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CCIEcrackquestions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which two options are two characteristics of the HSRPv6 protocol? (Choose two.)

A. It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.0fff.
B. It uses UDP port number 2029.
C. It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.ffff.
D. It uses UDP port number 2920.
E. If a link local IPv6 address is used, it must have a prefix.

A

It uses virtual MAC addresses 0005.73a0.0000 through 0005.73a0.0fff.

It uses UDP port number 2029.

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2
Q
  1. Like OSPFv2, OSPFv3 supports virtual links. Which two statements are true about the IPv6 address of a virtual neighbor? (Choose two.)

A. It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining the hello packets received from the virtual neighbor.
B. It is the link-local address, and it is discovered by examining link LSA received by the virtual neighbor.
C. It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the router LSAs received by the virtual neighbor.
D. Only prefixes with the LA-bit not set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.
E. It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the intra-area-prefix-LSAs received by the virtual neighbor.
F. Only prefixes with the LA-bit set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.

A

It is the global scope address, and it is discovered by examining the intra-area-prefix-LSAs received by the virtual neighbor.

Only prefixes with the LA-bit set can be used as a virtual neighbor address.

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3
Q
  1. Which two statements are true about an EVPL? (Choose two.)
    A. It has a high degree of transparency.
    B. It does not allow for service multiplexing.
    C. The EVPL service is also referred to as E-line.
    D. It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of UNIs.
    Answer: CD
A

The EVPL service is also referred to as E-line.

It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of UNIs.

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4
Q
  1. Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)

A. It forwards Ethernet frames.
B. It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops.
C. It supports MAC address aging.
D. It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
E. It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
F. It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

A

It forwards Ethernet frames.
It supports MAC address aging.
It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.

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5
Q

Which three statements about EVCs are true? (Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree must use MST mode on EVC ports.
B. PAGP is supported on EVC ports.
C. Spanning Tree must use RSTP mode on EVC ports.
D. LACP is supported on EVC ports.
E. Layer 2 multicast framing is supported.
F. Bridge domain routing is required.

A

Spanning Tree must use MST mode on EVC ports.

PAGP is supported on EVC ports

LACP is supported on EVC ports.

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6
Q

ip route vrf red 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 global

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about this configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. The default route appears in the global routing table.
B. The static route appears in the VRF red routing table.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 is unique to the VRF red routing table.
D. The static route is added to the global routing table and leaked from the VRF red.
E. The subnet 192.168.1.0 is unique to the global routing table.
F. 192.168.1.1 is reachable using any of the addresses on the router where the static route is configured.

A

The default route appears in the global routing table.
The static route appears in the VRF red routing table
The subnet 192.168.1.0 is unique to the global routing table.

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7
Q

Which statement about BGP and diverse path advertisement is true?

A. The BGP best-path selection must be disabled.
B. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has been changed to always ignore the IGP metric.
C. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has been changed so that two BGP paths can be flagged as best in the BGP table.
D. The BGP best-path selection algorithm has not been changed.
E. The BGP best-path selection is disabled for BGP routes for which the feature is enabled.

A

The BGP best-path selection algorithm has not been changed.

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8
Q

How does having an EIGRP feasible successor speed up convergence?

A. EIGRP sends queries only if there is a feasible successor, which decreases the number of routers that are involved in convergence.
B. EIGRP sends queries only if there is not a feasible successor, which causes less control traffic to compete with data.
C. EIGRP immediately installs the loop-free alternative path in the RIB.
D. EIGRP preinstalls the feasible successor in the RIB in all cases, which causes traffic to switch more quickly.

A

EIGRP immediately installs the loop-free alternative path in the RIB.

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9
Q

Switch# show ip igmp snooping mrouter
VLAN port
———————–
10 Gi2/0/1(dynamic) , Router
20 Gi2/0/1(dynamic), Router
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about the output are true? (Choose three.)

