CCPC Flashcards

1
Q

Succinycholine (Anectine) administration effects to a patient with organophosphate OD =

A

Prolonged Duration of Action

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2
Q

Marfin Syndrome =

A

Tall and Skinny that could result in aortic dissection

Fibers can not support organs/structures in the body

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3
Q

Infant with “wide bodied” x-ray and slight cyanosis =

A

expanded rib cage and lung fields at the bottom

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4
Q

Vent adjustments-

ARDS/CHF

A

Increase o2 (FiO2)

Increase PEEP

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5
Q

Vent Adjustments-

PONS Damage/Stroke/Trauma

A

Increase Tidal Volume(pplat)

Increase Rate

(Waves=Headi injury)

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6
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage treatment =

A

Oxytocin (Pitocin)

then IV Fluids

(Oxytocin makes uterus contract)

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7
Q

Compartment syndrome on right arm due to recent break that required cast.

Arterial cut off occurs at _______

Proper pressure in tissues during normal conditions is close to ______

Fasciotomy indicated only with burns. For fingers, cuts would be ________ and _____ of each finger involved

A

Arterial cut off = 35mmHG

Propper pressure in tissues= 0mmHG

Fingers= medial and lateral

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8
Q

Treatment for muscular rigidity after propofol administration ss/p RSI with Etomidate and Succs=

A

Use non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (NDMR), possibly Malignant Hyperthermia, use dantrolene sodium

Malignant Hyperthermia=Dantrolene sodium

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9
Q

Needle Decompression to a patient after previous attempt did not have any release of air=

A

Chest Tube, Needles for proper decompression must be 10-14G and at least 3.25 inches long

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10
Q

Dead, coma, or near death who you can’t maintain ventilation and oxygenation=

A

Crash airway

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11
Q

Marfin Syndrome=

A

Tall and Skinny that could result in aortic dissection

Fibers can not support organs/structures in the body

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12
Q

Infant with “wide bodied” x-ray and slight cyanosis=

A

expanded rib cage and lung fields at the bottom

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13
Q

Vent adjustments-ARDS/CHF:

A

Increase o2 (FiO2)
Increase PEEP

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14
Q

Vent Adjustments- PONS Damage/Stroke/Trauma:

A

Increase Tidal Volume (pplat )
Increase Rate
(Waves=Headi injury)

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15
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage treatment=

A

Oxytocin (Pitocin)

then IV fluids

Oxytocin makes uterus contract)

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16
Q

What is surfactant deficiency Syndrome? Treatment?:

A

Surfactant is missing/removed and causes respiratory distress in the neonate.

Give surfactant.

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17
Q

Hyperkalemia vs. Hypokalemia:

Weak, paralysis, tall peaked T waves:

A

Hyperkalemia

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18
Q

Hyperkalemia vs Hypokalemia:

Pain, Nausea/Vomitting, Hypotension:

A

Hypokalemia

(hypotension=hypokalemia)

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19
Q

Treatment for Jimson Weed (Anticholinergic OD)=

A

Physostigamine

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20
Q

Premature Rupture of Membranes (PROM) Treatment=

A

Steroids for the baby

Tocolytics for the Mother

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21
Q

Hemopneumothorax treatment=

A

Chest Tube (due to blood)

(drain blood- midaxillary 4/5 lower)

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22
Q

Result of Cushing’s syndrome=

A

hyperglycemic increased cortisol

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23
Q

Result of Addison’s Disease

A

hypoglycemic

no cortisol/aldosterone

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24
Q

Cant intubate/Cant Ventilate/No direct laryngoscopy due to MVA/no surgical option=

A

Alternate Airway

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25
Q

CAMTS

24 Hour Shift requires:

A
  • uninterrupted rest
  • place for rest
  • ability to call “time out” due to fatigue
  • management to oversee “time out”
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26
Q

CAMTS

Fatigue risk assessment=

A

Required by management

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27
Q

Who to contact if fatigued

A

Management/supervisor so a “time out” can be called

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28
Q

No A/C on the ambulance during a hot day and a call is dispatched=

A

cancel and check back in 2 hours vs cancel due to AC issues

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29
Q

RSI for a 4kg child, multiple drugs listed but dosage is important

Succs=

Vecuronium=

Valium=

A

Succs=1-1.5 mg/kg
Vecuronium= 0.06-0.1 mg/kg IV
Valium=2.5 mg

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30
Q

Reason for fluid shift in burn patients=

A

Due to permeability

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31
Q

Acid/Base question:

Cl: 110=

A

Hypercholoric respiratory Acidosis

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32
Q

What Vessel is occluding blood flow in a mangled knee that has a lack of
pedal pulses?

