CCNA Flashcards
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
A. management
B. protected frame
C. action
D. control
management
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol.
D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
C- A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.
B. Each hypervisor supports a single virtual machine and a single software switch.
C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
D. Virtualized servers run efficiently when physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
A. ipv6 address dhcp
B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
ipv6 address autoconfig
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)
A. 2000::/3
B. 2002::5
C. FC00::/7
D. FF02::1
E. FF02::2
FF02::1 and FF02::2
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
A. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252
B. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248
C. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248
D. interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
interface e0/0 description to XX-AXXX:XXXXX ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 172.9.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
172.28.0.0/16
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
A. link-local
B. unique local
C. multicast
D. global unicast
unique local
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
FF00::/8
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.)
A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again
D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex and when the cable length limits are exceeded
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations.
C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method.
D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs.
It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.
B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated.
C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.
D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.
If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table.
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.
Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network
C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the Internet with private range addressing
D. enables secure communications to the Internet for all external hosts
allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
A. explicitly assign a link-local address
B. disable the EUI-64 bit process
C. enable SLAAC on an interface
D. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
enable SLAAC on an interface
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.
B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.
D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels and For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
A. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data, UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.
B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.
C. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.
D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.
TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)
A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections
B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
C. The data can pass through the cladding
D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections
The glass core component is encased in a cladding and Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
A. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop
B. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
C. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/12
FF00::/12
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)
A. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies
B. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
C. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host
E. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies………The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses?
A. multicast
B. unique local
C. link-local
D. global unicast
Global unicast
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
A. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value
B. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface
C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
A. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
B. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
C. It provides variable latency.
D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
Each device is separated by the same number of hops.
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received. Which interface counter increments?
A. runt
B. collision
C. late collision
D. CRC
late collision
Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?
A. The source MAC address is changed.
B. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.
C. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.
D. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.
The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
A. 5, 6, 7
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 6, 11
D. 1, 5, 10
1, 6, 11
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
A. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgment, and parity checks, and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only
B. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks, and UDP uses retransmissions only
C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only
D. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only
TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement?
A. enable Band Select
B. enable DTIM
C. enable RX-SOP
D. enable AAA override
enable Band Select
What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c
D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08
E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff
ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2…….to allow communication between different devices on the same network
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
A. start of frame delimiter
B. Type field
C. preamble
D. Data field
Preamble
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically.
Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
A. ip default-gateway
B. ip route
C. ip default-network
D. ip address dhcp
E. ip address dynamic
ip address dhcp
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer
B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer
D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
Defines the network functions that occur at each layer…..Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address
B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address
C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges
D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware
E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90
F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network
To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address……A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware………An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6 to 4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
6 to 4 tunneling
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
They are less costly than public IP addresses…..They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections
What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)
A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic
B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets
C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection
D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP
E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic……The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data
Which two goals reasons to implement private IPv4 addressing on your network? (Choose two.)
A. Comply with PCI regulations
B. Conserve IPv4 address
C. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers
D. Reduce the risk of a network security breach
E. Comply with local law
Conserve IPv4 address…..Reduce the risk of a network security breach
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
A. broadband cable access
B. frame-relay packet switching
C. dedicated point-to-point leased line
D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching
broadband cable access
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)
A. asychronous routing
B. single-homed branches
C. dual-homed branches
D. static routing
E. dynamic routing
dual-homed branches….dynamic routing
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
A. 00000000
B. 11111100
C. 11111111
D. 11111101
11111100
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication
B. to implement NAT
C. to connect applications
D. to conserve global address space
E. to manage routing overhead
To enable intra-enterprise communication…..to conserve global address space
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength
B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)
A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers
E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time…..runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
A. enforcing routing policies
B. marking interesting traffic for data policies
C. applying security policies
D. attaching users to the edge of the network
enforcing routing policies
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts
B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
D. to pass traffic between different networks
to pass traffic between different networks
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service
B. Inspect packets for malicious activity
C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers
D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices
E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network
Provide uninterrupted forwarding service….Ensure timely data transfer between layers
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
A. different nonoverlapping channels
B. one overlapping channel
C. one nonoverlapping channel
D. different overlapping channels
different nonoverlapping channels
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
A. infrastructure-as-a-service
B. platform-as-a-service
C. business process as service to support different types of service
D. software-as-a-service
software-as-a-service
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers
B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN
C. moves packets within a VLAN
D. moves packets between different VLANs
E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
moves packets within a VLAN…..makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use
5GHz access points?
A. Client Band Select
B. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients
C. OEAP Spilt Tunnel
D. 11ac MU-MIMO
Client band select
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
A. processing inbound SSH management traffic
B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets
C. facilitates spanning-tree elections
D. forwarding remote client/server traffic
forwarding remote client/server traffic
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.
B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order.
C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.
D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.
TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
A. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B
B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::500:a:4F:583B
C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
D. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5:a:4F:583B
ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. LAN controller
C. load balancer
D. firewall
firewall
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
A. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks
B. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network
C. connect wireless devices to a wired network
D. support secure user logins to devices on the network
connect wireless devices to a wired network
An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
A. router
B. hypervisor
C. switch
D. straight cable
hypervisor
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication
B. to implement NAT
C. to connect applications
D. to conserve global address space
E. to manage routing overhead
to enable intra-enterprise communication
to conserve global address space
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength
B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)
A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers
E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
A. enforcing routing policies
B. marking interesting traffic for data policies
C. applying security policies
D. attaching users to the edge of the network
A. enforcing routing policies
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts
B. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
D. to pass traffic between different networks
D. to pass traffic between different networks
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service
B. Inspect packets for malicious activity
C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers
D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices
E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network
A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service
C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
A. different nonoverlapping channels
B. one overlapping channel
C. one nonoverlapping channel
D. different overlapping channels
A. different nonoverlapping channels
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers
B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN
C. moves packets within a VLAN
D. moves packets between different VLANs
E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
C. moves packets within a VLAN
E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
A. processing inbound SSH management traffic
B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets
C. facilitates spanning-tree elections
D. forwarding remote client/server traffic
D. forwarding remote client/server traffic
Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.
B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order.
C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.
D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.
C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
A. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.
B. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the Internet for web services.
C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.
D. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.
C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
A. data
B. management
C. control
D. action
B. management
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.
B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.
C. UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.
D. UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.
B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2.048 Mbps
C. 34.368 Mbps
D. 43.7 Mbps
A. 1.544 Mbps
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
A. Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.
B. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.
C. Both support runs of up to 55 meters.
D. Both support runs of up to 100 meters.
E. Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.
B. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.
D. Both support runs of up to 100 meters.
What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
A. onsite network services are provided with physical Layer 2 and Layer 3 components
B. wireless connections provide the sole access method to services
C. physical workstations are configured to share resources
D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment
D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment
Which network action occurs within the data plane?
A. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request
B. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC
C. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)
D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table
D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. Run routing protocols.
B. Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.
C. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.
D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.
E. Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.
C. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header
D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.
What are network endpoints?
A. support inter-VLAN connectivity
B. a threat to the network if they are compromised
C. act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network
D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the Internet
B. a threat to the network if they are compromised
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
A. conserve public IPv4 addressing
B. support the NAT protocol
C. preserve public IPv6 address space
D. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses
A. conserve public IPv4 addressing
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
A. small and needs to reduce networking costs
B. large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails
C. large and requires a flexible, scalable network design
D. currently small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future
A. small and needs to reduce networking costs
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
A. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization
B. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
C. on the public-facing interface of a firewall
D. on hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts
D. on hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts
What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats.
B. Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors.
C. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes.
D. Both cable types support LR connectors.
A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats.
Which function forwards frames to ports that have a matching destination MAC address?
A. frame flooding
B. frame filtering
C. frame pushing
D. frame switching
D. frame switching
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
A. global unicast address
B. link-local address
C. anycast address
D. multicast address
C. anycast address
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
A. provides wireless services to users in a building
B. connects server and client device to a network
C. allows users to record data and transmit to a file server
D. forwards traffic between VLANs on a network
C. allows users to record data and transmit to a file server
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?
A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture
B. It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus
C. It centralizes the data plane for the network
D. It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.
A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture
How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-responsible model?
A. TCP avoids using sequencing and UDP avoids using acknowledgments
B. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately
C. TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering
D. TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.
B. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately
Which set of 2 4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?
A. channels 1, 6, 11, and 14
B. channels 2, 7, 9, and 11
C. channels 2, 7, and 11
D. channels 1, 6, and 11
D. channels 1, 6, and 11
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network.
Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
A. IPv4-compatible IPv6 address
B. unique local address
C. link-local address
D. aggregatable global address
C. link-local address
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
A. different security settings
B. discontinuous frequency ranges
C. unique SSIDs
D. different transmission speeds
B. discontinuous frequency ranges
What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose two.)
A. It uniquely identifies a client in a WLAN.
B. It is at most 32 characters long
C. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN
D. It provides secured access to a WLAN.
E. It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN.
C. It uniquely identifies an access point in a WLAN
D. It provides secured access to a WLAN.
When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?
A. flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated
B. forwarded to the first available port
C. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
D. broadcast to all ports
C. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?
A. Core and distribution
B. access and WAN
C. distribution and access
D. core and WAN
A. Core and distribution
What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
A. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy
B. connects each switch to every other switch in the network
C. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
D. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users
C. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?
A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.
B. It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions
C. It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology
D. It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network
A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.
What is a function performed by a web server?
A. send and retrieve email from client devices
B. securely store files for FTP access
C. authenticate and authorize a userג€™s identity
D. provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP
D. provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP
Which protocol uses the SSL?
A. SSH
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. Telnet
B. HTTPS
Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency such as VoIP?
A. UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets: TCP drops packets under heavy load
B. UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order
C. TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery: UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets
D. TCP sends an acknowledgement for every packet received: UDP operates without acknowledgments
D. TCP sends an acknowledgement for every packet received: UDP operates without acknowledgments
What are the two functions of SSIDs? (Choose two.)
A. uses the maximum of 32 alphanumeric characters
B. controls the speed of the Wi-Fi network
C. used exclusively with controller-based Wi-Fi networks
D. supports a single access point
E. broadcasts by default
A. uses the maximum of 32 alphanumeric characters
D. supports a single access point
Which two characteristics describe the access layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)
A. serves as the network aggregation point
B. physical connection point for a LAN printer
C. designed to meet continuous redundant uptime requirements
D. layer at which a wireless access point connects to the wired network
E. provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications
B. physical connection point for a LAN printer
D. layer at which a wireless access point connects to the wired network
Which PoE mode enables powered-devices detection and guarantees power when the device detected?
A. auto
B. static
C. dynamic
D. active
A. auto
How is RFC 1918 addressing used in a network?
A. They are used to access the Internet from the internal network without conversion.
B. They are used in place of public addresses for Increased security.
C. They are used with NAT to preserve public IPv4 addresses.
D. They are used by Internet Service Providers to route over the Internet.
C. They are used with NAT to preserve public IPv4 addresses.
Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?
A. point-to-point
B. router-on-a-stick
C. full mesh
D. hub-and-spoke
C. full mesh
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
A. nothing plugged into the port
B. link flapping
C. latency
D. shutdown command issued on the port
B. link flapping
A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?
A. /29
B. /30
C. /27
D. /28
A. /29
Which two IP addressing schemes provide internet access to users on the network while preserving the public IPv4 address space? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 addressing
B. PAT with private internal addressing
C. single public Class A network
D. private networks only
E. custom addresses from ARIN
A. IPv6 addressing
B. PAT with private internal addressing
Explanation:
PAT with private internal addressing is the usual method of allowing Internet access while preserving IPv4 addresses. Another alternative is using IPV6, which will allow internet access without using any IPv4 addresses. The other answer choices will consume a great deal of public IPV4 addresses, or will not allow for internet access.
The address block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements:
✑ Create 8 new subnets.
✑ Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts.
✑ Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet.
✑ A Layer 3 interface is used.
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A. no switchport mode trunk ip address 192.168.32.97 255.255.255.224
B. switchport ip address 192.168.32.65 255.255.255.240
C. no switchport ip address 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224
D. no switchport mode access ip address 192.168.32.62 255.255.255.240
C. no switchport ip address 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224
What are two reasons to deploy private addressing on a network? (Choose two.)
A. to subnet addresses in an organized hierarchy
B. to reduce network maintenance costs
C. to segment local IP addresses from the global routing table
D. to hide sensitive data from access users within an enterprise
E. to route protected data securely via an Internet service provider
A. to subnet addresses in an organized hierarchy
C. to segment local IP addresses from the global routing table
Which property is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?
A. Both use the single-mode fiber type.
B. Both require UTP cable media for transmission.
C. Both require fiber cable media for transmission.
D. Both use the multimode fiber type.
C. Both require fiber cable media for transmission.
Which device permits or denies network traffic based on a set of rules?
A. switch
B. firewall
C. wireless controller
D. access point
B. firewall
What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?
A. determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks
B. processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network
C. forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection
D. explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain
A. determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused
B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated
C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it
D. Should a monitored port exceed the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shut down and err-disabled
D. Should a monitored port exceed the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shut down and err-disabled
What is a function spine-and-leaf architecture?
A. Offers predictable latency of the traffic path between end devices.
B. Exclusively sends multicast traffic between servers that are directly connected to the spine.
C. Mitigates oversubscription by adding a layer of leaf switches.
D. Limits payload size of traffic within the leaf layer.
A. Offers predictable latency of the traffic path between end devices.
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
A. Constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol.
B. Forwards traffic to the next hop.
C. Looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base.
D. Provides CLI access to the network device.
B. Forwards traffic to the next hop.
What is the function of the control plane?
A. It exchanges routing table information.
B. It provides CLI access to the network device.
C. It looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base.
D. It forwards traffic to the next hop.
A. It exchanges routing table information.
What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?
A. Implemented over a dedicated WAN
B. All hosted on physical servers
C. Accessed over the Internet
D. Located in the same data center as the users
C. Accessed over the Internet
Which key function is provided by the data plane?
A. Originating packets
B. Exchanging routing table data
C. Making routing decisions
D. Forwarding traffic to the next hop
D. Forwarding traffic to the next hop
When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?
A. Only when using VSS technology
B. For small networks with minimal need for growth
C. For large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites
D. The access and distribution layers must be on the same device
B. For small networks with minimal need for growth
A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?
A. a physical cable fault
B. a speed mismatch
C. high bandwidth usage
D. a cable that is too long
A. a physical cable fault
What are two reasons to implement IPv4 private addressing on a network? (Choose two.)
A. To enable internal applications to treat the private IPv4 addresses as unique
B. To facilitate renumbering when merging networks
C. To expand the routing table on the router
D. To provide protection from external denial-of-service attacks
E. To conserve global unique IPv4 addresses
D. To provide protection from external denial-of-service attacks
E. To conserve global unique IPv4 addresses
Which concern is addressed with the use of private IPv4 addressing?
A. Lack of routing protocol support for CIDR and VLSM
B. Lack of security protocols at the network perimeter
C. Lack of available TCP/UDP ports per IPv5 address
D. Lack of available publicly routable unique IPv4 address
D. Lack of available publicly routable unique IPv4 address
What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch in a three-tier architecture model?
A. access ג€” core ג€” access
B. access ג€” distribution ג€” distribution ג€” access
C. access ג€” core ג€” distribution ג€” access
D. access ג€” distribution ג€” core ג€” distribution ג€” access
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
A. An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node, but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.
B. IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration.
C. IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration.
D. Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.
Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?
A. partial mesh
B. full mesh
C. point-to-point
D. hub-and-spoke
C. point-to-point
How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?
A. Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches
B. Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.
C. Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.
D. Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.
B. Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
A. It immediately enables the port in the listening state.
B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded.
C. It enables BPDU messages.
D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
What occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. Root port choice and spanning-tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down.
B. After spanning-tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.
C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.
D. Spanning-tree fails to detect a switching loop increasing the likelihood of broadcast storms.
D. Spanning-tree fails to detect a switching loop increasing the likelihood of broadcast storms.
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
A. Platinum
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Silver
A. Platinum
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution WLANs support four levels of QoS: Platinum/Voice, Gold/Video, Silver/Best Effort (default), and Bronze/Background.
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description type length value (TLV). Which command sequence must be implemented?
A. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description
B. switch#lldp port-description
C. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description
D. switch(config)#lldp port-description
D. switch(config)#lldp port-description
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38418607
B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0
C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary
D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440
C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
A. local
B. mesh
C. flexconnect
D. sniffer
C. flexconnect
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A. active
B. on
C. auto
D. desirable
B. on
Explanation:
The Static Persistence (or ג€onג€ mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.