A. An mrouter port can be learned by receiving a PIM hello packet from a multicast router.
B. This switch is configured as a multicast router.
C. Gi2/0/1 is a trunk link that connects to a multicast router.
D. An mrouter port is learned when a multicast data stream is received on that port from a multicast router.
E. This switch is not configured as a multicast router. It is configured only for IGMP snooping.
F. IGMP reports are received only on Gi2/0/1 and are never transmitted out Gi2/0/1 for VLANs 10 and 20.

A

An mrouter port can be learned by receiving a PIM hello packet from a multicast router.

This switch is configured as a multicast router.

Gi2/0/1 is a trunk link that connects to a multicast router.

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10
Q

Which action does route poisoning take that serves as a loop-prevention method?

A. It immediately sends routing updates with an unreachable metric to all devices.
B. It immediately sends routing updates with a metric of 255 to all devices.
C. It prohibits a router from advertising back onto the interface from which it was learned.
D. It advertises a route with an unreachable metric back onto the interface from which it was learned.
E. It poisons the route by tagging it uniquely within the network.

A

It immediately sends routing updates with an unreachable metric to all devices.

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11
Q

Which two statements are true about VPLS? (Choose two.)
A. It can work over any transport that can forward IP packets.
B. It provides integrated mechanisms to maintain First Hop Resiliency Protocols such as HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP.
C. It includes automatic detection of multihoming.
D. It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.
E. It can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance.

A

It relies on flooding to propagate MAC address reachability information.

It can carry a single VLAN per VPLS instance.

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12
Q

On which three options can Cisco PfR base its traffic routing? (Choose three.)

A. Time of day
B. An access list with permit or deny statements
C. Load-balancing requirements
D. Network performance
E. User-defined link capacity thresholds
F. Router IOS version
A

Load-balancing requirements

Network performance

User-defined link capacity thresholds

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13
Q

What are two advantages to using Asynchronous mode instead of Demand mode for BFD? (Choose two.)

A. Asynchronous mode requires half as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.
B. Asynchronous mode can be used in place of the echo function.
C. Asynchronous mode supports a larger number of BFD sessions.
D. Asynchronous mode requires one fourth as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.
E. Asynchronous mode’s round-trip jitter is less than that of Demand mode.

A

Asynchronous mode requires half as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.

Asynchronous mode can be used in place of the echo function.

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14
Q

Which three features are common to OSPF and IS-IS? (Choose three.)

A.They both maintain a link-state database from which a Dijkstra-based SPF algorithm computes a shortest path tree.
B. They both use DR and BDR in the broadcast network.
C. They both use hello packets to form and maintain adjacencies.
D. They both use NSSA and stub type areas to scale the network design.
E. They both have areas to form a two-level hierarchical topology.

A

They both maintain a link-state database from which a Dijkstra-based SPF algorithm computes

They both use hello packets to form and maintain adjacencies.

They both have areas to form a two-level hierarchical topology.

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15
Q

A service provider is deploying L2VPN LAN services in its MPLS cloud. Which statement is true regarding LDP signaling and autodiscovery?

A. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that an LDP session is active with its P neighbor for autodiscovery to take place.
B. LDP signaling requires that each P is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for auto discovery to take place.
C. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session with a BGP route reflector is active for autodiscovery to take place.
D. LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for auto discovery to take place.

A

LDP signaling requires that each PE is identified, and that a targeted LDP session is active for auto discovery to take place.

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16
Q

Event manager applet LARGECONFIG exhibit

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the EEM applet configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed.
B. The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed.
C. The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response.
D. The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI.

A

The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed.

The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response

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17
Q

What are two advantages to using Asynchronous mode instead of Demand mode for BFD? (Choose two.)

A. Asynchronous mode requires half as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.
B. Asynchronous mode can be used in place of the echo function.
C. Asynchronous mode supports a larger number of BFD sessions.
D. Asynchronous mode requires one fourth as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.
E. Asynchronous mode’s round-trip jitter is less than that of Demand mode.

A

Asynchronous mode requires half as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.

