Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CCT > CCT > Flashcards

CCT Flashcards

1
Q

In the context of ECG, what does electrical alternans primarily suggest?

A

Pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How should the electrode be placed to monitor the posterior wall of the heart?

A

In the V7 to V9 positions along the left posterior axillary line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the presence of Q waves in leads V1 to V3 suggest on an ECG?

A

Anteroseptal myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the clinical significance of observing tall R waves in lead V1 on an ECG?

A

Right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In which condition is an ECG most likely to show ST-segment elevation in all leads?

A

Acute pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When assessing an ECG, what does a monophasic R wave progression in the precordial leads suggest?

A

Ventricular aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the clinical significance of an

ECG showing Osborn waves (J waves)?

A

Hypothermia or hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In stress testing, a ‘false positive’ result refers to:

A

An indication of coronary artery disease when none exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The appropriate action if a patient experiences severe shortness of breath during a stress test is to:

A

Terminate the test and monitor the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the significance of a downsloping ST-segment during a stress test?

A

It may indicate myocardial ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the context of ambulatory monitoring, what is the significance of a prolonged QT interval?

A

It indicates an increased risk of torsades de pointes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the significance of a U wave on an ECG?

A

It can be associated with conditions like hypercalcemia or hypokalemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

mnemonic FOR LBBB

A

WiLLiaM (w lead 1& m in lead 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mnemonic for RBB

A

MaRRoW (m lead 1 & w in lead 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When instructing a patient on how to prepare for a tilt table test, what is the most critical piece of information to convey?

A

The importance of fasting for several hours before the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When instructing a patient on how to prepare for a tilt table test, what is the most critical piece of information to convey?

A

to fast hours before test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the appropriate action if a patient experiences a vasovagal reaction during an ECG procedure?

A

Elevate the patient’s legs and monitor vital signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the significance of ensuring that the ground electrode is properly attached during an ECG recording?

A

It minimizes interference and enhances signal clarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When performing a 12-lead ECG, what is the impact of incorrectly placing the limb leads?

A

could be a misdiagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When analyzing an ECG, what does a prolonged QT interval indicate?

A

Risk of ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What adjustment should be made when the ECG trace shows small and low voltage QRS complexes throughout the leads?

A

Increase the gain or amplitude setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In the context of ECG, what does the term ‘electrical axis’ refer to?

A

The primary direction of the heart’s electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the primary concern when an ECG shows a ‘tombstone’ appearance in the ST segment?

A

Acute myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the implication of an inverted U wave on an ECG?

A

Myocardial ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

During an ECG, why is it crucial to avoid electrode placement over bony prominences?

A

To reduce impedance and improve signal quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In which scenario would you use a right-sided ECG lead placement?

A

Evaluation of a right ventricular infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The heart is divided into ______ chambers:

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What supplies blood to the arterial system after contraction?

A

The left ventricle

Goes through the aorta and delivers oxygen rich blood to the rest of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The sensitivity switch controls the:

A

amplitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following is a poor conductor of electric current?

A

Dry skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pacemaker AV Sequential characteristics

A

P wave spike
Ventricular spike
Wide QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Biventricular pacing involved placement of

A

Three leads to allow pacing of both ventricles with a pacer lead in the left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A patient has a dual chamber pacemaker due to complete heart block.

What ecg findings indicates that both the atrial and ventricular wires are having an effective action on the patients heart?

A

P wave after the atrial spike and QRS complex after the ventricular spike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which pacemaker code indicates that a ventricle is sensed, paced, and synchronous with atrial contraction?

A

DDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Transcutaneous pacemakers can be

A

Used as an emergency treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the characteristics of a leadless permanent pacemaker?

A

The pulse generator and electrodes are contained within one smaller device, which is placed inside a chamber of the heart through transvenous insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The purpose for placing one of the exploring leads of the Holter monitor on or near the V5 position is to

A

maximizing QRS configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which leads in a 12 lead ECG are referred to as augmented limb leads?

A

avr, avf, avl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is an agonal rhythm

A

when all of the pacemakers in the heart have ceased to function and the QRS complexes are wide and bizarre with a rate of less than 20 beats per minute?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

beta blockers do what to an ecg

A

increase R R interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the correct placement for lead V6 when applying chest leads for a 12 lead ECG?

A

fifth intercostal space, mid axillary line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Junctional rhythms occur because the electrical impulse comes from the AV nodal tissue instead of the

A

SA Node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to administering Lexiscan (regadenosine)?

A

3rd degree heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does lexiscan do?

