR is a by name personnel roster reflecting authorized position number, AFSC, authorized grade, FAC, and PAS.

a. true

68. True or False. Not all people who become a member of the armed forces incur a military service obligation.

b. false

69. __ is an authorized absence granted to members who are under medical or dental care as part of the treatment prescribed for recuperation. ## Footnote a. emergency leave b. leave enroute c. convalescent leave d. terminal leave

c. convalescent leave

70. _ awards are for military units that distinguish themselves during peacetime or in action against hostile forces or an armed enemy of the United States. ## Footnote a. unit b. valor c. defense d. achievement

a. unit

71. The _listing contains a list of Airmen projected to the unit. ## Footnote a. newcomer's b. personnel c. alpha roster d. gains

d. gains

72. What is the form number for the AB - TSgt performance report? ## Footnote a. AF Form 77 b. AF Form 910 c. AF Form 911 d. AF Form 707

b. AF Form 910

73. What is the form number for the Letter of Evaluation (LOE) sheet? ## Footnote a. AF Form 77 b. AF Form 910 c. AF Form 911 d. AF Form 707

a. AF Form 77

74. True or False. Air Force manuals (AFMAN) are not usually extensions of instructions, providing additional guidance for performing standard tasks, or supporting education and training programs.

b. false

75. Periodical mail consists of __ and periodical publications issued regularly and on a continuing basis. ## Footnote a. junk mail b. first class mail c. large envelopes d. newspapers

d. newspapers

76. Who has been designated the authority to order, receive, and sign for medical supplies and equipment material? ## Footnote a. logistics technician b. property custodians c. NCOIC, Supply d. First Sergeant

b. property custodians

77. True or False. The overall goal of forward logistics is to develop a proactive logistics function that is responsive to customer needs.

a. true

78. When you assume custodial responsibility, the base __ provides you with a custodian receipt/location list (CR/LL) showing all property charged to the custodian's account. ## Footnote a. Commander b. Property custodian c. PEBLO d. MEMO

d. MEMO

79. True or False. The purpose of the CR/LL is to indicate each specific item for which a custodian is responsible.

a. true

80. On the issue and turn-in summary report, section A includes: ## Footnote a. Issues b. Issue reversal c. Turn-in d. Turn-in reversal

a. Issues