cd3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a chemical-related health hazard?

A. Carcinogenicity
B. Reactivity
C. Corrosivity
D. Toxicity

A

Reactivity

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2
Q

Which of the following color is used for radiation hazard?

A. Red
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Purple

A

Purple

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3
Q

The reason for considering safety include

A. Humanitarian concern
B. Economic reasons
C. Laws and Regulations
D. All the above

A

All the above

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4
Q

Which of this best describes “the likelihood of an incident occurring”?

A. Risk
B. Hazard
C. An event
D. An episode

A

Risk

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5
Q

Which of these is the first step to take when
conducting a risk assessment?

A. Evaluate the risk
B. Identify the hazards
C. Review your findings
D. Update risk assessments

A

Identify the hazards

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6
Q

Which of these is NOT a probable physical hazardous characteristic of a chemical?

A. Flammable
B. Acute
C. Corrosive
D. Reactive

A

Acute

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7
Q

Which of the following words is used to correspond with the most toxic material?

A. Hazard
B. Caution
C. Warning
D. Danger

A

Danger

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8
Q

When a chemical splashes in the eye rinse for

A. 10 seconds
B. 5 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 15 minutes

A

15 minutes

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9
Q

Radiation that causes redness and sores on the skin is

A. gamma only
B. beta only
C. alpha
D. gamma and beta

A

gamma and beta

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10
Q

The three forms of ionizing radiation are:

A. Microwave, alpha, beta
B. Visible light, x-ray, gamma
C. Gamma, alpha, beta
D. X-ray, laser, microwave

A

Gamma, alpha, beta

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11
Q

Gamma radiation can be shielded with:

A. Paper
B. Your skin
C. Aluminum
D. Lead

A

Lead

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12
Q

Safety management deals with:

A. Loss of life
B. Personal injury
C. Damage to the equipment
D. Prevention of an accident

A

Prevention of an accident

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13
Q

Industrial hazards come under the category of:

A. Natural hazards
B. Human induced hazards
C. Meteorological hazard
D. Wild fire hazard

A

Human induced hazards

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14
Q

A ladder 20 ft long leans against a vertical wall. If the top slides downward at the rate of 2 ft/sec, find how fast the lower end is moving when it is 16 ft from the wall. Find the rate of change of the slope of the ladder.

A. 25/128 per sec
B. -25/128 per sec
C. 128/25 per sec
D. -128/25 per sec

A

-25/128 per sec

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15
Q

A man 6 ft tall walks away from a lamp post 16 ft high at the rate of 5 miles per hour. How fast does the end of his shadow move?

A. 3 mph
B. 5 mph
C. 6 mph
D. 8 mph

A

8 mph

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16
Q

A man 6 ft tall walks away from a lamp post 16 ft high at the rate of 5 miles per hour. How fast does the shadow lengthens?

A. 3 mph
B. 5 mph
C. 6 mph
D. 8 mph

A

3 mph

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17
Q

Which of the following is not a type of discontinuity?

A. Finite
B. Removable
C. Infinite
D. Jump

A

Finite

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18
Q

Find the derivative of cotx with respect to cosx.

A. -sec²x/cosx
B. sec²x/cosx
C. -csc²x/sinx
D. csc²x/sinx

A

csc²x/sinx

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19
Q

Determine the 3rd term of the Taylor series expansion of lnx centered at x = 2.

A. –(x – 2)³/24
B. (x – 2)³/6
C. (x – 2)³/24
D. –(x – 2)³/6

A

(x – 2)³/24

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20
Q

Determine the 3rd term of the Maclaurin series expansion of sinx.

A. x⁷/5040
B. x⁵/120
C. x⁴/24
D. –x⁵/120

A

x⁵/120

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21
Q

Which of the following is the second term of the standard Maclaurin series expansion of the function cosh(4x)?

A. 8x²
B. -27x³
C. (32x³)/3
D. 9x²

A

8x²

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22
Q

Denote ¶ be the partial derivative of a function u. Given the linear second-order partial differential equation

A [(∂²u)/(∂x²)] + B [(∂²u)/(∂x∂y)] + C [(∂²u)/(∂y²)] + D [(∂u)/(∂x)] + E [(∂u)/(∂y)] + Fu = 0

Where A, B, C, D, E and F are real constants. If B² – 4AC = 0, the above equation is

A. Asymptotic
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Elliptic

A

Parabolic

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23
Q

Denote ¶ be the partial derivative of a
function u. Given the linear second-order
partial differential equation