Asynchronous mode can be used in place of the echo function

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18
Q

Which BGP feature allows a router to maintain its current BGP configuration while it advertises a different AS number to new connections?

A. local-AS
B. next-hop-self
C. allow-AS in
D. soft reset

A

local-AS

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19
Q

Packets from a router with policy-based routing configured are failing to reach the next hop.
Which two additions can you make to the router configuration to enable the packets to flow correctly? (Choose two.)

A. Enable ip proxy-arp on the exiting interface.
B. Specify the next hop as an address.
C. Specify the next hop as an interface.
D. Add a match-any permit statement to the route map.

A

Enable ip proxy-arp on the exiting interface.

Specify the next hop as an address.

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20
Q 
sh pfr master traffic-class
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding prefix 10.1.0.0/24? (Choose two.)

A. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR rerouted the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because of an OOP event.
B. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via passive NetFlow mode only.
C. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via active, fast, or active throughput IP SLA probe mode only.
D. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the traffic was previously in policy.
E. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via mode monitor, which provides both NetFlow and IP SLA measurements.

A

The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the traffic was previously in policy.

Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via mode monitor, which provides both NetFlow and IP SLA

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21
Q

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the lowest priority with the highest drop probability? (There are 4 questions of this type, Do not confuse yourself in the exam.)

A. AF11
B. AF13
C. AF41
D. AF43

A

AF13

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22
Q

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the highest drop probability? (*)

A. AF11
B. AF13
C. AF41
D. AF43

A

AF43

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23
Q
  1. In the DiffServ model, which class represents the lowest priority with the lowest drop probability? (*)

A. AF11
B. AF13
C. AF41
D. AF43

A

AF11

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24
Q

What is the most common use for route tagging in EIGRP?

A. to determine the route source for management purposes
B. to change the metric of a prefix
C. to filter routes in order to prevent routing loops
D. to modify path selection for certain classes of traffic

A

to filter routes in order to prevent routing loops

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25
Q

Which two values comprise the VPN ID for an MPLS VPN? (Choose two.)

A. an OUI
B. a VPN index
C. a route distinguisher
D. a 16-bit AS number
E. a 32-bit IP address
A

an OUI

a VPN index

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26
Q

R1# Show logging
count and timestamp logging messages: disable

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the R1 configuration is true?

A. It supports the service timestamps log uptime command to display time stamps.
B. The logging buffer command was used to increase the default of the buffer.
C. The logging of warning messages is disabled.
D. Log message sequence numbering is disabled.

A

Log message sequence numbering is disabled.

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27
Q

Interface tunnel 1
tunnel1 source ethernet 0
tunne1 mode ipv6ip isatap
ipv6 address 2001:DB8::/64 eui-64

Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. No tunnel destination has been specified.
C. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
D. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.

A

Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.

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28
Q

Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)

A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.

A

The fragment header is 64 bits long.

The identification field is 32 bits long.

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29
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which technology can be used on the switch to enable host A to receive multicast packets for 239.2.2.2 but prevent host B from receiving them?

A. IGMP filtering
B. MLD snooping
C. IGMP snooping
D. MLD filtering

A

IGMP snooping

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30
Q

Which statement about the EIGRP RTO is true?

A. It is six times the SRTT.
B. It is the time that it normally takes for an update to be received by a peer.
C. It is the time that it normally takes to receive a reply to a query.
D. It is the average time that it takes for a reliable packet to be acknowledged

A

It is six times the SRTT.

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31
Q

Which two statements are true about RSTP? (Choose two.)

A. By default, RTSP uses a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
B. By default, RTSP does not use a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.
C. If a designated port receives an inferior BPDU, it immediately triggers a reconfiguration.
D. By default, RTSP uses the topology change TC flag.
E. If a port receives a superior BPDU, it immediately replies with its own information, and no reconfiguration is triggered.

A

By default, RTSP does not use a separate TCN BPDU when interoperating with 802.1D switches.