A

Popliteal

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33
Q

Critical Values for airway management indicating intubation =
pH-
CO2-
O2-:

A

pH - 7.2
CO2- >55
O2- <60

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34
Q

Succinylcholine administration effects to a patient with organophos- phate OD=

A

Prolonged duration of action

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35
Q

Treatment for muscular rigidity after propofol administration s/p RSI with Etomidate and Succs=

A

use non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker
-possibly malignant hyperthermia, use Dantrolene Sodium

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36
Q

Needle Decompression to a patient after previous attempt did not have any release of air=

A

Chest Tube,
Needles for proper decompression must be 10-14g and at least 3.25 inches long

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37
Q

Definition of crash airway=

A

dead, coma, or near death who you can’t main- tain ventilation and oxygenation

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38
Q

Marfin Syndrome

A

Tall and Skinny that could result in aortic dissection (fibers can not support organs/structures in the body)

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39
Q

Infant with “wide bodied” x-ray and slight cyanosis=

A

expanded rib cage and lung fields at the bottom

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40
Q

Adjust vent for ARDS/CHF

A

Increase O2 (FiO2) and Increase PEEP

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41
Q

Adjust Vent for Pons Damage/Stroke/Trauma:

A

Increase Total Volume (pplat)

Increase Rate

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42
Q

Treatment for Post Partum Hemorrhage=

A

Oxytocin(Pitocin)

then IV and Fluids

(Makes Uterus Contract)

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43
Q

MVA with left shoulder pain, suspect=

A

Spleen (Kehrs Sign)

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44
Q

Circumferential burns of the torso tx=

A

escharotomy, where and how to perform

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45
Q

Intubation with laryngeal tear, which item to not use=

A

intubation only if trachea is exposed

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46
Q

Capnography with “square” waveform=

A

normal respirations

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47
Q

Atropine for <1yr. old infant intubation=

A

0.02mg/kg minimum 0.1mg/kg

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48
Q

Asthma capnography waveform=

A

shark fin

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49
Q

Pregnant female on mag drip starts to seize

A

increase mag dosage/drip rate

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50
Q

Myasthenia Gravis=

A

Less available acetylcholine receptor sites for onset of action of succinylcholine

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51
Q

3 unsuccessful attempts at intubation=

A

BVM, Simple airway, or Blind Air-way insertion

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52
Q

Assist Control (A/C) Ventilation=

A

Causes “stacked breaths” in the patient, forces same tidal volume for set breaths and spontaneous breaths

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53
Q

Location in which to put pelvic splint=

A

At the level of greater trochanters

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54
Q

DOPES for ventilation stands for=

A

dislodgment, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment issues, suction

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55
Q

Treatment for overdose on mag sulfate via DTR (deep tendon reflex) of 0=

A

Calcium

(Mag overdose tx=Calcium or calcium gluconate)

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56
Q

Calculate proper tidal volume to set on a ventilator=

A

4-8ml/kg

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57
Q

Parkland formula questions with weight in lbs not kg

Questions regarding urinary output post parkland fluid administration for pediatric:

A

parkland= 4mlx%BSAxkg; 1/2 over first 8 hours
urinary output= adult-0.5 cc/kg/h(average 30-50 ccc/hr) pediatric- 1cc/kg/h
infant- 2cc/kg/h

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58
Q

Status Asthmaticus on ventilator with Vt of 500ml but expirations only show 350ml, what do you change on the vent?

A

Reduce rate to allow for longer expiration time

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59
Q

Normal Range for potassium=

A

3.5-5.0

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60
Q

Posterior MI on ECG=

A

Depressed ST segment in leads V1-V4

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61
Q

Treatment for “dark brown” urine s/p leg crush injury=

A

Sodium Bicarb

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62
Q

HHNK treatment=
(Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Non-Ketosis) non-acidotic:

A

at 300mg/dl of serum glucose, switch to D5W

First line treatment is fluid administration, then IV insulin to reduce blood glucose levels

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63
Q

Esophageal varices tx=

A

Osteocide (sandostatin), also known as somato- statin

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64
Q

Pancreatitis signs and symptoms=

A

Cullens sign-discolor at the abdomen (belly button)