A [(∂²u)/(∂x²)] + B [(∂²u)/(∂x∂y)] + C [(∂²u)/(∂y²)] + D [(∂u)/(∂x)] + E [(∂u)/(∂y)] + Fu = 0

Where A, B, C, D, E and F are real constants. If B² – 4AC < 0, the above equation is

A. Asymptotic
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Elliptic

A

Elliptic

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24
Q

Denote ¶ be the partial derivative of a
function u. Given the linear second-order
partial differential equation

A [(∂²u)/(∂x²)] + B [(∂²u)/(∂x∂y)] + C [(∂²u)/(∂y²)] + D [(∂u)/(∂x)] + E [(∂u)/(∂y)] + Fu = 0

Where A, B, C, D, E and F are real constants. If B² – 4AC > 0, the above equation is

A. Asymptotic
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Elliptic

A

Hyperbolic

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25
Q

Which of the following differential equations is considered as Chebyshev’s equation?

A. (1 – x²)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
B. xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
C. y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
D. (1 – x²)y’’ – xy’ + n²y = 0

A

(1 – x²)y’’ – xy’ + n²y = 0

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26
Q

Which of the following differential equations is considered as Hermite’s equation?

A. (1 – x²)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
B. xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
C. y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
D. (1 – x²)y’’ – xy’ + n²y = 0

A

y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0

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27
Q

Which of the following differential equations is considered as Laguerre’s equation?

A. (1 – x²)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
B. xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
C. y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
D. (1 – x²)y’’ – xy’ + n²y = 0

A

xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0

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28
Q

Which of the following differential equations is considered as Legendre’s equation?

A. (1 – x²)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0
B. xy’’ + (c – x)y’ – ay = 0
C. y’’ – 2xy’ + 2ny = 0
D. (1 – x²)y’’ – xy’ + n²y = 0

A

(1 – x²)y’’ – 2xy’ + n(n + 1)y = 0

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29
Q

Your company estimates it will have to replace a piece of equipment at a cost of P800,000 in 5 years. To do this a sinking fund is established by making equal monthly payments into an account paying 6.6% compounded monthly. How much should each
payment be?

A. P11,290.42
B. P12,562.42
C. P14,987.42
D. P15,690.42

A

P11,290.42

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30
Q

Betty deposits P2000 annually into a Roth IRA that earns 6.85% compounded annually. Due to a change in employment, these deposits stop after 10 years, but the account continues to earn interest until Betty retires 25 years after the last deposit is made. How much is in the account when Betty retires?

A. P133,824.20
B. P143,785.10
C. P150,287.30
D. 161,724.40

A

P143,785.10

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31
Q

Mr. Khaild will receive P8,500 a year for the next 15 years from her trust. If a 7 percent interest rate is applied, what is the current value of the future payments if first receipt occurs today?

A. P56,243.88
B. P65,743.29
C. P70,707.14
D. P82,836.48

A

P82,836.48

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32
Q

Calculate the area enclosed by the curve
x» + y» - 10x + 4y - 196 = 0.

A. 15Ð
B. 13Ð
C. 169Ð
D. 225Ð

A

225Ð

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33
Q

A box contains 5 defective and 195 non-defective cell phones. A quality control engineer selects 2 cell phones at random without replacement. What is the probability that exactly 1 is defective?

A. 0.0190
B. 0.0490
C. 0.0390
D. 0.0290

A

0.0490

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34
Q

What is the centroid of a quarter circle along the first quadrant?

A. (0, 0)
B. (0.5, 0.5)
C. (0.42, 0.42)
D. (0.51, 0.51)

A

(0.42, 0.42)

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35
Q

What is the perimeter of the curve r = 4(1 + sinÕ).

A. 28
B. 30
C. 32
D. 34

A

32

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36
Q

Find the distance between foci of the conic 8x² + 9y² = 288.

A. 3
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2

A

4

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37
Q

Determine the equation of an open upward parabola with (2, 1) and (–4, 1) as ends of latus rectum.

A. x² + 2x - 6y - 2 = 0
B. x² + 2x + 6y - 14 = 0
C. x² + 6x - 2y - 14 = 0
D. x² - 6x + 2y + 6 = 0

A

x² + 2x - 6y - 2 = 0

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38
Q

Find the point in the parabola y² = 4x at which the rate of change of the ordinate and abscissa are equal.

A. (1, -2)
B. (2, 1)
C. (-2, 1)
D. (1, 2)

A

(1, 2)

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39
Q

Mar wants to make a box with no lid from a rectangular sheet of cardboard that is 18 inches by 24 inches. The box is to be made by cutting a square of side x from each corner of the sheet and folding up the sides. Find the value of x that maximizes the volume of the box.

A. 4.3in
B. 5.2in
C. 10.6in
D. 3.4in

A

3.4in

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40
Q

If a chord is selected at random on a fixed circle what is the probability that its length exceeds the radius of the circle? Assume that the distance of the chord from the center of the circle is uniformly distributed.

A. 0.5
B. 0.667
C. 0.75
D. 0.866

A

0.866

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41
Q

If a chord is selected at random on a fixed circle what is the probability that its length exceeds the radius of the circle? Assume that the midpoint of the chord is evenly distributed over the circle.

A. 0.5
B. 0.667
C. 0.75
D. 0.866

A

0.75

42
Q

If a chord is selected at random on a fixed circle what is the probability that its length exceeds the radius of the circle? Assume that the end points of the chord are uniformly distributed over the circumference of the circle.

A. 0.5
B. 0.667
C. 0.75
D. 0.866

A

0.667

43
Q

It refers to that field of chemistry dealing with the synthesis, processing and use of chemicals that reduce the risks to humans and the environment.

A. Green Day
B. Green Goblin
C. Green Chemistry
D. Green Engineering

A

Green Chemistry

44
Q

It is concerned with the design, commercialization, and use of all types of processes and products, whereas green chemistry covers only a very small subset of this—the development of chemical processes and products.

A. Green Day
B. Green Goblin
C. Green Chemistry
D. Green Engineering

A

Green Engineering

45
Q

It is defined as a chemical or physical condition that has the potential for causing damage to people, property, or the environment.

A. Risk
B. Disaster
C. Hazard
D. Pollution

A

Hazard

46
Q

It is copying of one’s written research without acknowledging the author.

A. plagiarism
B. infringement
C. cheating
D. confidential

A

plagiarism

47
Q

It is also known as the Toxic Substances and Hazardous Nuclear Wastes Control Act of 1990 is also known as ____.

A. RA 6969
B. RA 9669
C. RA 9696
D. RA9966

A

RA 6969

48
Q

Meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give something or to render.

A. contract
B. obligation
C. consent
D. partnership

A

contract

49
Q

A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.

A. permit
B. obligation
C. approval
D. righ

A

obligation

50
Q

Initial step in the formation of a contract.

A. offer
B. deal
C. transaction
D. call

A

offer

51
Q

The person who uses an invention for profit without the permission of the inventor is known as ____.

A. infringer
B. imposter
C. intruder
D. scammer

A

infringer

52
Q

What government agency supervises the Bureau of Patents, Trademarks and Technology transfer

A. DOST
B. DTI
C. DSWD
D. DPWH

A

DTI

53
Q

What is an Order or Writ to secure the attendance of witnesses in connection with any administrative case before the Board of Chemical Engineering?

A. search warrant
B. warrant of arrest
C. subpoena
D. subpoena duces tecum

A

subpoena

54
Q

What is an Order or Writ to secure the production of documents in connection with any administrative case before the Board of Chemical Engineering?

A. search warrant
B. warrant of arrest
C. subpoena
D. subpoena duces tecum

A

subpoena duces tecu

55
Q

What is the existing integrated and accredited national organization of registered Chemical Engineers?

A. Philippine Institution of Chemical Engineers, Inc.
B. Philippine Institute of Chemical Engineers, Inc.
C. Philippine Incorporated of Chemical Engineers, Inc.
D. Philippine Integration of Chemical Engineers, Inc.

A

Philippine Institute of Chemical Engineers, Inc.

56
Q

Engineers can become good managers only through

A. experience
B. taking master degree in management
C. effective career planning
D. trainings

A

effective career planning

57
Q

What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and goals?

A. planning
B. leading
C. controlling
D. organizing

A

planning

58
Q

What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?

A. planning
B. leading
C. controlling
D. organizing

A

organizing

59
Q

What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?

A. organizing
B. staffing
C. motivating
D. controlling

A

staffing

60
Q

What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling resources?

A. directing
B. planning
C. organizing
D. leading

A

directing

61
Q

Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function?

A. organizing
B. planning
C. controlling
D. staffing

A

controlling

62
Q

What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with great commitment and conviction?

A. staffing
B. motivating
C. controlling
D. leading

A

leading

63
Q

What refers to a principle function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?

A. directing
B. motivating
C. staffing
D. controlling

A

motivating

64
Q

This document may be issued by the Board of Chemical Engineering to a person for advanced studies and major accomplishments in research in chemical engineering.

A. certificate of registration
B. certificate of recognition
C. certificate of proficiency
D. certificate of exemption

A

certificate of recognition

65
Q

An industrial plant may be considered as

A. a big factory
B. a laboratory with pilot scale and industrial equipment
C. any entity that utilizes unit processes and unit operations
D. a waste treatment plan

A

any entity that utilizes unit processes and unit operations

66
Q

An integrated national professional organization that is duly accredited and recognized by the corresponding Board and the PRC is referred to as

A. Accredited Professional Organization
B. Recognized Professional Association
C. Accredited Professional Association
D. Accredited and Recognized Professional Organization

A

Accredited Professional Organization

67
Q

Decisions of the Board on cases filed before it is may be appealed for in

A. 1 year
B. 1 month
C. 15 days
D. 7 day

A

15 days

68
Q

Which of the following is not included in the powers and duties of the Board of Chemical Engineering?

A. supervise and regulate the practice of chemical engineering profession
B. issue warrant of arrest for violators of RA 9297
C. prosecute criminal action against violators of RA 9297
D. adopt official sea

A

issue warrant of arrest for violators of RA 9297

69
Q

Which of the following can practice chemical engineering?

A. licensed and registered chemical engineers
B. industrial plants
C. all BSChE graduates
D. PIChE

A

licensed and registered chemical engineers

70
Q

The Board of Chemical Engineering shall complete the correction of examination papers within __ days from the last day of examination,

A. 20
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5

A

20

71
Q

The volume of a sphere is 972Ð m3, find the surface area of the said sphere.

A. 324Ð m²
B. 412Ð m²
C. 526Ð m²
D. 625Ð m²

A

324Ð m²

72
Q

Find the derivative of «(2x»+3x) with respect to x.

A. «(2x» +3x)(4x+3)
B. 1/[2«(2x»+3x)]
C. (4x+3)/[2«(2x»+3x)]
D. 1/[«(2x»+3x)]

A

(4x+3)/[2«(2x»+3x)]

73
Q

A businessman invests in a medium scale business which cost him P100,000. The net annual return is estimated at P30,000 for each of the next 10 years. Compute the benefit cost ratio if the annual rate of interest is 20%.

A. 1.06
B. 1.16
C. 1.26
D. 1.36

A

1.26

74
Q

Compute the benefit cost ratio of the following project:
Project cost = P120,000
Gross income = P35,000/year
Operating cost = P8,000/year
Salvage value = 0
Life of Project = 10 years
Rate of interest = 15%

A. 1.03
B. 1.13
C. 1.23
D. 1.33

A

1.13

75
Q

The first cost of a permanent road that will improve access to a rural area is P1,000,000. The annual maintenance cost is expected to be P20,000 per year. Improved accessibility will result in benefits of P70,000 per year. At an interest rate of 6% per year, the conventional B/C ratio is nearest to:

A. 0.58
B. 0.68
C. 0.78
D. 0.88

A

0.88

76
Q

A company, InnovateTech Inc., reports the following
financial information for the end of the fiscal year:
Cash and cash equivalents: $150,000
Marketable securities: $80,000
Accounts receivable: $120,000
Inventory: $200,000
Current liabilities: $300,000
Calculate the company’s acid-test ratio.

A. 1.07
B. 1.17
C. 1.27
D. 1.37

A

1.17

77
Q

TechSolutions Ltd. has the following financial details at the end of Q1:
Current assets: $450,000
Inventory: $180,000
Current liabilities: $320,000
Calculate the acid test ratio of TechSolutions Ltd.

A. 0.54
B. 0.64
C. 0.74
D. 0.84

A

0.84

78
Q

EDA in statistics stands for

A. Exploratory Data Analysis
B. Experimental Data Analysis
C. Environmental Data Analysis
D. Exquisite Data Analysis

A

Exploratory Data Analysis

79
Q

CDA in statistics stands for

A.Collected Data Analysis
B.Computed Data Analysis
C.Confirmatory Data Analysis
D.Combined Data Analysis

A

Confirmatory Data Analysis

80
Q

A type of statistics which assume that the data follow a specific distribution (usually normal) and rely on parameters like mean and standard deviation.

A. Descriptive Statistics
B. Inferential Statistics
C. Parametric Statistics
D. Non-parametric Statistics

A

Parametric Statistics

81
Q

A type of statistics that does not assume a specific distribution for the data, making them useful for data that is ordinal, nominal, or not normally distributed.