A

increases blood flow in the hearts arteries, like exercise does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what meds are used for stress tests

A

lexiscan

adenosine

dipyridamole

dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following is a normal ECG response to exercise stress testing?

A

J point depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which waveform on an ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

A

T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Right ventricular hypertrophy can be identified on a 12 lead ECG by what characteristics? .

A

Right axis deviation

positive inflection of the t wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a common cause of somatic tremor?

A

patient movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which atrioventricular block is characterized by PR intervals that remain constant?

A

second-degree block type II

(Mobitz II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The PR interval results from a delay in conduction at what level of the conduction system?

A

AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A positive chronotropic effect will result in

A

increase in heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How long does a patient usually wear a Holter monitor?

A

1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which rib articulates with the angle of Louis?

A

2nd rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the Angle of Louis

A

angle between sternum and manubrium, at the junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A normal Q wave represents

A

depolarization of the interventricular septum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Lead placement for V4R is located where on the patient?

A

Right 5th int space, mid clavicular line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why might an ECG be performed?

A

diagnose heart rhythm changes

check for electricity problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

While performing a 12 lead ECG, a marked ST elevation appears in leads V1 - V4. Which area of the myocardium is most likely effected?

A

anteroseptal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Vasodilation with exercise will result in

A

decreased systemic vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is Vasodilation

A

when blood vessels widen, allowing more blood to pass through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what does V4R detect

A

right ventricular infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the proper lead placement for a right side 12 lead ECG?

A

chest leads only placed in a mirror image of a standard 12 lead ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which of the following factors is used in the formula to predict the maximal heart rate for an exercise stress test?

A

age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is dextocardia

A

heart is in the right side of your chest and points to the right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which ECG would you expect the doctor to order when the patient has dextrocardia?

A

right side 12 lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What should be checked on the ECG machine to ensure it is working properlv?

A

check for paper

inspect cables for damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

During an exercise stress test, a 2.0 mm down sloping ST segment was observed 6 minutes into the Bruce protocol. This would be considered a…

A

positive test

because this is what the bruce prtocol is supposed to detect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When the excitation impulse is propagated from cell to cell within the heart, it is known as

A

conductivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

With exercise, cardiac output increases due to increases in

A

heart rate and stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which dysrhythmia is indicated when more than 3 PVC’s occur in a row with a ventricular rate of more than 100 beats per minute?

A

ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What rhythm has a normal atrial depolarization and a wide QRS complex with QR-R’s pattern?

A

sinus rhythm with RBBB

71
Q

When is it appropriate to contact a patient’s family member?

A

only if the patient has signed a HIPAA form giving permission

72
Q

What cells have the GREATEST automaticity?

A

SA Nodal Officer

73
Q

Pacemaker stimuli is recorded on the ECG as a(n)

A

narrow vertical spike

74
Q

A prolonged QT interval due to drug toxicity has an increased risk of

A

ventricular arrythmias

75
Q
A
76
Q

Best Leads for Left Atrial Enlargement

A

Lead II (broad, bifid p wave)

Lead V1 (biphasic p wave)

77
Q

What is a biphasic wave

A

Wave with a positive and negative deflection

78
Q

What is a bifid wave?

A

Wave with two peaks

79
Q

Causes of LAE

A

Mitral Stenosis

Systemic Hypertension

Aortic Stenosis

Mitral Incompetence

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

80
Q

Causes of RAE

A

Pulmonary Hypertension

Heart Valve Disease

Congenital Heart Disease

81
Q

Cause of RVH

A

Pulmonary Conditions (COPD/Embolism)

Heart Valve Disease (Tricuspid Regurgitation/Pulmonary Stenosis)

Congenital Heart Diseases (ASD/VSD/Tetralogy)

82
Q

Causes of LVH

A

Hypertension

Aortic Valve Stenosis

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

Intense Training

Diabetes

83
Q

Stenosis meaning

A

Narrowing

84
Q

Myopathy meaning

A

Condition that affects the muscles

85
Q

The normal QRS axis of the heart is

A

-30 degrees and +90 degrees

86
Q

Which two leads are referenced when interpreting axis deviation?

A

Lead I and aVF

87
Q

Left ventricular hypertrophy is indicated when the combined measured amplitude is greater than or equal to 35 mm in which of the following leads?

A

V1 or V2 S-wave, V3 or V4 R-wave

88
Q

e

A

Severe aortic stenosis

Uncontrollable arrhythmias

89
Q

An anterior wall myocardial infarction occurs when anterior myocardial tissue supplied by the _ artery suffers injury due to lack of blood supply.

