CDC 3E052C Volume 2. Engine Systems Flashcards

0
Q
  1. (201) What tool do you use when you must tighten a nut or bolt to a given amount of pressure?
    a. Torque handle.
    b. Ratchet handle.
    c. Boxed end wrench.
    d. Open ended wrench.
A

A. Torque handle.

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1
Q
  1. (201) What tool measures the depth of an item?

a. Caliper.
b. Depth gage.
c. Torque handle.
d. Outside micrometer.

A

B. Depth gage.

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2
Q
  1. (201) To what accuracy does the micrometer measure?
    a. One hundredth (0.01) of an inch.
    b. One thousandth (.001) of an inch.
    c. One ten-thousandth (0.0001) of an inch.
    d. One hundred-thousandth (0.00001) of an inch.
A

C. One ten-thousandth (0.0001) of an inch.

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3
Q
  1. (201) What part of the micrometer is the support for all the components?

a. Anvil.
b. Frame.
c. Spindle.
d. Thimble.

A

B. Frame.

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4
Q
  1. (201) What part of the micrometer is the stationary measuring surface?

a. Anvil.
b. Frame.
c. Spindle.
d. Thimble.

A

A. Anvil.

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5
Q
  1. (201) What part of the micrometer has a stationary scale that is graduated in twenty-five thousandths of an inch?

a. Anvil.
b. Barrel.
c. Frame.
d. Spindle.

A

B. Barrel.

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6
Q
  1. (201) Once you reach a certain pressure, what part of the micrometer starts to slip in the direction in which you are turning it?

a. Lock.
b. Barrel.
c. Frame.
d. Ratchet stop.

A

D. Ratchet stop.

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7
Q
  1. (201) What part of the micrometer secures the thimble in place and to protect against the accidental moving of the scale once you take the measurement?

a. Lock.
b. Barrel.
c. Frame.
d. Ratchet stop.

A

A. Lock.

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8
Q
  1. (201) What tightness indicates you are to stop turning the thimble of the micrometer when you are measuring a component?

a. Snug fit.
b. Finger tight.
c. Hardly touching.
d. Properly torqued.

A

A. Snug fit.

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9
Q
  1. (202) What component converts reciprocating motion, up and down, into rotary motion, round and round?

a. Bearings.
b. Camshaft.
c. Crankshaft.
d. Rocker arms.

A

C. Crankshaft.

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10
Q
  1. (202) What is the name of the top of the piston?

a. Skirt.
b. Rings.
c. Crown.
d. Grooves.

A

C. Crown.

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11
Q
  1. (202) What component transfers the power of the piston to the crankshaft?
    a. Flywheel.
    b. Camshaft.
    c. Valve train.
    d. Connecting rod.
A

D. Connecting rod.

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12
Q
  1. (202) What component forms the top of the combustion chamber?
    a. Liner.
    b. Block.
    c. Piston.
    d. Cylinder head.
A

D. Cylinder head.

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13
Q
  1. (202) What type of energy does the flywheel continually store and release to smooth the erratic operation of the engine?

a. Heat.
b. Kinetic.
c. Hydraulic.
d. Pneumatic.

A

B. Kinetic.

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14
Q
  1. (203) What term describes the complete movement of a piston?
    a. Cycle.
    b. Stroke.
    c. Scavenging.
    d. Compression ratio.
A

B. Stroke.

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15
Q
  1. (203) What term describes a complete series of events?

a. Cycle.
b. Stroke.
c. Scavenging.
d. Compression ratio.

A

A. Cycle.

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16
Q
  1. (203) What term describes the use of fresh air entering the combustion chamber and pushing the burned gases out?

a. Cycle.
b. Scavenging.
c. Valve overlap.
d. Compression ignition.