A. Descriptive Statistics
B. Inferential Statistics
C. Parametric Statistics
D. Non-parametric Statistics

A

Non-parametric Statistics

82
Q

A type of statistics which focuses on analyzing and
summarizing data for a single variable at a time, often using measures of central tendency and dispersion.

A. Bivariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
D. Univariate Statistics

A

Univariate Statistics

83
Q

A type of statistics that examines the relationship between two variables to identify any association or correlation.

A. Bivariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
D. Univariate Statistics

A

Bivariate Statistics

84
Q

A type of statistics which involves analyzing data that
includes more than two variables to understand complex relationships and interactions among them.

A. Bivariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
D. Univariate Statistics

A

Multivariate Statistics

85
Q

It is an approach to analyzing data sets to summarize their main characteristics often with visual methods. It’s used to detect patterns, anomalies, and check assumptions.

A. Bivariate Statistics
B. Multivariate Statistics
C. Exploratory Data Analysis
D. Univariate Statistics

A

Exploratory Data Analysis

86
Q

It is used to confirm hypotheses about data. It often
involves inferential statistics methods to test hypotheses.

A. Bayesian Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
C. Time Series Analysis
D. Spatial Statistics

A

Confirmatory Data Analysis

87
Q

A type of statistics which involves updating the probability of a hypothesis as more evidence or data becomes available, based on Bayes’ Theorem.

A. Bayesian Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
C. Time Series Analysis
D. Spatial Statistics

A

Bayesian Statistics

88
Q

It focuses on analyzing data points collected or recorded at specific time intervals, typically to forecast future trends.

A. Bayesian Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
C. Time Series Analysis
D. Spatial Statistics

A

Time Series Analysis

89
Q

A type of statistics which analyze data that has a spatial or geographical aspect, identifying patterns, clusters, or variations across locations.

A. Bayesian Statistics
B. Confirmatory Data Analysis
C. Time Series Analysis
D. Spatial Statistics

A

Spatial Statistics

90
Q

Which of the following best describes the null hypothesis?

A. The hypothesis that there is a significant effect.
B. The hypothesis that the results are due to chance.
C. The hypothesis that there is no significant difference.
D. The hypothesis that all sample means are equal.

A

The hypothesis that there is no significant difference.

91
Q

In a hypothesis test, if the p-value is less than the significance level (α), you should:

A. Fail to reject the null hypothesis.
B. Reject the null hypothesis.
C. Increase the sample size.
D. Change the significance level.

A

Reject the null hypothesis.

92
Q

Which of the following tests is appropriate for comparing means of two independent samples?

A. Paired t-test
B. Independent t-test
C. Chi-square test
D. ANOVA

A

Independent t-test

93
Q

When performing a hypothesis test for a population proportion, which distribution is generally used?

A. Normal distribution
B. Chi-square distribution
C. t-distribution
D. Exponential distribution

A

Normal distribution

94
Q

In an ANOVA test, the null hypothesis is:

A. The variances of the populations are equal.
B. The population means are equal.
C. The sample means are different.
D. The population variances are different.

A

The population means are equal.

95
Q

What does a chi-square test measure?

A. The mean difference between groups.
B. The association between categorical variables.
C. The probability of a continuous variable.
D. The difference between paired sample means.

A

The association between categorical variables.

96
Q

When should you use a paired t-test?

A. Comparing two related groups
B. Comparing two independent groups
C. Comparing frequencies
D. Comparing variances

A

Comparing two related groups

97
Q

What is the critical value in hypothesis testing?

A. The probability of making a Type I error
B. The threshold to reject the null hypothesis
C. The value that must exceed the test statistic
D. The effect size needed to reject the null hypothesis

A

The threshold to reject the null hypothesis

98
Q

The Central Limit Theorem states that:

A. All sample distributions become normal
B. The distribution of sample means will be approximately normal, regardless of the population distribution, as sample size increases
C. The sample mean equals the population mean
D. Variance decreases with larger samples

A

The distribution of sample means will be approximately normal, regardless of the population distribution, as sample size increases

99
Q

The t-test is suitable for:

A. Testing the difference between means
B. Testing the relationship between variables
C. Testing frequencies
D. Testing variances

A

Testing the difference between means

100
Q

Which of the following tests compares observed frequencies to expected frequencies?

A. Paired t-test
B. Chi-square test
C. Z-test
D. Mann-Whitney U test

A

Chi-square test