A

left anterior descending

90
Q

An anterior wall myocardial infarction occurs when anterior myocardial tissue supplied by the _ artery suffers injury due to lack of blood supply.

A

left anterior descending

91
Q

Exercise stress testing is MOST OFTEN used to evaluate

A

ischemic changes due to coronary artery disease

92
Q

What is the heart rate of an ECG with a constant R-R interval of 30 mm recorded at a standard paper speed?

A

30mm/25mm = 1.2

60/1.2= 50 bpm

(60 seconds)

93
Q

The ability of a positive exercise stress test to correctly identify patients with documented coronary artery disease is known as the test

A

Sensitivity

94
Q

In stage 3 of the Bruce protocol the treadmill is set at

A

3.4 14%

95
Q

You are beginning the warmup stage of a treadmill stress test and you observe a 3mm ST segment depression in leads I and aVL. What is the first thing you should do?

A

stop the treadmill and notify the physician

96
Q

A patient with dextrocardia will need which of the following modifications made to a standard 12-lead ECG? Choose two modifications.

A

The right arm lead is placed on the left arm.

The left arm lead is placed on the right arm.

97
Q

What is indicated by a PR interval shorter than 120 ms on an ECG?

A

Accelerated AV nodal conduction

98
Q

In which condition is an ECG most likely to show ST-segment elevation in all leads?

A

Acute pericarditis

99
Q

Phases in action potentials, that ensure the heart beats in a coordinated rhythm

A
  1. Resting
  2. Depolarization
  3. Plateau Phase
  4. Repolarization
  5. Refractory Period
100
Q

Lub (S1)

A

Mitral and Tricuspid valve closing shut

101
Q

Lub (S1)

A

Mitral and Tricuspid valve closing shut

102
Q

When does S1 occur?

A

Beginning of ventricular contraction

(systole)

103
Q

Dub (S2)

A

Aortic and Pulmonary valves close

104
Q

When does S2 occur?

A

Beginning of ventricular relaxation

(Diastole) ventricles filling

105
Q

Rhythm

pause, massive QRS with no P, Sinus resumes pacing after one beat

A

Ventricular Escape Beat

106
Q

Rhythm

pause, P’ with pacing of 60-80

A

Atrial Escape Rhythm

107
Q

Rhythm

pause, *usually no P wave, pacing of 40-60

A

Junctional Escape Rhythm

108
Q

Rhythm

(idioventricular) pause, no P wave, massive QRS, pacing 20-40

A

Ventricular Escape Rhythm

109
Q

an irritable automaticity focus suddenly discharges a single stimulus

A

Premature Beat

110
Q

one of the ventricles has not depolarized yet, creating a wide QRS,
premature P’ with widened QRS (SA pacing one cycle length)

A

PAB with aberrant ventricular conduction

111
Q

Hypertrophy Method:

A

Check V1: P wave for atrial hypertrophy
R wave for right ventricular hypertrophy
S wave depth in V1 + R wave height in V5 for left ventricular hypertrophy

112
Q

AV node is in refractory phase, therefore no QRS

A

Non conducted PAC

113
Q

How does Lidocaine work?

A

suppresses ventricles by decreasing automaticity

114
Q

How does Epinephrine work?

A

Works like adrenaline.

Open airways, stimulate the heart, and increase blood pressure

115
Q

What does Lidocaine inhibit

A

NA+

116
Q

What 2 things does Epinephrine cause?

A

Increase HR and contractility

117
Q

What 2 things does Epinephrine cause?

A

Increase HR and contractility

118
Q
A

VT, VF, Asystole, PEA, Symptomatic Bradycardia

119
Q

How does Atropine work?

A

increases SA and AV node activity by blocking vagal reflex

120
Q

When is Atropine used?

A

Brady, 1st AVB, Wencke, Arrest

121
Q

How does Verapamil work?

A

blocks CA and NA

122
Q

How does Verapamil work?

A

blocks CA and NA

123
Q
A

treats VT and VF

124
Q

Verapamil causes

A

increased vasodilation

125
Q

Verapamil causes

A

increased vasodilation

126
Q

What 2 affects does Isuprel have on the body?

A

control brady and increase CO

127
Q

What does Amiodarone treat?

A

AT, VT, VF, and SVT

128
Q

What do Direct Arteriolar Vasodilators do?

A

Widen the small arteries

129
Q

Nitrates are a

A

venodilator

130
Q

Nitrates work by

A

relaxing the smooth muscles and decreasing blood flow

131
Q

Acute angina preferrably is treated with

A

Nitrates

132
Q

Vasodilators do what 3 things?