A

B. Scavenging.

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17
Q
  1. (204) On a two stroke engine, how long does the power stroke continue?
    a. Until the intake valve opens.
    b. Until the exhaust valve opens.
    c. Until the piston begins the upward movement.
    d. Until the piston begins the downward movement.
A

B. Until the exhaust valve opens.

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18
Q
  1. (204) On a two stroke engine, what pushes the exhaust gases out of the combustion chamber?
    a. The inrush of intake air.
    b. The opening of the exhaust port.
    c. The upward movement of the piston.
    d. The downward movement of the piston.
A

A. The inrush of intake air.

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19
Q
  1. (204) On a two stroke engine, what creates this movement of intake air?
    a. Blower.
    b. Vacuum.
    c. Centrifugal force.
    d. Atmospheric pressure.
A

A. Blower.

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20
Q
  1. (204) On a two stroke engine, what is the position of the valves and how is the piston moving during the compression event?

a. Both valves closed and the piston moving upward.
b. Both valves open and the piston moving downward.
c. Intake valve closed, exhaust valve open, and the piston moving upward.
d. Intake valve open, exhaust valve closed, and the piston moving downward.

A

A. Both valves closed and the piston moving upward.

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21
Q
  1. (204) On a two stroke engine, what is the position of the valves and how is the piston moving during the power event?

a. Both valves closed and the piston moving upward.
b. Both valves open and the piston moving downward.
c. Intake valve closed, exhaust valve open, and the piston moving upward.
d. Intake valve open, exhaust valve closed, and the piston moving downward.

A

B. Both valves open and the piston moving downward

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22
Q
  1. (205) What provides an electrical spark in the combustion chamber at the proper time to ignite the air/fuel mixture?

a. Carburetor.
b. Spark plug.
c. Distributor cap.
d. Ignition system.

A

D. Ignition system.

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23
Q
  1. (205) What prevents the voltage in an ignition system from arcing across the breaker points, causing them to burn?

a. Coil.
b. Magnetic.
c. Condenser.
d. Distributor.

A

C. Condenser.

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24
Q
  1. (205) What type of ignition system uses a permanent magnet to provide the power?

a. Coil.
b. Battery.
c. Induced.
d. Magneto.

A

D. Magneto.

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25
Q
  1. (205) When you make an adjustment the low-speed air/fuel mixture by initially adjusting the needle valve all the way in, what adjustment do you then make?

a. Turning it in 1-1⁄2 turns.
b. Turning it in 3 turns.
c. Backing it off 1-1⁄2 turns.
d. Backing it off 3 turns.

A

C. Backing it off 1-1⁄2 turns.

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26
Q
  1. (205) What can you use to get better adjustments of the air/fuel mixtures of a carburetor?

a. Stethoscope.
b. Dwell meter.
c. Vacuum gauge.
d. barometer.

A

C. Vacuum gauge.

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27
Q
  1. (205) What do you use to check the gap of a spark plug to make sure it is at the specified distance?

a. Ruler.
b. Caliper.
c. Thickness gauge.
d. Inside micrometer.

A

C. Thickness gauge.

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28
Q
  1. (206) What fits into irregularities that exist on surfaces as you connect two engine components?
    a. Gaskets.
    b. Wedges.
    c. Lock tight.
    d. Sealing compound.
A

A. Gaskets.

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29
Q
  1. (206) Generally, from where do you remove the camshaft from the engine?
    a. Side of the engine.
    b. Front of the engine.
    c. Top of the engine
    d. Back of the engine.
A

B. Front of the engine.

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30
Q
  1. (206) How do you time camshafts of gear-driven diesels to the crankshaft?
    a. Measure the distance between the gear teeth.
    b. Set the engine at the valve adjustment position.
    c. Count the number of gear teeth from the dots on the gear.
    d. Aligning special marks placed on the gears by the manufacturer.
A

D. Aligning special marks placed on the gears by the manufacturer.

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31
Q
  1. (206) Generally in how many stages do you tighten the cylinder head to the specified torque?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

A

C. 3.

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32
Q
  1. (207) What type of corrosion can be one of the most common forms of corrosion as well as one of the most destructive?

a. Stress.
b. Pitting.
c. Galvanic.
d. Exfoliation.

A

C. Galvanic.

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33
Q
  1. (207) What type of corrosion do we find most on aluminum?

a. Stress.
b. Pitting.
c. Galvanic.
d. Exfoliation.

A

B. Pitting.

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34
Q
  1. (207) What type of corrosion is a further form of inter-granular corrosion associated with high strength aluminum alloys?

a. Stress.
b. Pitting.
c. Galvanic.
d. Exfoliation.

A

D. Exfoliation.

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35
Q
  1. (207) What is the key to a good corrosion control program?
    a. Catching it early.
    b. Preventive maintenance.
    c. Cleaning it when you find it.
    d. Clean the corrosion when it gets severe.
A

B. Preventive maintenance.

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36
Q
  1. (208) How does oil with high viscosity flow and pour?

a. Readily.
b. Quickly.
c. Effortlessly.
d. In a sluggish manner.

A

D. In a sluggish manner.

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37
Q
  1. (208) What characteristic does oil with the grade of Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) 5W– 40 contain during cold winter months?

a. SAE 5W.
b. SAE 20W.
c. SAE 40.
d. SAE 45.

A

A. SAE 5W.

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38
Q
  1. (208) What is the ability of a thin layer of oil to hold together when we apply heavy loads to it?
    a. Film strength.
    b. Detergency.
    c. Pour point.
    d. Viscosity.
A

A. Film strength.

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39
Q
  1. (208) What is the property that makes oil capable of holding foreign particles suspended until the filter can remove them?

a. Film strength.
b. Detergency.
c. Pour point.
d. Viscosity.

A

B. Detergency.

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40
Q
  1. (208) Against what does the protective film of oil seal the internal engine parts?
    a. Fuel in the oil.
    b. Coolant in the crankcase.
    c. Oxygen and moisture in the air.
    d. Condensation in the combustion chamber.
A

C. Oxygen and moisture in the air.

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41
Q
  1. (209) Which oil pressure gauge uses direct pressure on the gauge to indicate the pressure?

a. Electrical.
b. Hydraulic.
c. Pnuematic.
d. Mechanical.

A

D. Mechanical.

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42
Q
  1. (209) What is a protective device that shuts the engine down if oil pressure gets low?
    a. Oil pressure switch.
    b. Oil temperature switch.
    c. Oil pressure sending unit.
    d. Oil temperature sending unit.
A

A. Oil pressure switch.

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43
Q
  1. (210) Where does oil go once the cool, clean oil leaves the filter?
    a. Oil filter.
    b. Oil cooler.
    c. Main oil gallery.
    d. Pressure relief valve.
A

C. Main oil gallery.

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44
Q
  1. (210) What is one way for oil to get to and spray the valve train components?
    a. Connecting rods.
    b. Hollow push rods.
    c. Camshaft passages.
    d. Crankshaft passages.
A

B. Hollow push rods.

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45
Q
  1. (210) What can reduce the cooling capacity of the oil storage system?
    a. Low oil levels.
    b. High oil levels.
    c. Low coolant levels.
    d. High coolant levels.
A

A. Low oil levels.

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46
Q
  1. (211) What component collects most contaminates in the lubricating oil?

a. Oil filter.
b. Oil cooler.
c. Oil strainer.
d. Relief valve.

A

A. Oil filter.

47
Q
  1. (211) For how long do you operate the engine before you change the engine oil?
    a. Long enough to fill the filter.
    b. Until it reaches operating temperature.
    c. Until the temperature registers on the gauge.
    d. No need to operate the engine before an oil change.
A

B. Until it reaches operating temperature.

48
Q
  1. (211) You are adding new oil into the system; before you close the drain to push the old oil remaining in the bottom of the sump out, when do you close the drain?

a. After you add a quart of oil.
b. After oil begins to pour out of the drain again.
c. Once you can begin to see some of the new oil.
d. Once the oil pouring out of the drain becomes clear.

A

D. Once the oil pouring out of the drain becomes clear.

49
Q
  1. (212) What, in addition to sulfur from the fuel, may get into the engine oil and form sulfuric acid?
    a. Sodium from the cooling system.
    b. Nitrogen from the lubricating system.
    c. Air from the intake or exhaust system.
    d. Water from the cooling system or condensation.
A

D. Water from the cooling system or condensation.

50
Q
  1. (212) What is the dilution level of fuel of the test sample you create a by adding fuel to a sample of new oil.?

a. 1 percent.
b. 3 percent.
c. 5 percent.
d. 10 percent.

A

C. 5 percent.

51
Q
  1. (213) If you are required to replace the oil pump, what must you do prior to replacing the pump?
    a. Drain part of the oil.
    b. Be sure the engine is cool.
    c. Drain the coolant below the oil sump.
    d. Operate the engine until it reaches operating temperature.
A

B. Be sure the engine is cool.

52
Q
  1. (213) What provides the oil pressure gauge with an electrical signal to allow you to read the oil pressure at which the engine is operating?

a. Oil pressure switch.
b. Oil temperature switch.
c. Oil pressure sending unit.
d. Oil temperature sending unit.

A

C. Oil pressure sending unit.

53
Q
  1. (213) To replace an oil pressure switch, how do you prevent the generator from starting?
    a. Remove the starter motor.
    b. Open the alternating current (AC) circuit breaker.
    c. Close the direct current (DC) circuit breaker.
    d. Disconnect the negative side of the battery.
A

D. Disconnect the negative side of the battery.

54
Q
  1. (214) What is usually constructed in a series of wooden slats, one above the other, set in at an angle?

a. Radiator.
b. Cooling ponds.
c. Cooling towers.
d. Heat exchanger.

A

C. Cooling towers.

55
Q
  1. (214) What type of system allows the coolant’s boiling point to rise, allowing more effective cooling of the engine?

a. Use chemicals.
b. Use of inhibitors.
c. Pressurized system.
d. Unpressurized system.

A

C. Pressurized system.

56
Q
  1. (214) What type of system uses a radiator to cool the hot liquid as it leaves the engine and is the most common system you work with in the power production field?

a. Open.
b. Closed.
c. Assorted.
d. Combination.

A

B. Closed.

57
Q
  1. (214) What type of system uses cooling water to collect the heat from the jacket water in the heat exchanger, which then flows through a cooling tower?

a. Open.
b. Closed.
c. Assorted.
d. Combination.

A

D. Combination.

58
Q
  1. (214) What directs the air to the proper sections of an engine to gather heat and then directs it back into the atmosphere?

a. Radial fan.
b. Cooling fins.
c. Natural air flow.
d. Special shrouding.

A

D. Special shrouding.

59
Q
  1. (215) A thermostat operates using a theory of

a. opening and closing.
b. curtailing and narrowing.
c. extending and broadening.
d. expansion and contraction.

A

D. expansion and contraction.

60
Q
  1. (215) What causes the need to use a wire-reinforced hose in the cooling system to prevent the hose’s collapse?

a. Low pressure from the engine.
b. Extreme heat from the radiator.
c. High suction from the water pump.
d. Excessive strain from the thermostat.

A

C. High suction from the water pump.

61
Q
  1. (215) What collects the heat from the coolant in a radiator to transfer it to the air?
    a. Fins.
    b. Tank.
    c. Radial fan.
    d. Fan shrouding.
A

A. Fins.

62
Q
  1. (215) What uses an airtight fit onto the radiator and close tolerances with the cooling fan to prevent recirculation of the hot air into the radiator?

a. Fins.
b. Tank.
c. Radial fan.
d. Fan shrouds.

A

D. Fan shrouds.

63
Q
  1. (215) What two factors determine whether the fan is suction or blowing?
    a. Shape of the blade and the direction that the fan spins.
    b. Pitch of the blade and the direction that the fan spins.
    c. Shape of the blade and natural movement of the air.
    d. Pitch of the blade and natural movement of the air.
A

B. Pitch of the blade and the direction that the fan spins.

64
Q
  1. (215) What drives the fan on an air cooled engine either directly or through gears?

a. Flywheel.
b. Camshaft.
c. Crankshaft.
d. Valve train.

A

C. Crankshaft.

65
Q
  1. (216) Where does coolant enter the engine to ensure there is always coolant in contact with all internal engine components?

a. Middle portion.
b. Lower portion.
c. Upper portion.
d. Side portion.