If a designated port receives an inferior BPDU, it immediately triggers a reconfiguration

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32
Q

FHR# show ipv6 mroute FF7E::1234

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about why the first-hop PIM IPv6 router is stuck in registering?
A. The scope of the IPv6 multicast address is link-local.
B. The outgoing interface for the IPv6 multicast group should not be a tunnel interface.
C. The R-bit is set in the IPv6 address, but this is not an embedded RP multicast IPv6 address.
D. The S flag should not be set on a first-hop PIM router.
E. A multicast IPv6 address does not start with FF.

A

The R-bit is set in the IPv6 address, but this is not an embedded RP multicast IPv6 address.

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33
Q

Which two statements about the ipv6 ospf authentication command are true? (Choose two.)

A. The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header.
B. The command configures an SPI.
C. The command is required if you implement the IPsec TLV.
D. The command can be used in conjunction with the SPI authentication algorithm.
E. The command must be configured under the OSPFv3 process.

A

The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header.

The command configures an SPI.

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34
Q

In an STP domain, which two statements are true for a nonroot switch, when it receives a configuration BPDU from the root bridge with the TC bit set? (Choose two.)

A. It sets the MAC table aging time to max_age + forward_delay time.
B. It sets the MAC table aging time to forward_delay time.
C. It recalculates the STP topology upon receiving topology change notification from the root switch.
D. It receives the topology change BPDU on both forwarding and blocking ports.

A

It receives the topology change BPDU on both forwarding and blocking ports.

It sets the MAC table aging time to forward_delay time

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35
Q

Which three statements about SPAN traffic monitoring are true? (Choose three.)

A. Traffic from a non-source VLAN is discarded when it arrives on a source VLAN.
B. Multiple sessions can send traffic to an individual destination port.
C. It supports up to 32 SPAN ports per switch.
D. The destination port acts as a normal switchport.
E. It supports up to 64 SPAN ports per switch.
F. Only one session can send traffic to an individual destination port.

A

Traffic from a non-source VLAN is discarded when it arrives on a source VLAN.

It supports up to 64 SPAN ports per switch.

Only one session can send traffic to an individual destination port.

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36
Q

Which three statements are functions that are performed by IKE phase 1? (Choose three.)

A. It builds a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 1 parameters.
B. It establishes IPsec security associations.
C. It authenticates the identities of the IPsec peers.
D. It protects the IKE exchange by negotiating a matching IKE SA policy.
E. It protects the identities of IPsec peers.
F. It negotiates IPsec SA parameters.

A

It authenticates the identities of the IPsec peers.

It protects the IKE exchange by negotiating a matching
IKE SA policy.

It protects the identities of IPsec peers.

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37
Q

Two routers are trying to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency over an Ethernet link, but the adjacency is not forming. Which two options are possible reasons that prevent OSPFv3 to form between these two routers? (Choose two.)

A. mismatch of subnet masks
B. mismatch of network types
C. mismatch of authentication types
D. mismatch of instance IDs
E. mismatch of area types
A

mismatch of instance IDs

mismatch of area types

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38
Q

Which three actions are required when configuring NAT-PT? (Choose three.)
A. Enable NAT-PT globally.
B. Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation
C. Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation.
D. Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPv4 address.
E. Specify a ::/48 prefix that will map to a MAC address.
F. Specify a ::/32 prefix that will map to an IPv6 address.

A

Specify an IPv4-to-IPv6 translation
Specify an IPv6-to-IPv4 translation.
Specify a ::/96 prefix that will map to an IPv4 address.

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39
Q

Which two options are the two main phases of PPPoE? (Choose two.)

A. Active Discovery Phase
B. IKE Phase
C. Main Mode Phase
D. PPP Session Phase
E. Aggressive Mode Phase
F. Negotiation Phase
A

Active Discovery Phase

PPP Session Phase

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40
Q

Which two statements are true about unicast RPF?

A. Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.
B. Unicast RPF strict mode works better with multihomed networks.
C. Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths.
D. Unicast RPF strict mode supports asymmetric paths.
E. CEF is optional with Unicast RPF, but when CEF is enabled it provides better performance.
F. Unicast RPF loose mode is typically used with ISP networks.

A

Unicast RPF requires CEF to be enabled.

Unicast RPF strict mode supports symmetric paths

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41
Q

What is the range of addresses that is used for IPv4-mapped IPv6 addresses?

A. 2001. db9. . /32
B. 2001. db8. . /32
C. 2002. . /16
D. . . ffff. /16
E. . . ffff. 0. 0/96
A

. . ffff. 0. 0/96

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42
Q

Which three features are common to OSPF and IS-IS? (Choose three.)

A. They both maintain a link-state database from which a Dijkstra-based SPF algorithm computes a shortest path tree
B. They both use DR and BDR in the broadcast network.
C. They both use hello packets to form and maintain adjacencies.
D. They both use NSSA and stub type areas to scale the network design.
E. They both have areas to form a two-level hierarchical topology

A

They both maintain a link-state database from which a Dijkstra-based SPF algorithm computes a shortest path tree

They both use hello packets to form and maintain adjacencies

They both have areas to form a two-level hierarchical topology.

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43
Q

R2# sh clns neighbors
Refer to the exhibit. Why is the neighbor relationship between R2 and R4 shown as ES-IS?

A. because there is an MTU mismatch between R2 and R4
B. because interface S3/0 of R4 is configured as L1/L2
C. because interface S3/0 of R2 is configured as L1
D. because there is a hello interval mismatch between R2 and R4

A

because interface S3/0 of R2 is configured as L1

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44
Q

A company is multihomed to several Internet providers using EBGP. Which two measures guarantee that the network of the company does not become a transit AS for Internet traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Prepend three times the AS number of the company to the AS path list.
B. Add the community NO_EXPORT when sending updates to EBGP neighbors.
C. Write AS-path access-list which permits one AS long paths only and use it to filter updates sent to EBGP neighbors.
D. Add the community NO_EXPORT when receiving updates from EBGP neighbors.

A

Write AS-path access-list which permits one AS long paths only and use it to filter updates sent to EBGP neighbors.

Add the community NO_EXPORT when receiving updates from EBGP neighbors

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45
Q

Which two actions can you take to allow the greatest number of pertinent packets to be stored in the temporary buffer of Cisco IOS Embedded Packet Capture? (Choose two.)

A. Specify the sampling interval.
B. Specify the capture buffer type.
C. Specify a reflexive ACL.
D. Specify the minimum packet capture rate.
E. Specify the packet size.
F. Store the capture simultaneously onto an external memory card as the capture occurs.

A

Specify the sampling interval.

Specify the capture buffer type

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46
Q

Which statement about passive interfaces is true?

A. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets.
C. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.

A

The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units.

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47
Q

Which three statements about GET VPN are true? (Choose three.)

A. It encrypts WAN traffic to increase data security and provide transport authentication.
B. It provides direct communication between sites, which reduces latency and jitter.
C. It can secure IP multicast, unicast, and broadcast group traffic.
D. It uses a centralized key server for membership control.
E. It enables the router to configure tunnels.
F. It maintains full-mesh connectivity for IP networks.

A

It encrypts WAN traffic to increase data security and provide transport authentication.

It provides direct communication between sites, which reduces latency and jitter.

It uses a centralized key server for membership control.

48
Q 
In which 802.1D port state are the root bridge, the root port, and the designated port(s) elected?
A. Listening
B. learning
C. forwarding
D. blocking
E. disabled
A

Listening

49
Q

Which two statements about UDP and latency are true? (Choose two.)

A. UDP is connection oriented, so the size of a UDP stream is independent of latency
B. UDP is connection oriented, so latency can increase the size of a UDP stream.
C. UDP is connectionless, so latency can increase the size of a UDP stream.
D. If latency decreases, throughput also decreases.
E. If latency increases, throughput also increases.
F. Latency can cause jitter on UDP connections.

