CCNA - Assesment test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the sys-id-ext field in a BPDU used for?

a) It is a 4-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define trunking information between switches

b) it is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define VLANs in an STP instance

c) it is a 4-bit field inserted into an non-Ethernet frame to define EtherChannel options

d) it is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define STP root bridges

A

B

to allow for the PVST+ to operate, there’s a field inserted into the BPDU to accommodate the extended system ID so that PVST+ can have a root bridge configured on a per-STP instance. The extended system ID (VLAN ID) is a 12-bit field, and we can even see what this field is carrying via show spanning-tree command output. see chapter 9 for more information

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2
Q

You have four RSTP PVST+ links between switches and want to aggregate the bandwidth. What solution will you use?

a) EtherChannel

b) PortFast

c) BPDU Channel

d) VLANs

e) EtherBundle

A

A

Cisco’s EtherChannel can bundle up to eight ports between switches to provide resiliency and more bandwidth between switches. See chapter 9 for more information

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3
Q

You reload a router with a configuration register setting of 0x2101. What will the router do when it reloads?

a) the router enters setup mode

b) the router enters ROM monitor mode

c) the router boots the mini-IOS in ROM

d) the router expands the first IOS in flash memory into RAM

A

C

2100 boots the router into ROM monitor mode, 2101 loads the mini-IOS from ROM, and 2102 is the default and loads the IOS from flash. See chapter 12 for more information

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4
Q

Which of the following commands provides the product ID and serial number of a router?

a) show license

b) show license feature

c) show version

d) show license udi

A

D

the show license udi command displays the unique device identifier (UDI) of the router, which comprises the product ID (PID) and serial number of the router. See chapter 12 for more information

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5
Q

Which command allows you to view the technology options and licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables?

a) show license

b) show license feature

c) show license udi

d) show version

A

B

the show license feature command allows you to view the technology package licenses and feature licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables related to software activation and licensing, both licensed and unlicensed features. See chapter 12 for more information

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6
Q

You need to look at past network data in DNA Center. How long can you look back into the DNA snapshot?

a) 1 day

b) 3 days

c) 5 days

d) 1 week

e) 1 month

A

D

DNA Center stores the network snapshot for one week

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7
Q

You want to send a console message to you syslog server, but you only want to send status messages of 3 and lower. Which of the following commands will you use?

a) logging trap emergencies

b) logging trap errors

c) logging trap debugging

d) logging trap notifications

e) logging trap critical

f) logging trap warnings

g) logging trap alerts

A

B

there are eight different raps levels. If you choose, for example level 3, level 0 through level 3 messages will be displayed. See chapter 13 for more information

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8
Q

What configuration parameters must be configured the same between switches for LACP to form a channel? (Choose three).

a) Virtual MAC address

b) Port speeds

c) Duplex

d) PortFast enabled

e) Allowed VLAN information

A

B, C, E

all the ports on both sides of every link must be configured exactly the same between switches or it will not work. Spped, duplex, and allowed VLANs must match. See chapter 15 for more information

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9
Q

You are using the Code Preview features. Which of the following is this used for? (Choose three.)

a) enroll in beta updates for DNA Center

b) view what a code will do when ran against DNA Center

c) Generates a sample code snippet to a call the Restful API resource in the scripting language to your choose

d) viewing the source code for a DNA Center

A

C

the code preview feature in can generate a simple code snippet for several programming languages so you can quickly add it into your script. See chapter 21 for more information

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10
Q

You need to connect to a remote IPv6 server in your virtual server farm. You can connect to the IPv4 servers, but not the critical IPv6 server you desperately need. Based on the following output, what could your problem be?