A

B. Lower portion.

66
Q
  1. (216) What causes coolant to recirculate the coolant back to the water pump to pass through the water jacket again?

a. Thermostat closing.
b. Thermostat opening.
c. Radiator valve closing.
d. Radiator valve opening.

A

A. Thermostat closing.

67
Q
  1. (216) What allows coolant in the radiator core to cool for a longer period of time before it reenters the water jacket?

a. Thermostat closing.
b. Thermostat opening.
c. Radiator valve closing.
d. Radiator valve opening.

A

B. Thermostat opening.

68
Q
  1. (216) At what pressures do most cooling systems operate?

a. 3 to 5 psi.
b. 10 to 15 psi.
c. 20 to 25 psi.
d. 40 to 50 psi

A

B. 10 to 15 psi.

69
Q
  1. (216) What opens a valve on the radiator cap, thus allowing coolant to move from the expansion tank to the radiator?

a. Vacuum.
b. Pressure.
c. Pneumatics.
d. Temperature.

A

A. Vacuum.

70
Q
  1. (217) What coolant additive is critical for summer time operations because it also raises the temperature at which water boils?

a. Boric acetate.
b. Ethylene glycol.
c. Nitrogen silicone.
d. Hydrogen oxidant.

A

B. Ethylene glycol.

71
Q
  1. (217) What mixture of coolant provides protection to –60oF?
    a. 25 percent ethylene glycol to 75 percent water.
    b. 50 percent ethylene glycol to 50 percent water.
    c. 60 percent ethylene glycol to 40 percent water.
    d. 80 percent ethylene glycol to 20 percent water.
A

C. 60 percent ethylene glycol to 40 percent water.

72
Q
  1. (217) How do you add antifreeze to an engine while it is operating?
    a. Mix it with a large amount of inhibitors.
    b. Add straight water directly into the radiator.
    c. Mix it thoroughly with a small amount of water.
    d. Add straight antifreeze directly into the radiator.
A

C. Mix it thoroughly with a small amount of water.

73
Q
  1. (217) When do you look for any changes as you mix the solution to for diesel coolant additives (DCA)?

a. After each drop.
b. After every five drops.
c. Once you have added the entire sample.
d. Once you begin to see slight changes in texture.

A

A. After each drop.

74
Q
  1. (218) For what do you inspect the water pump impeller’s ceramic seal?
    a. Leaks, vibrations, and cracks.
    b. Soot pockets, corrosion, and chips.
    c. Chips, cracks, and rough conditions.
    d. Corrosion, vibrations, and deformities.
A

C. Chips, cracks, and rough conditions.

75
Q
  1. (218) When you are inspecting a radiator, what must be straight and free of debris?

a. Cap.
b. Fins.
c. Tank.
d. Hoses.

A

B. Fins.

76
Q
  1. (218) Where do you check the tension of belts using the back of your hand and a ruler?
    a. At the upper pulley.
    b. At the lower pulley.
    c. Midway between the pulleys.
    d. Anywhere between the pulleys.
A

C. Midway between the pulleys.

77
Q
  1. (218) What property of belts causes you to always replace belts as a set?
    a. Dry rot over time.
    b. Deteriorate over time.
    c. Stretch slightly over time.
    d. None, belts do not need to be replaced as a set.
A

C. Stretch slightly over time.

78
Q
  1. (219) What coolant heater is installed internally in the engine block in place of a freeze plug?

a. Blanket.
b. Circulating.
c. Direct heat.
d. Immersion.

A

D. Immersion.

79
Q
  1. (219) Into what engine component are glow plugs installed?
    a. Cylinder head.
    b. Intake manifolds.
    c. Air filter housing.
    d. Exhaust manifold.
A

B. Intake manifolds.

80
Q
  1. (220) What component do two stroke engines have that serves the same purpose as the intake manifold of four-stroke engines?

a. Blower.
b. Air box.
c. Intercooler.
d. Intake ports.

A

B. Air box.

81
Q
  1. (220) How many lobes do the blowers most commonly used on today’s engines have on each rotor?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

A

B. 3.

82
Q
  1. (220) What type of blower is a turbocharger that is driven by the exhaust gases?

a. Radial.
b. Gear type.
c. Centrifugal.
d. Sliding vane.

A

C. Centrifugal.

83
Q
  1. (221) In what component might you see leaks because of the carbon-colored discoloration of parts or surfaces adjacent to the leak?

a. Blower.
b. Intercooler.
c. Intake manifold.
d. Exhaust manifold.

A

D. Exhaust manifold.

84
Q
  1. (221) In what component can you often see a leak as dust or smoke blowing from the joint during startup to identify a leak?

a. Blower.
b. Intercooler.
c. Expansion joint.
d. Intake manifold.

A

C. Expansion joint.

85
Q
  1. (221) What is a major factor in erosion in the exhaust silencer?
    a. Acidity in the oil.
    b. Condensation in the air.
    c. Corrosive in the coolant.
    d. Contamination in the fuel oil.
A

D. Contamination in the fuel oil.

86
Q
  1. (222) What does supporting the entire weight of the muffler prevent, which eliminates premature failure?

a. Failure of the muffler.
b. Cracks in the intercooler.
c. Stress to the intake system.
d. Overstressing the expansion joint.

A

D. Overstressing the expansion joint.

87
Q
  1. (223) What is created by using gear reduction starters that use an internal gear to drive the pinion gear?

a. Increases the amount of torque at the flywheel.
b. Decreases the amount of torque at the flywheel.
c. Increase the amount of horsepower at the crankshaft.
d. Decreases the amount of horsepower at the crankshaft.

A

A. Increases the amount of torque at the flywheel.

88
Q
  1. (223) What prevents damage to the starter motor during engine startup from overspeed conditions?

a. Bendix.
b. Overrun clutch.
c. Mechanical shift linkage.
d. Brushes and commentator.

A

B. Overrun clutch.

89
Q
  1. (224) What battery charger component decreases the input voltage to required output voltage to provide the battery with a charge?
    a. Voltmeter.
    b. Load switch.
    c. Power diode.
    d. Power transformer.
A

D. Power transformer.

90
Q
  1. (224) What battery charger component rectifies alternating current output of power transformer to direct current.?
    a. Voltmeter.
    b. Load switch.
    c. Power diode.
    d. Power transformer.
A

c. Power diode.

91
Q
  1. (224) What is the insulated wire of the coil, also called the field winding, wrapped around?
    a. Air core.
    b. Soft iron core.
    c. Magnetic core.
    d. Stainless steel core.
A

b. Soft iron core.

92
Q
  1. (224) What component is the stationary conductor on the battery-charging alternator?
    a. Rotor.
    b. Stator.
    c. Commutater.
    d. Rectifier assembly.
A

b. Stator.

93
Q
  1. (225) What do we consider less fuel in the mixture to be?
    a. Rich.
    b. Thin.
    c. Lean.
    d. Thick.
A

c. Lean.

94
Q
  1. (225) What part of the carburetor maintains a constant level of fuel in the bowl?
    a. Float.
    b. Choke.
    c. Nozzle.
    d. Venturi.
A

a. Float.

95
Q
  1. (201) What part of the micrometer is the stationary measuring surface?

A. Frame
B. Spindle
C. Thimble
D. Anvil

A

D. Anvil

96
Q
  1. (221) In what component might you see leaks because of the carbon-colored discoloration of parts or surfaces adjacent to the leak?

A. Intercooler
B. Intake manifold
C. Exhaust manifold
D. Blower

A

C. Exhaust manifold

97
Q
  1. (223) When you are making adjustments to the magnetic pickup, what is the maximum that you turn it in at any time?

A. 1 turn
B. 1/4 turn
C. 1/8 turn
D. 1/2 turn

A

C. 1/8 turn

98
Q
  1. (210) What can reduce the coolant capacity of the oil storage system?

A. Low coolant level.
B. High oil levels.
C. High coolant levels.
D. Low oil levels.

A

D. Low oil levels.

99
Q
  1. (216) What causes coolant to recirculate the coolant back to the water pump to pass through the water jacket again?

a. Radiator valve closing.
b. Thermostat opening.
c. Radiator valve opening.
d. Thermostat closing.

A

d. Thermostat closing.

100
Q
  1. (210) What can reduce the cooling capacity of the oil storage system?

a. Low coolant levels.
b. High oil levels.
c. High coolant levels.
d. Low oil levels.

A

d. Low oil levels.

101
Q
  1. (216) Where does coolant enter the engine to ensure there is always coolant in contact with all internal engine components?

a. Middle portion.
b. Upper portion.
c. Lower portion.
d. Side portion.

A

c. Lower portion.

102
Q
  1. (228) What type of distribution-type injection pump has a single-cylinder, opposed-plunger pump?

a. Cummins.
b. Bosch.
c. Roosa Master.
d. AMBAC.

A

c. Roosa Master.

103
Q
  1. (207) What type of corrosion do we find most on aluminum?

a. Pitting.
b. Stress.
c. Exfoliation.
d. Galvanic

A

a. Pitting.

104
Q
  1. (216) at what pressures do most cooling systems operate?

a. 20 to 25 psi.
b. 10 to 15 psi.
c. 3 to 5 psi.
d. 40 to 50 psi.

A

b. 10 to 15 psi.

105
Q
  1. (209) What is a protective device that shuts the engine down if oil pressure gets low?

a. Oil pressure switch.
b. Oil temperature sending unit.
c. Oil pressure sending unit.
d. Oil temperature switch.

A

a. Oil pressure switch.

106
Q
  1. (214) What is usually constructed in a series of wooden slats, one above the other, set in at an angle?

a. Cooling ponds.
b. Heat exchanger.
c. Radiator.
d. Cooling towers.

A

d. Cooling towers.

107
Q
  1. (233) What electronic governor adjustment sets the sensitivity of the module?

a. Droop
b. Stability.
c. Running speed.
d. Gain.

A

d. Gain.

108
Q
  1. (216) what allows coolant in the radiator core to cool for a long period of time before it re-enters the water jacket?

a. Thermostat closing.
b. Radiator valve closing.
c. Thermostat opening.
d. Radiator valve opening.

A

a. Thermostat closing.

109
Q
  1. (226) when you are adjusting the idle speed on a carburetor, what are you adjusting by turning the screw in (clockwise)?

a. Increase the fuel mixture to the engine.
b. Decrease the fuel mixture to the engine.
c. Decrease the engine speed.
d. Increase the engine speed.

A

d. Increase the engine speed.

110
Q
  1. (227) What fuel system component may be inside or outside the facility and should hold enough fuel to last for at least 72 hours of operation at full load?

a. Transfer pump.
b. Storage tank.
c. Injector pump.
d. Day tank.

A

b. Storage tank.

111
Q
  1. (227) What happens as the plunger moves downward in a mechanical injector?

a. Increasing the pressure of the fuel in the cup.
b. Closing the spray cup.
c. Opening a metering orifice.
d. Opening the injector spray nozzle.

A

a. Increasing the pressure of the fuel in the cup.

112
Q
  1. (229) What fuel system component can cause the cylinder head valve seats to be warped if you over tighten the clamp studs?

a. Fuel lines.
b. Injector.
c. Injector pump.
d. Filter.

A

b. Injector.

113
Q
  1. (228) In a Roosa Master type of distributor-type injection pump, what do the pistons follow to pressurize the fuel?

a. Plungers.
b. Camshaft.
c. Cam ring.
d. Valve train.

A

c. Cam ring.

114
Q
  1. (229) Which fuel injection system does not require timing since it is simply a medium pressure transfer pump?

a. Multiple plunger inline fuel injection system.
b. Unit fuel injection system.
c. Distributor-type fuel system
d. Cummins pressure timed (PT) fuel system.

A

d. Cummins pressure timed (PT) fuel system.

115
Q
  1. (227) As the plunger of a mechanical injector moves up, what allows fuel to flow into the injector cup?

a. Opening the injector spray nozzle.
b. Pressure of the fuel in the cup increases.
c. Closing the spray cup.
d. Opening the metering orifice.

A

d. Opening the metering orifice.