Grey Turners Sign- Bruising at the Flanks

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65
Q

FiO2 calculation based on pressure. Formula=

A

(P1xFiO2)/P2

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66
Q

Number of atmospheres based on dive depth=

A

0ft=1
33ft=2
66ft=3
99ft=4

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67
Q

Barodentalgia=

A

Teeth hurt on ascent

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68
Q

Number 1 cause of death for divers

A

AGE

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69
Q

Treatment for hyperemic hypoxia

A

give fluids/blood

Caused by CO/anemia/hemorrahe

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70
Q

AMRM=

A

Air Medical Resource Management

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71
Q

Critical Phases of Flight

A

Landing, Take-off, refueling, and taxing

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72
Q

Flight following=

A

15 min during transport
45 min if standing by

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73
Q

Alcohol and flight=

A

8 hours and BAC<0.04%

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74
Q

IFR=

A

Instrumental Flight Rules

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75
Q

Post Crash Sequence on what to turn off=

A

Throttle, Fuel, Battery

“Too freaking bad”

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76
Q

Frequency for ELT=

A

121.5 MHz

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77
Q

Number 1 place for accident in an ambulance=

A

intersections

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78
Q

Repeat EVOC every

A

2 years

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79
Q

CAMTS and certification checks=

A

annual basis

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80
Q

Hazmat exposure while getting out of unit

A

leave the hot zone and decon unit

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81
Q

Active hazmat scene with multiple patients down=

A

wait for firefighters

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82
Q

Artery affecting ventricular fibers

A

LAD

Left Anterior Descending Artery

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83
Q

Assess for spinal damage/sensitivity

A

Dermatome chart testing for pain, temperature and touch

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84
Q

Pericarditis with previous MI

A

Dressler’s Syndrome

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85
Q

Cardiac Tamponade treatment

A

Fluid Bolus and pericardiocentesis

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86
Q

Cast on right arm due to humoral fracture, now fingers are numb to sensation. Treatment?

A

Remove constricting object
If unable, monitor and elevate extremity
(Circumferential burns require escharotomy)

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87
Q

Arterial Line leveling location

A

Phlebostatic axis

(3th intercostal space at the right edge of the sternum)

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88
Q

IABP graph, what is the stage (widened appearance)

A

Late Deflation

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89
Q

Meningitis treatment=

A

Fluids, Steroids, and Antibiotics

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90
Q

Calculate MAP from BP=

A

(SBP-DBP)/3+DBP

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91
Q

Le Forte II=

A

Fracture of the maxilla and nasal bones

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92
Q

Brain x-ray asking which type of hemorrhage

A

intraventricular

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93
Q

Epidural hematoma treatment

A

Mannitol and hypertonic fluids

(Mannitol=Osmotic Diuretic
3% Normal Saline = hypertonic

Both create osmotic effect to reduce fluid in brain)

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94
Q

Anterior Cord Syndrome=

A

Lower paralysis with loss of pain and temperature sensation

(The incomplete spinal cord injury due to bone fragments into anterior portion of the spinal cord)

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95
Q

Most commonly injured solid organ due to penetrating injury=

A

Liver

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96
Q

Treatment for pneumothorax=

A

Needle decompression, if unsuccessful, chest tube

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97
Q

Hemothorax treatment

A

Chest tube due to fluids

98
Q

Neonate with scaphoid abdomen treatment

A

Use gastric decompression

diaphragmatic hernia is the cause

(sunken abdomen=decompress)

99
Q

Zones of burns=

A

Coagulation
Stasis
Erythmia

100
Q

Estimation of burns

A

Know rule of 9’s

101
Q

Neutralize hydrofluoric acid

A

Calcium Gluconate

102
Q

Pit Viper bite resulting in inter facility transport and pain increases… treatment=

A

Crofab (10 vials) vs. pain medication

103
Q

Patient having AMS (Confused) while in the heat

A

Heat stroke

104
Q

Beta blocker (Labetolol, Carvidolol, Esmolol) OD treatment

105
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants (Amitriptyline(Elavil), Nortriptyline(Pamelor)) OD treatment for:
Ingestion=
ECG Changes=
Hypotension=
Seizures=

A

Ingestion= Activated Charcoal
ECG Changes= Sodium Bicarb
Hypotension= Catecholamine
Seizures= Benzos