C:>ipconfig
Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : localdomain
IPv6 Address …………………………..: 2001:db8:3c4d:4:ac3b:2ef:1823:8938
Temporary IPv6 Address ………..: 2001:db8:3c4d:3:2f33:44dd:211:1c3d
Link-local IPv6 Address……………: fe80::ac3b:2ef:1823:8938%11
IPv4 Address ………………………….: 10.1.1.10
Subnet Mask ………………………….: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway ……………………: 10.1.1.1

a) the global address in the wrong subnet

b) the IPv6 default gateway has not been configured or received from the router

c) the link-local address has not been resolved so the host cannot communicate to the router

d) there are two IPv6 global addresses configured. One must be removed from the configuration

A

B

There is no IPv6 default gateway listed in the output, which will be the link-local address of the router interface, sent to the host as a router advertisement. Until this host receives the router address, the host will communicate with IPv6 only on the local subnet. See chapter 17 for more information

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11
Q

What command is used to view the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution table on a Cisco router?

a) show ip arp

b) show ipv6 arp

c) show ip neighbors

d) show ipv6 neighbors

e) show arp

A

D

the command show ipv6 neighbors provides the ARP cache on a router. See chapter 17 for more information

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12
Q

An IPv6 ARP entry is listed as with a status of REACH. What can you conclude about the IPv6-to-MAC-address mapping?

a) the interface has communicated with the neighbor address and the mapping is current

b) the interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame

c) the ARP entry has timed out

d) IPv6 can reach the neighbor address but the addresses has not yet been resolved

A

A

if the state is STALE when the interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame, the next time the neighbor communicates, the state will be REACH. See chapter 17 for more information

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13
Q

Which configuration management solutions require agents? (Choose two).

a) Puppet

b) Ansible

c) Chef

d) Cisco IOS

A

A, C

Puppet and Chef require you to install an agent on the node before the configuration server can manage it. See chapter 23 for more information

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14
Q

_________ is a Ruby-based configuration management tool that uses custom manifest files to configure devices.

a) Ansible

b) Puppet

c) Chef

d) Manifold

A

B

Puppet is a Ruby-based configuration tool that uses custom manifest files to configure devices. See chapter 23 for more information

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15
Q

________ is a Ruby-based configuration tool that uses cookbooks to apply configuration.

a) Ansible

b) Puppet

c) Chef

d) Manifold

A

C

Chef is a Ruby-based configuration tool that uses cookbooks to apply configuration. See chapter 23 for more information

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16
Q

You have two OSPF directly configured routers that are not forming an adjacency. What should you check? (Choose two).

a) Process ID

b) Hello and dead timers

c) Link cost

d) Area

e) IP address/subnet mask

A

B, D, E

in order for two OSPF routers to create an adjacency, the Hello and dead timers must match, and they must both be configured into the same area, as well as being in the same subnet. See chapter 6 for more information

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17
Q

When do two adjacent routers enter the 2WAY state?

a) after both routers have received Hello information

b) after they have exchanged topology databases

c) when they connect only to a DR or BDR

d) when they need to exchange RID information

A

A

The process starts by sending out Hello packets. Every listening router will then add the originating router to the neighbor database. The responding routers will replay with all of their Hello information so that the originating router can add them to its own neighbor table. At this point, we will have reached the 2WAY state – only certain routers will advance beyond to this. See chapter 6 for more information

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18
Q

You want to use the Command Runner. What is this used for?

a) pushing OSPF configuration

b) pushing show commands and viewing the results

c) pushing ACL configuration

d) pushing Interface configuration

e) pushing a banner configuration

A

B

The Command Runner is a useful tool for pushing show commands to devices and viewing the results. See chapter 22 for more information

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19
Q

What type of switching is done in a network fabric?

a) layer 2

b) layer 3

c) layer 4

d) layer 7

A

B

A fabric entirely consists of layer 3 only. See chapter 22 for more information

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20
Q

Which statement about GRE is not true?

a) GRE is stateless and has no flow control

b) GRE has security

c) GRE has additional overhead for tunneled packets, at least 24 bytes

d) GRE uses a protocol-type field in the GRE header so any layer 3 protocol can be used through the tunnel

A

B

Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) has no built-in security mechanisms. See chapter 15 for more information

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21
Q

Which QoS mechanism will drop traffic if a session uses more than the allotted bandwidth?

a) congestion management

b) shaping

c) policing

d) marking

A

C

When traffic exceeds the allocated rate, the policer can take one of two actions. It can either drop traffic or re-mark it to another class of service. The new class usually has a higher drop probability. See chapter 16 for more information

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22
Q

IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp. router. Which of the following addresses would show up with the show ipv6 int brief command?

Corp#sh int f0/0
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hard is AmdFE, address is 000d.bd3b.0d80 (bia 000d.bd3b.0d80)
[output cut]

a) FF02::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80

b) FF80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80

c) FF80::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80

d) FF80::3c3d:2d:ffbd:3bfe:0d80

A

B

This can be a hard question if you don’t remember to invert the 7th bit of the first octet in the MAC address! Always look for the 7th bit when studying for the CiscoR/S, and when using eui-64 invert it. The eui-64 auto-configuration then inserts an FF:FE in the middle of the 48-bit MAC address to create a unique IPv6 address. See chapter 17 for more information

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23
Q

A host sends a type of NDP message providing the MAC address that was requested. Which type of NDP was sent?

a) NA

b) RS

c) RA

d) NS

A

A

The NDP neighbor advertisement (NA) contains the MAC address. A neighbor solicitation (NS) was initially sent asking for the MAC address. See chapter 17 for more information

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24
Q

Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long?

a) 4

b) 16

c) 32

d) 128

A

B

Each field in an IPv6 address is 16-bits long. An IPv6 address is a total of 128 bits. See chapter 17 for more information

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25
Q

To enable OSPFv3, which of the following would you use?

a) Router(config-if)#ipv6 ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0

b) Router(config-if)#ipv6 router rip 1

c) Router(config)#ipv6 router eigrp 10

d) Router(config-rtr)#no shutdown

e) Router(config-if)#ospf ipv6 10 area 0

A

A

To enable OSPFv3, you enable the protocol at the interface level, as with RIPng. The command string is area-id. It’s important to understand that area 0 and area 0.0.0.0 both describe area 0. See chapter 17 for more information

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26
Q

What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?

a) set the Telnet password

b) shut down the router

c) set your console password

d) disable console connections

A

C

The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console user-mode password. See chapter 13 for more information

27
Q

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two).

a) the subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0

b) the lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0

c) the last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0

d) the broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0

e) the network is not subnetted

A

B, D

The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256-254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses 2.1 through 3.254. See chapter 3 for more information

28
Q

On which interface do you configure an IP address for a switch?

a) int fa0/0

b) int vty 0 15

c) int vlan 1

d) int s/0/0

A

C

The IP address is configured under a logical interface, called a management domain or VLAN 1, by default. See chapter 8 for more information

29
Q

Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?

a) 192.168.168.129-190

b) 192.168.168.129-191

c) 192.168.168.128-190

d) 192.168.168.128-192

A

A

256-192 = 64, so 64 is our block size. Just count in increments of 64 to find out subnet: 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191, and the valid host range is the numbers between, or 129-190. See chapter 3 for more information

30
Q

Which of the following is considered to be the inside host’s address after translation?

a) inside local

b) outside local

c) inside global

d) outside global

A

C

An inside global address is considered to be the IP address of the host on the private network after translation. See chapter 11 for more information

31
Q

Your inside locals are not being translated to the inside global addresses. Which of the following commands will show you if your inside globals are allowed to use the NAT pool?

ip nat pool Corp 198.18.41.129 198.18.41.134 netmask 255.255.255.248
ip nat inside source list 100 int pool Corp overload

a) debug ip nat

b) show access-list

c) show ip nat translation

d) show ip nat statistics

A

B

Once you create your pool, the command ip nat inside source must be used to say which inside locals are allowed to use the pool. In this question, we need to see if access list 100 is configured correctly, if at all, so show access-list is the best answer. See chapter 11 for more information

32
Q

How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 5

d) 12

A

D

Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains per port. See chapter 7 for more information

33
Q

Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?

a) line telnet 0 4

b) line aux 0 4

c) line vty 0 4

d) line con 0

A

C

The command lien vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change your Telnet password. See chapter 13 for more information

34
Q

Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?

a) show all access-lists

b) show access-lists

c) show ip interface

d) show interface

A

B

To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command. See chapter 10 for more information

35
Q

What does a VLAN do?

a) acts as the fastest port to all servers

b) provides multiple collision domains on one switch port

c) breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork

d) provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

A

C

VLANs break up broadcast domains at Layer 2. See chapter 8 for more information

36
Q

If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, choose the best answer for the Cisco objectives.

a) erase startup

b) delete running

c) erase flash

d) erase running

A

A

The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM. See chapter 12 for more information

37
Q

Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?

a) TCP

b) ARP

c) ICMP

d) BootP

A

C

ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating router. See chapter 2 for more information

38
Q

Which class of IP address provides 15 bits for subnetting?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

A

A

Class A addressing provides 22 bits for host subnetting. Class B provides 16 bits, but only 14 are available for subnetting. Class C provides only 6 bits for subnetting. See chapter 3 for more information

39
Q

What DNS record do you need to create for APs to automatically discover the WLC?

a) CISCO-WLC-CONTROLLER

b) WLC-CONTROLLER

c) CISCO-AP-CONTROLLER

d) CISCO-DISCOVER-CONTROLLER

e) CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER

A

E

For the DNS method you need to create a A record for CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER that points to the WLC management IP

40
Q

Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

a) two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches

b) VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed

c) You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain

d) you need to have a trunk link configured between switches in orderd to send information about more than one VLAN down the link

A

D

Switches send information about only one VLAN down link unless it is configured as a trunk link. See chapter 8 for more information

41
Q

Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0 /24 into area 0? (Choose two.)

a) router eigrp 10

b) router ospf 10

c) router rip

d) network 10.0.0.0

e) network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

f) network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0

g) network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

A

B, G

To enable OSPF, you must first start OSPF using a process ID. The number is irrelevant; just choose a number from 1 to 65,535 and you’re good to go. After you start the OSPF process, you must configure interfaces on which to activate OSPF using the network command with wildcards and specification of an area. Option F is wrong because there must be a space after the parameter area and before yo list the area number. See chapter 6 for more information

42
Q

What command do you use to lookup a module in Ansible?

a) Ansible-doc

b) Ansible-execute

c) Ansible-Playbook

d) Run-Playbook

A

C

Ansible uses the ansible-doc command to look up a module and how to use it. SEe chapter 23 for more information

43
Q

If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

a) the lowest IP address of any physical interface

b) the highest IP address of any physical interface

c) the lowest IP address of any logical interface

d) the highest IP address of any logical interface

A
44
Q

What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)

a) VLAN Trunking Protocol

b) VLAN

c) 802.1q

d) ISL

A

C, D

VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information across a trunk link. 802.1q and ISL encapsulations are used to configure trunking on a port. See chapter 8 for more information

B

At the moment of OSPF process startup, the highest IP address on any active interface will be the router ID (RID) of the router. If you have a loopback interface configured (logical interface), then that will override the interface IP address and become the RID of the router automatically. See chapter 6 for more information

45
Q

What’s the default QoS queue for a WLAN?

a) Gold

b) Platinum

c) Bronze

d) Silver

e) Diamond

A

D

WLANs default to silver queue, which effectively means no QoS is being utilized. See chapter 20 for more information

46
Q

Where is the hub specified in the OSI model?

a) Session layer

b) Physical layer

c) Data link layer

d) Application layer

A

B

Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer. See chapter 1 for more information

47
Q

What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.)

a) Standard

b) IEEE

c) Extended

d) Specialized

A

A, C

Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router. See chapter 10 for more information

48
Q

Which port does TACACS+ use for accounting?

a) UDP 49

b) UDP 1645

c) UDP 1812

d) UDP 1813

e) TCP 49

A

E

TACACS+ uses port TCP 49 for all operations. See chapter 20 for more information

49
Q

What command is used to create a backup configuration?

a) copy running-backup

b) copy running-config startup-config

c) config mem

d) wr net

A

B

The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-config. See chapter 12 for more information

50
Q

1000Base-T is which IEEE standard?

a) 802.3f

b) 802.3z

c) 802.3ab

d) 802.3ae

A

C

IEEE802.3ab is the standard for 1Gbps on twisted-pair. See chapter 1 for more information

51
Q

Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?

a) IP

b) TCP

c) UDP

d) ARP

A

C

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this connectionless service. See Chapter 2 for more information

52
Q

Which of the following best describes a Resource in Restful API?

a) the specific path to the resource you’re trying to access through the API

b) the security token for the request

c) filtering options for the request

d) the full URL

A

A

The resource section of the URI points to the specific. See chapter 21 for more information

53
Q

Which command is used to determine if an access list is enabled on a particular interface?

a) show access-lists

b) show interface

c) show ip interface

d) show interface access-lists

A

C

The show ip interface command will show you if any interfaces have an outbound or inbound access list set. See chapter 12 for more information

54
Q

Which of the following states is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q?

a) 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control information

b) 802.1q is Cisco proprietary

c) ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1 inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information

d) ISL is a standard

A

C

Unlike ISL, which encapsulates the frame with control information 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information. See chapter 8 for more information

55
Q

The protocol data unit (PDU) encapsulation is completed in which order?

a) bits, frames, packets, segments, data

b) data, bits, segments, frames, packets

c) data, segment, packets, frames, bits

d) packets, frames, bits, segments, data

A

C

The PDU encapsulation method defines how data is encoded as it goes through each layer of the TCP/IP model. Data is segmented at the Transport layer, packets created at the Network layer, frames at the Data Link layer, and finally, the Physical layer encodes the 1s and 0s into a digital signal. See chapter 1 for more information

56
Q

Based on the configuration shown below, what statement is true?

S1(config)# ip routing
S1(config)# int vlan 10
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.
S1(config-if)# int vlan 20
S1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

a) this is a multilayer switch

b) the two VLANs are in the same subnet

c) encapsulation must be configured

d) VLAN 10 is the management VLAN

A

A

With a multilayer switch, enable IP routing and create one logical interface for each VLAN using the interface vlan number command and you’re now doing inter-VLAN routing on the backplane of the switch! See chapter 8 for more information

57
Q

Your boss read about WPA3 and wants you to explain it to him. What replaced the default open authentication with which of the following enhancements?

a) AES

b) OWL

c) OWE

d) TKIP

A

C

The 802.11 “open” authentication support has been replaced with Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) enhancement, which is an enhancement, not a mandatory certified setting. See chapter 19 for more information

58
Q

Which AP modes serve wireless traffic? (Choose two.)

a) local

b) monitor

c) FlexConnect

d) Sniifer

e) SE-Connect

A

A, C

The two AP-Modes listed that can serve wireless traffic are local and flexconnect. See chapter 20 for more information

59
Q

Which of the following choices best defines a token in Restful API?

a) how you filter response from the Restful API service

b) how you save the output from the Restful API service

c) how you authorize access to the Restful AP service

d) how you authenticate to the Restful API service

A

D

The token is used to authenticate you to the restful AP service. Restful API does not support authorization. See chapter 21 for more information

60
Q

If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

a) the lowest IP address of any physical interface

b) the highest IP address of any physical interface

c) the lowest IP address of any logical interface

d) the highest IP address of any logical interface

A

B

At the moment of OSPF process startup, the highest IP address on any active interface will be the router ID (RID) of the router. If you have a loopback interface configured (logical interface), then that will override the interface IP address and become the RID of the router automatically. See chapter 6 for more information

61
Q

What can the Code Preview feature be used for? (Choose two.)

a) enroll in beta updates for DNA Center

b) view what a code will do when ran against DNA Center

c) generates a sample code snippet to call the Restful API resource in the scripting language to your choice

d) viewing the source code for a DNA Center application

A
62
Q
A
62
Q

What can the Code Preview feature be used for? (Choose two.)

a) enroll in beta updates for DNA Center

b) view what a code will do when ran against DNA Center

c) generates a sample code snippet to call the Restful API resource in the scripting language to your choice

d) viewing the source code for a DNA Center application

A

C

The Code Preview feature in can generate a simple code snippet for several programming languages so you can quickly add it into your script. See chapter 22 for more information