A

UDP is connectionless, so latency can increase the size of a UDP stream

Latency can cause jitter on UDP connections

50
Q

show ipv6 mroute

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address with link-local scope.
B. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address that is used for unique local sources only.
C. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address that can be used for BIDIR-PIM only.
D. The output shows an IPv6 multicast address with embedded RP.

A

The output shows an IPv6 multicast address with embedded RP.

51
Q

How does MSTP provide backward compatibility with RSTP?
A. It uses the hop count variable as a TTL counter.
B. It transmits all spanning-tree information in one BPDU.
C. It supports up to 128 MSTI messages.
D. It encodes the MSTP-specific region information before the legacy RSTP BPDU.

A

It encodes the MSTP-specific region information before the legacy RSTP BPDU.

52
Q 
Which standard feature can be exploited by an attacker to perform network reconnaissance?
A. IP-directed broadcast
B. maintenance operations ptotocol
C. ICMP redirects
D. Source quench
A

ICMP redirects

53
Q

How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

A. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table.
B. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices.
D. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.

A

Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.

54
Q

Which statement about the bgp soft-reconfig-backup command is true?

A. It requires BGP to store all inbound and outbound updates.
B. It overrides soft reconfiguration for devices that support inbound soft reconfiguration.
C. When the peer is unable to store updates, the updates are implemented immediately.
D. It provides soft reconfiguration capabilities for peers that are unable to support route refresh.
E. It provides outbound soft reconfiguration for peers.

A

It provides soft reconfiguration capabilities for peers that are unable to support route refresh.

55
Q

What happens when an interface is configured as passive in OSPF?

A. No OSPF neighbor ship is formed on the interface.
B. An OSPF neighbor ship is formed with the DR, but not with the BDR.
C. The subnet configured on the interface is not advertised to any other neighbor.
D. OSPF hello messages are sent as unicast instead of multicast.

A

No OSPF neighbor ship is formed on the interface.

56
Q 
Which protocol will accept incoming updates when the passive-interface command is configured?
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. RIP
D. EIGRP
A

RIP

57
Q 
What are the three HDLC operating modes? (Choose three.)
A. normal response
B. asynchronous balanced
C. synchronous response
D. asynchronous response
E. normal balanced
A

normal response

asynchronous balanced

asynchronous response

58
Q

Which two statements about BPDU guard are true? (Choose two.)

A. The global configuration command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default shuts down interfaces that are in the PortFast-operational state when a BPDU is received on that port.
B. The interface configuration command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard enable shuts down only interfaces with PortFast enabled when a BPDU is received.
C. BPDU guard can be used to prevent an access port from participating in the spanning tree in the service provider environment.
D. BPDU guard can be used to protect the root port.
E. BPDU guard can be used to prevent an invalid BPDU from propagating throughout the network.

A

The global configuration command spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default shuts down interfaces that are in the PortFast-operational state when a BPDU is received on that port

BPDU guard can be used to prevent an access port from participating in the spanning tree in the service provider environment.

59
Q

Which three options are best practices for implementing a DMVPN? (Choose three.)

A. Use IPsec in tunnel mode.
B. Implement Dead Peer Detection to detect communication loss.
C. Configure AES for encryption of transported data.
D. Configure SHA-1 for encryption of transported data.
E. Deploy IPsec hardware acceleration to minimize router memory overhead.
F. Configure QoS services only on the head-end router.

A

Use IPsec in tunnel mode.

Implement Dead Peer Detection to detect communication loss.

Configure AES for encryption of transported data.

60
Q

Which two statements are true about IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A. IS-IS DIS election is nondeterministic.
B. IS-IS SPF calculation is performed in three phases.
C. IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly.
D. IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop.

A

IS-IS works over the data link layer, which does not provide for fragmentation and reassembly

IS-IS can never be routed beyond the immediate next hop

61
Q

Which three statements about OSPFv3 address families are true? (Choose three.)

A. Each address family requires the same instance ID.
B. Address families can perform route redistribution into any IPv4 routing protocol.
C. An address family can have two device processes on each interface.
D. IPv4 address family require an IPv4 address to be configured on the interface,.
E. Each address family uses a different shortest path tree.
F. Different address families can share the same link state database.

A

Address families can perform route redistribution into any IPv4 routing protocol.

IPv4 address family require an IPv4 address to be configured on the interface,.

Each address family uses a different shortest path tree.

62
Q

Which BGP feature prevents a router from installing an iBGP learned route in its routing table until the route is validated within the IGP?

A. confederation
B. aggregation
C. advertise-map
D. synchronization

A

synchronization

63
Q

Which two statements about TCP are ture? (Choose two.)

A. TCP option must be divisible by 32.
B. It has a 16-bit window size.
C. Its maximum data offset is fifteen 32-bit words.
D. It has a 32-bit window size.
E. Its maximum data offset is ten 32-bit words.
F. It has a 32-bit checksum field.

A

It has a 16-bit window size.

.Its maximum data offset is fifteen 32-bit words.

64
Q

Which EEM event detector is triggered by hardware installation or removal?

A. Enhanced-Object-Tracking Event Detector
B. Resource Event Detector
C. OIR Event Detector
D. CLI Event Detector

A

OIR Event Detector

65
Q

What are the two requirements for BGP to install a classful network into the BGP routing table?(Choose two)

A. The AS contains the entire classfull network.
B. A classful network statement with a lower administrative distance is in the routing table.
C. Auto-summary is enabled.
D. A classful network statement with a classful mask is in the routing table.
E. Synchronization is enabled.
F. Synchronization is disabled.

A

Auto-summary is enabled.

A classful network statement with a classful mask is in the routing table.

66
Q

Independent, multiple OSPF processes are entered on the same router, and the processes have the same destination route. Which OSPF process is used?

A. The route with the fewest hops is used.
B. Both processes are used to load balance the traffic.
C. The first route process that places a route into the routing table is used.
D. The route with the shortest prefix is used.

A

The first route process that places a route into the routing table is used

67
Q

Which three statements about implementing an application layer gateway in a network are true? (Choose three.)

A. It allows client applications to use dynamic ports to communicate with a server regardless of whether NAT is being used.
B. It maintains granular security over application-specific data.
C. It allows synchronization between multiple streams of data between two hosts.
D. Application layer gateway is used only in VoIP/SIP deployments.
E. Client applications require additional configuration to use an application layer gateway.
F. An application layer gateway inspects only the first 64 bytes of a packet before forwarding it through the network.

A

It allows client applications to use dynamic ports to communicate with a server regardless of whether NAT is being used.

It maintains granular security over application-specific data.

It allows synchronization between multiple streams of data between two hosts

68
Q

Which three EIGRP packet types are valid? (Choose three.)

A. open
B. notification
C. keep-alive
D. hello
E. query
F. request
A

hello
query
request

69
Q

Which two statements about MPLS VPNs are true? (Choose two.)

A. PE routers maintain customer routes in the VPN for that customer.
B. They use the explicit-null label by default.
C. P routers are used only for label transit.
D. P routers maintain customer routes in the VPN for that customer.
E. They support only one route target.
F. Each interface on a PE router must have its own VRF

A

PE routers maintain customer routes in the VPN for that customer.

P routers are used only for label transit.

70
Q

Which three statements about IPsec VTIs are true? (Choose three.)

A. IPsec sessions require static mapping to a physical interface.
B. They can send and receive multicast traffic.
C. They can send and receive traffic over multiple paths.
D. They support IP routing and ACLs.
E. They can send and receive unicast traffic.
F. They support stateful failover.

A

They can send and receive multicast traffic

They support IP routing and ACLs.

They can send and receive unicast traffic.

71
Q

Which three values can you use to configure an ERSPAN destination session? (Choose three.)

A. VLAN ID
B. source IP address
C. destination IP address
D. ID number
E. VRF
F. session name
A

source IP address

ID number

VRF

72
Q

Which three types of traffic are allowed by IEEE 802.1X access control prior to getting authenticated? (Choose three.)