106
Q

Organophospate OD Treatment=

A

Atropine 2mg and
2 PAM 1-2 G IV
(PAM=GRAM)

107
Q

Jimson Weed OD Treatment

A

Phystigomine for reversal, Benzos for seizures

108
Q

Late Decelerations

A

Uteroplacental insufficiency (always concerning)

109
Q

Fetal Monitoring: Accelerations of increased 15-20 bpm=

A

Normal Variability (Don’t be alarmed)

110
Q

HELLP (Hemolysis/ Elevated Liver Enzymes/ Low Platelets ) Treatment=-

A

: Definitive treatment=
-delivery,
-steriods (Celestone or Dexamethasone)
-antihypertensives(Labetalol, Hydralazine, Methyldopa) -mag sulfate (4-6 g over 30min)
-Blood Products (FFP)
(HELLP S&S= PreEclampsia/Eclampsia
RUQ pain, jaundice, malaise)

111
Q

Painless bright red bleeding in pregnant female =
Painful bleeding=

A

Painless= Placenta Previa
Painful= Abrupto Placenta

112
Q

You feel baby parts through the mother’s abdomen=

A

Uterine Rupture

113
Q

ICP Shunt with signs of increasing ICP

A

Drain off some fluid

114
Q

Neonate with cardiomegaly and hepatomegaly (enlarged heart and liver) treatment

A

Treat CHF with Digoxin

115
Q

Neonate with signs of poor circulation and transposition of the great vessels treatment

A

PgE for ductus arteriosis

Knees to chest, Morphine if no resolve, RSI, intubate, 100% O2

possible tet spell

116
Q

Child with “TET spells” due to=

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

117
Q

Pediatric maintenance fluid calculation:

1-10kg=
10-20kg=
>20kg=:

A

1st 1-10kg= 4cc/kg/hr 2nd 10-20kg= 2cc/kg/hr >20kg= 1cc/kg/hr

(ex. 25kg child needs fluids. First 10kg= 40cc, Second 10kg= 20 cc, last 5 kg= 5cc….Total fluid required=65cc/hr)

118
Q

X-ray shows “steeple” in the airway

119
Q

Bronchiolitis cause=

A

RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus)

120
Q

Tourniquet width and size

A

2” wide x6” long

121
Q

CAMTS: Family members listed by name that will accompany transfer=

A

Listed in the communication center

122
Q

Fibrinolytic Exclusions

A

History of: AV (malfunction)
Bleeding Disorder
Stroke
Major Surgery in the last 3 months Systolic BP > 180
Currently Pregnant
1 month post-delivery

123
Q

Pregnant patient with MAST pants

A

Inflate Legs only

124
Q

Left atrial hypertrophy identified via 12 lead

A

Look for double hump on P wave

125
Q

CPR patient with DNR & palliative care

A

Call palliative care

126
Q

Negative effects of massive transfusion (10 PRBC, 3FFP, and 4 platelets)

A

hypothermia

Blood isn’t at body temp, cools body excessively

127
Q

Definition of crash airway=

A

Patients in cardiopulmonary arrest, deep coma, or near death, who can’t maintain ventilation and/or oxygenation

128
Q

Patient intubated at hospital with Etomidate and Succinylcholine, then held under sedation with propofol. Patient develops forearm tetany. What medication would you give next?

A

Versed or Dantrolene Sodium
Relax forearm=versed
Hand Spasm-seizure=versed
Hyperthermia= Dantrolene

129
Q

Abdominal x-ray on a pediatric asking what type of hernia you see=

A

Little Hernia

130
Q

Pediatric x-ray of the chest

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

131
Q

Pediatric on HFOV(High frequency oscillatory ventilator) and chest wig- gle decreases on the left side with absent breath sounds=

A

Tension Pneumothorax

132
Q

Adult intubated and on a vent after traumatic accident with decreased Sp02 and increased subcutaneous emphysema. What do you do?

A

Intubate right main stem

133
Q

X-ray of brain that shows bleed in the middle of the brain=

A

interparachemyl bleed

134
Q

Patient with (2) types of diseases and mass of the back at the base of the neck and purple striations

A

Cushing disease (Percadiso Cortisol - hump back)

135
Q

CAMTS- Not checking in on time will result in activation of which plan=-

A

Post incident action plan

136
Q

COPD with breath stacking (decreasing exhaled Vt)=

A

reduce respiratory rate

137
Q

EVOC is required every

138
Q

What type of DI (Diabetes Incipidus) with lack of vasopressin secretion from posterior pituitary

A

Neurogenic/Central

(Diabetes Incipidus= Kidney can not stop excretion of water)

139
Q

Pediatric burn patient with oliguria (low urine output)=

A

Increase fluid rate/infusion

140
Q

Pregnant patient with palpable fetal parts s/p MVA

A

Uterine Rupture

141
Q

Multiple questions about possible CRIC situations due to failed intubation attempts

142
Q

Adult female with symptomatic wide QRS tachycardia rhythm (HR increased, decreased BP and shocky)

A

Synchronized cardioversion

143
Q

Obese patient with COPD on home oxygen

A

Critical value of CO2>55, so intubate

144
Q

Concerns of obese patient for RSI with no other medical issues

A

increased sedation needed or decreased oxygen compensations faster

145
Q

Adult intubated patient with no ETCO2 availability, how to confirm tube placement

A

feel chest wall for movement

146
Q

Pediatric submersion pt, how to treat?

A

Bipap vs lasix vs fluids

147
Q

Patient with tactile fremitus

A

palpable vibrations of the chest wall

(Pneumonia-substance invades long space)

148
Q

ETCO2 capnograph of shark fin, how to treat

A

increase expiratory time

149
Q

Induction agent for patient in shock

A

Ketamine

(Introduce ketamine for shock value)

150
Q

Patient with Cushing’s triad, BP 260ish systolic, how to treat

A

Nicardipine

151
Q

Paced patient in transport when pacer fails, how to treat

A

Epinephrine

152
Q

Adult patient intubated and on vent with SIMV(synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation) and patient is trying to breath, what to do=

A

sedate patient

(Curae cleft on waveform capnography)

153
Q

Adult male patient in MCA with hypotension and muffled heart tones.
During transport, he goes into cardiac arrest, what to do?

A

Pericardiocentesis

(Muffled heart tones=pericardiocentesis)

154
Q

Neonate patient becomes irritable, not wanting to eat, with bulging fontanelles and separated sutures on x-ray=

A

hydrocephalus (water in the brain)

155
Q

Patient with ICP S/S with EVD (external ventricular drain), what to do?

A

Drain ICP Fluid

156
Q

Patient with arterial BP line monitor has alarms going off but patient has no compaints/changes

A

re-zero transducer

check the machine and re-zero

157
Q

Pregnant Patient with slight changes to RBC Count, Liver Enzymes, and platelets

A

HELLP

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver Enzymes, Low Platelets

158
Q

Pregnant patient on mag drip with decreased DTR(Deep tendon re-flex)

A

Give calcium

159
Q

Pregnant patient on mag drip begins to seize, what to do?

A

give benzodiazepine

(versed-benzo-seizure)

160
Q

Adult patient with respiratory distress and hypotensive, what do you do?

A

give fluid bolus first

161
Q

Curae Cleft present on waveform capnography, what to do?

A

Administer Sedation

162
Q

Patient has low pressure alarm on vent going off, what happened?

A

Leak/disconnection

163
Q

Patient with chest tube has increased bubbling without any present issues

A

leak in the line

bubbles where the leak is

164
Q

Patient with Ascites and bruising to the flanks

A

Ruptured Pancreas

Grey-Turners Sign

165
Q

Patient with increased amylase and lipase

A

Acute Pancreatitis

166
Q

Most commonly injured solid organ in penetrating trauma

167
Q

Most commonly injured solid organ in blunt trauma

A

Spleen

most blunt trauma in abdomen is due to MVC

massive hemorrhage due to vascular supply of spleen

168
Q

Patient has left shoulder pain and hypotensive, what is the issue?

A

Ruptured Spleen

Spleen is in the upper left abdomen

Left shoulder pain = Kehrs Sign

169
Q

Pediatric patient with “double bubble” on x-ray=

A

blockage/duodenal blockage

bowel obstruction

170
Q

Adult patient with bilateral diffuse infiltrates

A

ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)
(Ground glass)

171
Q

Adult patient with insulin infusion begins to show muscular weakness, why?

A

Hypokalemia

172
Q

Appropriate renal output for patient with rhabdomyolysis?

A

2-4ml/kg (100ml/hr)

173
Q

Adult patient with cheek spasms when touched, what to give?:

174
Q

Patient with S/S ICP, what to give?

A

3% NS

(up the salt to absorb the fluid/hypertonic)

175
Q

Patient with increased BGL, Kussmaul respirations, and lab values, no ketones present=

A

HHNK

(Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Coma)

176
Q

Patient has veins popping out on the abdomen, what is the issue?

A

Portal HTN

(High B/P in Portal Vein)
(Portal=Belly veins)

177
Q

Patient has increased ALP, ALT, AST, what is the issue?

A

Liver failure

(ALP, ALT, AST= Liver Enzymes)

178
Q

Diving depth and number of atmospheres, calculate:

A

0=1
33=2
66-3
99=4

179
Q

Patient has hyperemic hypoxia, what to do?

180
Q

Aerobic Metabolism steps

A

glycoysis, Kreb cycle, oxidative phosphorylation

181
Q

Accepted transport when air conditioning is broken in the unit, what to do with the pt?

182
Q

Adult patient with decreased Cl (2.1) but increased SVR (1700), what to do?

A

Give Fluids

183
Q

Patient with cardiogenic shock, what to give?

184
Q

Pediatric patient with pit viper bite, what to give?

A

Crotalidine Polyvalent Immune Fab

(Crofab)

185
Q

Pregnant patient with HTN, how to treat

A

Hydralazine

186
Q

Adult patient with HTN Episode, how to treat?

A

Nicardipine (Calcium Channel Blocker)

187
Q

Patient with different BP on upper extremities (right vs. left) and radiating back pain, how to treat?

A

Esmolol (Beta Blocker)

188
Q

Reboa contraindication zone with pt having no femoral pulses s/p MVA?

A

Zone 3

REBOA=Resuscitative Endovascular Balloon Occlusion of the Aorta

189
Q

REBOA patient with hypotension, how to treat?

A

give fluids

190
Q

Adult patient with signs of shock, LVAD/impella, no pulse, what to do?

A

Fluid Bolus

191
Q

You are told patient has meningococcal bacteria. How do you test your patient?

A

Brudzinski and Kernig signs
(Meningitis)
Head lift cause hips and knees to flex
Inability to straighten legs

192
Q

Patient involved in trauma shows multiple fractures radiating from impact on x-ray. What type is it?

A

Linear stellate

193
Q

Patient presents with crescent moon pattern on brain x-ray, what is the issue?

A

subdural bleed

194
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Nerve issues, weakness, arms/legs, vision problem,
drooping eyelids or head

195
Q

Adult female ejected s/p MVA stated she can’t bend at the knees. Where is the spinal nerve damage?
L1-L2

A

L1-L2=Knees

196
Q

Post delivery female with vaginal bleeding, how to treat

A

Methergine

197
Q

Female patient with blood transfusion develops urticarial reaction, how to treat?

A

Diphenhydramine
(Uticaria=redness=allergic reaction)

198
Q

Pediatric patient receiving fluids (A LOT) develops rales, what is the
issue?:

A

Fluid Overload Rales=Fluid

199
Q

Area of burn with no activity and protein denaturation

A

zone of coagulation

200
Q

Pediatric patient receiving fluids s/p burn injury becomes hypovolemic, why?

A

Vascular Permeability

201
Q

How to perform circumferential chest burn escharotomy=

A

Anterior Axillary with traverse incision

202
Q

Adult patient with HF hand burns gets supportive care only at the hospital. You pick up the patient to transfer. How to treat?

A

Apply Calcium Gluconate to hands

hydrofluoric acid=Calcium gluconate

203
Q

Adult patient pulled from fire with SOB, how to treat?

A

Amyl/sodium nitrate and sodium thiosulfate

204
Q

Treatment for Organophosphate Exposure

A

Atropine 2mg and 2-Pam 1-2 Grams

205
Q

Pre-term Pregnancy patient 3cm dilated, 80% effaced with constant contractions every 2-1/2 minutes. what to do?

A

Administer Terbutaline

206
Q

Pregnant patient with late decelerations is what?

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

207
Q

Pregnant patient with increased BP, increased edema, and protein in urine, you suspect what?

A

Preeclamptic

208
Q

Neonate is limp, HR44 upon delivery, what to do?

A

1st) Epi (1:10,000)
0.1 to 0.3 ml/kg by IV or ETT
2nd) Glucose (2cc/kg D10)

209
Q

Pediatric with history of tetralogy of fallot becomes cyanotic, how to help?