A

lower BP
improve patency of coronary arteries
decrease work load

133
Q

Vasodilators are used to mangage what 3 cardiac situations?

A

hypertension
Congestive heart failure
Coronary Artery Disease

134
Q

4 Classes of Antihypertensives

A

Alpha Adrenergic Blockers
Diuretics
Ace Inhibitors
Vasodilators

135
Q

3 Antiarrhythmic Types

A

NA Blockers
Beta Blockers
CA Blockers

136
Q

Lidocaine works by

A

blocking sodium channels, calming erratic and irregular rhythms (particularly in the ventricles)

137
Q

Beta Blockers are used when arrhythmias are caused by

A

sympathetic response (stress and anxiety)

138
Q

Beta Blockers are used when arrhythmias are caused by

A

sympathetic response (stress and anxiety)

139
Q
A

increasing the duration of the refractory period

140
Q

Class IV antiarrhythmics are

A

CA blockers

141
Q

ACE Inhibitors have what affect on the body?

A

lower BP

142
Q

Beta Blockers have what 2 affects on the body?

A

decrease HR and BP

143
Q

Beta Blockers end in

A

lol

144
Q

CA Channel Blockers have what 2 affects on the body?

A

decrease HR and BP

145
Q

CA Channel Blockers end in

A

pine

146
Q

Digoxin has what affect on the heart rate?

A

decreases HR

147
Q

Dilators cause the arterial system to

A

vasodilate

148
Q

Diuretics have what affect on the blood pressure?

A

decrease BP (K+washing)

149
Q

Intropic affects

A

contractility

150
Q

Chronotropic affects

A

HR

151
Q

What effect does Dromotrophic have

A

The conduction speed of electrical impulses

152
Q

Beta Blockers are an antagonist to

A

Beta 1 receptors

153
Q

Beta blockers are used to manage what 3 cardiac conditions?

A

CAD, arrhythmias, and increased BP

154
Q

4 affects of Beta Blockers on the cardiac system

A

increased R-R
Decrease HR
Decrease BP
Decease contractility

155
Q

Diuretics work by

A

increasing water loss and decreasing sodium absorption

156
Q

Examples of CA Channel Blockers

A

Diltazem
Nifedipine
Amiodipine
Verapamil

157
Q

This type of artifact is known for its thick baseline due to continuous electrical activity coming from an external source.

A

AC INTERFERENCE

158
Q

A regular rhythm at a rate of 40-60 beats per minute, with narrow QRS complexes, and no visible P waves, is consistent with the presence of

A

Junctional

159
Q

What would be the MOST APPROPRIATE technique when performing a 12 lead ECG on a patient with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Have the patient tuck their backs

160
Q

What would be the MOST APPROPRIATE technique when performing a 12 lead ECG on a patient with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Have the patient tuck their backs

161
Q

What would require a need for chest lead modification for a 12 lead ECG?

A

Excessive breast tissue

162
Q

Which dysrhythmia is indicated when the pacemaker site shifts between the SA node, AV junction and various locations within the atria?

A

Wandering pacemaker

163
Q

A portable AED is at the scene of a witnessed sudden cardiac arrest in a public place. What preparation is necessary before you apply the electrodes to the patient’s skin?

A

Quickly wipe the patients skin of dampness and apply electrodes

164
Q

The fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line is a landmark for what precordial electrode placement?

A

V4

165
Q

What is the standard calibration for an ECG machine compared to the standard sweep speed while performing ekg

A

10 mm/mV for calibration compared to 25 mm/mV for performing ECG

166
Q

Metabolic equivalents (METS) are commonly used in exercise protocols to express the

A

workload in various stages

167
Q

“Classic heart block” is also known as

A

Third degree block

168
Q

Where would you place the electrodes during a Holter hookup to reduce artifact produced by muscular movements?

A

Over the ribs

169
Q

Which of the following is a normal response to exercise?

A

Increased arterial pressure

170
Q

What rhythm has a normal atrial depolarization and a wide QRS complex with QR-R’s ?

A

Sinus w/ RBBB

171
Q

Most common cause to wandering baseline

A

Poor skin prep

172
Q

What does the vagal reflex do for the heart?

A

The vagus nerve sends signals to slow down the heart

173
Q

Beta blocker functions

A

Slow down the heart

Lower blood pressure

Reduce hearts workload

174
Q

NA stands for

A

Sodium

175
Q

CA stands for

A

Calcium

176
Q

K stands for

A

Potassium

CCT (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions