CCMA Material Flashcards

1
Q

Goniometer

A
  • less accurate but faster result

- placed on both body parts to measure range of motion

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2
Q

Inclinometer

A
  • more accurate but harder to measure

- placed only on moving body part to detect range of motion

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3
Q

How do you measure body fat on a woman?

A

Using calipers, measure fat at the triceps, suprailiac, and the thigh

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4
Q

How do you measure body fat on a man?

A

Using calipers, measure fat at the chest, abdominals, and thigh

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5
Q

Anthropometric measurements include:

A

height, weight, BMI, and body circumference

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6
Q

How do you measure the head circumference of a child?

A

Have the child lay supine and measure right above the eyebrows and ears.

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7
Q

In what lab section is the pap smear in?

A

Cytology

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8
Q

How do you pass a scalpel?

A

Grasp the scalpel in the center of the handle with your dominant hand, and firmly place the scalpel handle in the hand of the assistant.

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9
Q

What are the suture supplies?

A

needle holder, toothed forceps, and fine suturing scissors. Suture removal usually happens after 2 weeks.

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10
Q

A rectal exam is performed in what position?

A

Sim’s

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11
Q

The best position for dyspnea is…

A

Fowlers

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12
Q

Providine-Iodine, or Betadine, is an antiseptic cleanser also used in ____. it is also a possible allergen because it is derived from ___.

A

Contrast dyes; shellfish

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13
Q

The apical pulse is measured by ___.

A

Placing the stethoscope on the apex of the heart and counting for 1 minute

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14
Q

What position is good for hypotension?

A

Trendelenburg, since it returns blood to vital organs

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15
Q

A percussion hammer is used to…

A

measure deep tendon reflexes

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16
Q

A curette is used as a scooping tool to…

A

remove tissue

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16
Q

A curette is used as a scooping tool to…

A

remove tissue

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17
Q

A curettage and eletrodesiccation (c&e) is a procedure used to treat …. How does it treat tumors?

A

low-risk tumors and precancerous lesions. C&E treats tumors by scraping away the cancerous tissue and destroying remaining cancer cells with an electric needle

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18
Q

A D&C, or dilation and curettage, is a surgical procedure after a ____.

A

First trimester miscarriage. In a D&C, dilation refers to opening the cervix, and currettage refers to removing the contents of the uterus.

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19
Q

The tray sterile field is ___ inch boundary to touch.

A

1

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20
Q

An ACE wrap must be bandaged from…

A

the bottom up

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21
Q

Cryosurgery is used to…

A

destroy abnormal or diseased tissue

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22
Q

the ear irrigation technique:

A
  • position ear, pull back on pinna of ear to straighten ear canal
  • use warm water
  • vertigo is a common symptom
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23
Q

To irrigate the eye, flush for __ minutes at the eye station.

A

15

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24
Q

Medication is inventoried by ___.

A

expiration date

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25
Q

The enteral route of administration has a system-wide effect, and is delivered through the __ tract. Methods of administration include ___, ___ & ___.

A

GI; oral, sublingual, and rectal

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26
Q

The parenteral system has systemic action, and routes other than the GI, such as through ___ or ___.

A

Injection; catheter

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27
Q

Transdermal, or ___ administration, is through the skin, such as with a ___.

A

percutaneous; patch

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28
Q

an IM injection has:

__ needle gauge

__ needle length

__ angle

A

18-21 needle gauge
1-1.5 inch needle length
90 degree angle

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29
Q

A subcut injection has a __ needle gauge, __ needle length, and __ angle to the skin.

A

21-25 gauge
3/8-5/8 needle length
45 degree, or 90 for insulin only

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30
Q

An intradermal injection has a __ needle gauge, __ needle length, and __ angle to the skin.

A

25-27 gauge
1/2 needle length
15 degrees

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31
Q

The TB test is also called the ___ test, and it injects 0.1 ml volume.

A

Mantoux

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32
Q

1 lb is __ kg.

A

0.45

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33
Q

1 kg is __ lb.

A

2.2

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34
Q

1 tsp is __ mL.

A

5

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35
Q

Some examples of intentional torts are ___.

A

battery, assault, defamation of character

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36
Q

negligent torts are ___ torts, and must be proven.

A

unintentional

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37
Q

A durable power of attorney means that…

A

the document stays in effect if you become incapacitated and unable to handle matters on your own

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38
Q

Palliative care plans are focused on providing..

A

relief from the symptoms and stress of a serious illness, such as using opiate meds

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39
Q

The most common medical mistake is…

A

patient misidentification

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40
Q

A peak flow meter measures ___.

A

how air flows from your lungs in one fast blast, or the ability to push air out of your lungs

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41
Q

Spirometry measures __ & __.

A

Forced vital capacity: largest amount of air you can blow out after taking your biggest breath in
and
Forced expiratory volume: the amount of air you can blow out of your lungs in the first second

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42
Q

Myopia is …

A

nearsightedness

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43
Q

Hyperopia is …

A

farsightedness

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44
Q

Presbyopia is …

A

hardening of the eyes, difficulty focusing on close objects

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45
Q

An ishihara test tests…

A

color vision

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46
Q

Pumping fists during phlebotomy can cause…

A

inaccurate results, such as increased potassium levels

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47
Q

If a patient develops a hematoma, or bruise, you should …

A

release tourniquet and stop procedure, and apply pressure and a cold pack

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48
Q

Serum includes ___.

A

Serum includes: clotting factors and white blood cells making a “buffy coat”

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49
Q

Yellow tube tests for ___.

A

blood culture

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50
Q

light blue tube tests for… and contains what additive?

A

coagulation studies/pt/ptt; sodium citrate

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51
Q

lavender tube tests for… and contains ___ as a coagulant

A

hematology/CBC; EDTA

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52
Q

Navy tube tests for…

A

heavy metals

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53
Q

Use a __ test to measure red/white blood cell count in a lavender tube.

A

CBC (complete blood count)

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54
Q

the hemoglobin A1c tests for… and uses a ___ colored tube

A

average glucose level over 3 months; lavender tube

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55
Q

Phenylketonuria or PKU is an inborn metabolism error concerning the amino acid ___. the lab test is from a ___ stick.

A

phenylalanine; heel stick

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56
Q

International Normalized Ration (INR) is a test to determine how long it takes for blood to clot. In a healthy person, an INR of __ is considered normal.

A

1.1

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57
Q

Culture and sensitivity (C&S) is included in what lab section?

A

Microbio

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58
Q

WBC count is included in what lab section?

A

hematology

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59
Q

FBG (fasting blood sugar) is included in what lab section?

A

chemistry

60
Q

Type and cross match-blood type test is included in what lab section?

A

Blood banking

61
Q

For blood culture bottles, the green top is __ and needs ___ mL of blood. The orange top is ___ and requires ___ of blood.

A

Green- adult aerobic, 5-10 mL

Orange-adult anaerobic, 5-10mL

62
Q

Excessive milking of a finger can cause…

A

Hemolysis- rupture of blood cells, contamination of specimen w/tissue fluids

63
Q

Normal values for a urinalysis are:

pH:
Specific gravity:
Urobilinogen:

A

pH: 4-7
Specific gravity: 1.001-1.035
Urobilinogen: 0.1-1

64
Q

Nitrites, NO2, byproduct of some bacterial enzymes, is in what lab section?

A

Urinalysis; sodium citrate

65
Q

24 Hr urine is used to…

A

detect kidney problems. have patient flush 1st urine of the day and then collect for 24 hours (fridge not required).

66
Q

The speed of an EKG is ___ mm/sec.

A

25

67
Q

On an ECG paper, each tiny box represents __ seconds, and each large box represents __ seconds.

A

SMALL BOX: 0.04 seconds

Large BOX: 0.2 seconds

68
Q

To find pulse from an EKG using the 1500 method…

A

Count the # of small squares between 2 R waves and divide by 1500

69
Q

A normal PR interval lasts..

A

0.12-0.20 seconds

70
Q

A normal QRS width lasts…

A

0.08-0.12 seconds

71
Q

___ is a congenital condition where the heart points towards the right side of the chest.

A

Dexotrocardia

72
Q

Which is the ground lead for an EKG?

A

Right leg

73
Q

Ischemia is…

A

reduced blood flow supply to an organ

74
Q

Prolonged ischemia can cause…

A

Necrosis: localized death of tissue (infarction)

75
Q

Ambulatory EKG monitoring allows us to monitor a patients heart during their normal activities. It uses a ___ lead EKG and usually worn for __ hours.

A

3/5 lead; 24 hours

76
Q

There are 3 main styles of business letters:

A

block, modified block, and semi-block styles. Block layout is most widely used.

77
Q

A tickler file is…

A

a collection of date-labeled file folders organized so that time-sensitive documents are filed according to when the need action.

78
Q

Wave booking is…

A

a booking method that brings several patients in to see the provider at the same time

79
Q

An advance beneficiary notice (ABN) or __ __ __.

A

Waiver of liability

80
Q

IDS-10 is a medical classification that contains codes for diseases, signs and symptoms, and causes of diseases.

The first part is known as the ___ ___, and provides an index for the diagnostic statement.

The second part is the ___ ___, made up of 21 chapters of disease descriptions and their codes.

A

Alphabetic index; tabular list

81
Q

Current Procedural Terminology, or CPT, is medical code used to …

A

report surgical, medical, and diagnostic procedures to services/entities such as insurance companies. (outpatient)

82
Q

CPT (current procedural terminology) modifiers are used to…

A

supplement information or adjust care descriptions concerning a procedure provided by a doctor. they allow further description without changing its definition.

83
Q

CPT (current procedural terminology) modifiers are used to…

A

supplement information or adjust care descriptions concerning a procedure provided by a doctor. they allow further description without changing its definition.

84
Q

By CPT definition, a new patient is one who has not received any services within the past __ years.

A

3

85
Q

How many CPT codes would there be for an EKG test?

A

2- one for performing, one for interpreting

86
Q

HCPCS, healthcare common procedure coding system is an extension of CPT products, services, and supplies not included already in the __.

A

CPT

87
Q

Billing codes are updated ___.

A

Annually

88
Q

CMS 1500 is a universal claim form for…

A

outpatient medical billing.

Blocks 1-13: patient and insurance

Blocks 14-33: provider/supplier information

89
Q

Some common coding mistakes are: ___ & ___.

A

Unbundling codes & upcoding.

90
Q

Accreditation standards for hospitals are set by the ___ ___.

A

Joint Commission

91
Q

PPO insurance or preferred provider organizations do not require ..

A

PCP referrals, and have more freedom to see specialists.

92
Q

HMO insurance, or health maintenance organizations requires their primary to ___ to see specialists.

A

send referrals

93
Q

Lipemic blood, has a ___ appearance due to fat.

A

milky

94
Q

in Hemolytic blood, serum has a ___ appearance because…

A

bloody; hemolyzed red blood cells

95
Q

Ecchymosis is…

A

a discoloration of the skin due to bleeding under the skin caused by bruising

96
Q

Post prandial means…

A

after a meal

97
Q

Dysuria

A

painful urine

98
Q

Hematuria

A

bloody urine

99
Q

hematemesis

A

vomiting blood

100
Q

Epistaxis

A

nose bleed

101
Q

Osteomalacia

A

softening of bone

102
Q

Osteoporosis

A

weak and brittle bones

103
Q

Cirrhosis

A

chronic liver damage

104
Q

Manifestation of anaphylaxis is in:

urticaria:
erythema:
pruritis:
angiodema:

A

urticaria: hives
erythema: redness of skin
pruritis: itchy skin
angiodema: rapid edema

105
Q

scler/o means…

A

hard

106
Q

sten/o means…

A

narrowing

107
Q

-ectomy

A

removal

108
Q

-ostomy

A

surgical creation of an opening

109
Q

-itis

A

inflammation

110
Q

cost-

A

ribs

111
Q

myo-

A

muscle

112
Q

ren-

A

kidney

113
Q

ur-

A

urine

114
Q

corp-

A

body

115
Q

-pnea

A

breathing

116
Q

-plasty

A

repair

117
Q

-rrhaphy

A

repair

118
Q

-tripsy

A

crushing

119
Q

-tomy

A

incision

120
Q

-pathy

A

disease

121
Q

-pathy

A

disease

122
Q

-oma

A

tumor

123
Q

infra-

A

below, beneath

124
Q

meta-

A

change

125
Q

para-

A

along, beside

126
Q

pharmacodynamics is…

A

effect drugs have on the body

127
Q

Enteric-coated tablets should be swallowed…

A

whole

128
Q

some hospital acquired infections are:

A

HBV, staph infection, TB (airborne)

129
Q

__ requires safety devices on needles

A

OSHA

130
Q

According to the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard, an exposure control plan must be:

A

reviewed and updated yearly

131
Q

Sanitize:

Disinfect:

Sterilize:

A

Sanitize: remove soil

Disinfect: reduce amount of microbes

Sterilize: remove all pathogens, autoclave

132
Q

What is cavacide?

A

Intermediate-level disinfectant

133
Q

Treponema pallidum is a causative agent of ___.

A

syphilis

134
Q

____ is a gram negative rod shaped bacterium.

A

E-coli

135
Q

Thrush is caused by ___ ___, and often causes diaper rash in infants or yeast infections in women.

A

Candida fungus

136
Q

Blood is:

55% plasma:

1% buffy coat:

& 45% ___

A

55% plasma: water, hormones, vitamins, glucose, proteins

1% buffy coat: WBCs and thrombocytes

& 45% RBCs

137
Q

Neutrophils are…

A

the most abundant white blood cell and are the first to fight off pathogens

138
Q

Thrombocytes are…

A

WBCs to initiate blood clots

139
Q

An erythrocyte…

A

matures to a RBC from being a stem cell in 7 days, total life cycle is 120 days

140
Q

blood flows in the heart from the __, to the ___, to the __, to the __.

A

RA, RV, LA, LV

141
Q

Heart murmur is characterized by a ___ sound from valves.

A

swishing

142
Q

People with type 1 diabetes…

A

don’t produce insulin

142
Q

People with type 1 diabetes…

A

don’t produce insulin

143
Q

people with type 2 diabetes…

A

do not respond to insulin as well as they should, and often do not make enough insulin later in the disease

144
Q

diabetes insipidus occurs when… and it is caused by…

A

the body cannot regulate how it handles fluids. it is caused by a hormonal abnormality.

145
Q

Important organs in the RUQ are:

A

gallbladder, liver

146
Q

Important organs in the LUQ are:

A

stomach, pancreas, spleen

147
Q

Important organs in the RLQ are:

A

Appendix