A

Put them in a knee to chest (squat) position

210
Q

Neonate with good upper extremity pulses but weaker/non existent in the lower extremities, what do you suspect?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

211
Q

What depth does 3 thin black lines mean on pulmonary artery catheter?

212
Q

Management of CVA patient?

A

Maintain ETCO2 to 30-35 mmHg

213
Q

Target mgmt. CVA with HTN?

A

decrease map by 10%

214
Q

Apneustic respirations indicate damage to?

A

pons

(Deep gasping-pause-at full inspiration and insufficient release=head injury)

215
Q

Patient extubated after high dose steroids for asthma exacerbation. Patient develops loss of motor function in extremities. What is the cause?

A

steroid myopathy

216
Q

TPA exclusion criteria

A

cerebroarterial malformation (AV malformation)

bad artery in the brain

217
Q

Calm patient during transport no becomes agitated and beginning to unbuckle/get off the stretcher. What is your first step?

A

Choices are
-Contact law enforcement
-try to calm patient
-administer sedation

218
Q

Elevated PIP with elevated Pplat is caused by

A

Tension Pneumothorax

219
Q

Neonatal patient still hypotensive s/p fluid bolus. What do you do?

A

Give another fluid bolus

220
Q

DNR patient becomes apneic and begins to Brady down during transport. What do you do?

A

Do nothing (Palliative care)?

221
Q

Abdominal trauma patient has urinary catheter during transport and the pressure rises to 18mmHg and she begins to experience sharp pain. What is the first step?

A

Decompress GI

222
Q

NIPPV vents require

A

high flow rates of oxygen

223
Q

Soccer player found unresponsive with crescendo-decrescendo res- pirations and S4 murmur on auscultation. What it the issue/cause?

A

blunt trauma to the chest

(Cheyne Stokes resp-Heart Murmur=Chest Trauma)

224
Q

Target temperature management post ROSC

A

Arterial Dilation and Decreased CVP

225
Q

Pediatric patient with partial and full thickness burns receives 4 liters of NS in 5 hours and becomes SOB.What is the likely cause?

A

Pulmonary Edema

226
Q

Additional question: 24 hours post C-6 (possibly C-7) lesion/injury, pt is hypertensive (200/100) and anxious, other vitals are normal. What meds to give?:

A

Dexamethasone, Labetalol, or Lorazepam

227
Q

Additional question:
CHF patient: what are expected ABG’s?

A

Hyper or Hypocapnia
Metabolic vs Respiratory
Aid or Alkali
Hypercapnia Respiratory Acidosis

228
Q

Additional question:
Unvaccinated 15 month-old with cough,( there were more s/s listed, but i dont remember them):

A

TB, Varicella, Pertussis

229
Q

Additional question:
CO2 of 55, SpO2 of 93% on a NC at 2 LPM, morbidly obese, short of breath for several days; What do you do?:

A

Intubate,NRFM(non rebreather), NPPV (CO2 55=critical value=intubate)

230
Q

Additional question:
Cushing syndrome: what ABG’s to expect:

A

Too much cortisol?
Hypercapnia Respiratory Acidosis

231
Q

What to do with IABP during CPR?

A

Switch from ECG to pressure, put on standby, manually inflate every 15 min

232
Q

Additional question:
Partner is a 20 year vet of EMS. Declining work performance with no par- ticular trigger or instance:

A

PTSD, Cumulative Stress Disorder, Acute Stress Disorder

(I selected tell supervisor)

233
Q

Additional question: Medication error and you report it to your supervisor, in “just world” how would they respond?

A

Terminate you,
Develop training to include education on 5 R’s of medications

234
Q

Additional question:
Review of ambulance driver’s license when?

A

Yearly,
At time of hire,
after incident/accident

235
Q

Additional question:
Crofab Generic Name

A

Crotalidae Polyvalent Immune Fab

(Pit Viper Antivenin)

236
Q

Additional question:
S1Q3T3=

A

S wave on lead 1, Q and T inversion on lead 3 on an ECG is Pulmonary Embolism (PE)
(Question is read way differently

237
Q

Additional question:
2 questions regarding hydroflouoric acid burns:

A

Picked Calcium for both Study guide says Calcium Gluconate

238
Q

Additional question:
Chest X-ray showing what appears to be more than normal white in the left side and what appeared to be tracheal shift to the right=:

A

Tension Pnuemothorax

239
Q

paroxysmal hypercyanotic episodes

A

Tet of Fallot

240
Q

Pawp Balloon

A

1.5 mL to fill