A. EAPOL
B. VTP
C. STP
D. ARP
E. CDP
F. HTTP
A

EAPOL

STP

CDP

73
Q

In IPv6 Path MTU Discovery, which ICMP message is sent by an intermediary router that requires a smaller MTU?

A. Time Exceeded, with code 1 (fragment reassembly time exceeded)
B. Packet Too Big
C. Destination Unreachable, with code 4 (the datagram is too big)
D. Multicast Termination Router

A

Packet Too Big

74
Q

Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two.)

A. transport mode
B. strict mode
C. port mode
D. loose mode
E. VLAN mode
F. dynamic mode
A

port mode

VLAN mode

75
Q

Which IPv6 tunneling mechanism requires a service provider to use one of its own native IPv6 blocks to guarantee that its IPv6 hosts will be reachable?

A. 6rd tunneling
B. automatic 6to4 tunneling
C. NAT-PT tunneling
D. ISATAP tunneling
E. manual ipv6ip tunneling
F. automatic 4to6 tunneling
A

6rd tunneling

76
Q

Which two discovery mechanism does LDP support? (Choose two.)

A. strict
B. extended
C. loose
D. targeted
E. basic
A

extended

basic

77
Q

On a network using RIPng, the prefix field of a routing table entry has a value of 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0. What does this value signify?

A. The next hop address is unknown.
B. The next hop address is a site-local address.
C. The neighboring router has IPv6 ND disabled.
D. The next hop address must be the originator of the route advertisement.
E. The associated route follows a default route out of the network.

A

The associated route follows a default route out of the network

78
Q

Which AS_PATH attribute can you use to prevent loops when implementing BGP confederations?

A. AS_CONFED_SET
B. AS_SEQUENCE
C. AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE
D. AS_SET

A

AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE

79
Q

Which two statements about OSPF are true? (Choose two.)

A. External type 2 routes are preferred over interarea routes.
B. Intra-area routes are preferred over interarea routes.
C. External type 1 routes are preferred over external type 2 routes.
D. External type 1 routes are preferred over intra-area routes.
E. External type 2 routes are preferred over external type 1 routes.

A

Intra-area routes are preferred over interarea routes.

External type 1 routes are preferred over external type 2 routes

80
Q

Which two statements about the OSPF two-way neighbor state are true? (Choose two.)

A. Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor.
B. Each neighbor receives a hello message from the other neighbor.
C. It is valid only on NBMA networks.
D. It is valid only on point-to-point networks.
E. Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor.
F. Each neighbor receives the router ID of the other neighbor in a hello packet from the other neighbor.

A

Each neighbor receives its own router ID in a hello packet from the other neighbor

Each neighbor receives an acknowledgement of its own hello packet from the other neighbor

81
Q

Which two options are differences between TACACS+ and RADIUS using AAA? (Choose two.)

A. Only TACACS+ limits the protocols that are supported.
B. Only RADIUS combines accounting and authentication.
C. Only TACACS+ uses TCP.
D. Only RADIUS combines authorization and accounting.
E. Only RADIUS encrypts the password in packets from the client to the server. But leaves the body of the message unencrypted.

A

Only TACACS+ uses TCP.

Only RADIUS encrypts the password in packets from the client to the server. But leaves the body of the message unencrypted.

82
Q

Which three responses can a remote RADIUS server return to a client? (Choose three.)

A. Reject-Challenge
B. Access-Reject
C. Accept-Confirmed
D. Access-Accept
E. Access-Challenge
F. Reject-Access
A

Access-Reject

Access-Accept

Access-Challenge

83
Q

Which two statements about device access control are true? (Choose two.)

A. The AUX port is displayed as type tty in the output of the show line command.
B. VTY lines are associated with physical interfaces on a network device.
C. MPP restricts device-management access to interfaces that are configured under the control plane host configuration.
D. The enable password command sets an MD5 one-way encrypted password.
E. The console port supports hardware flow control

A

MPP restricts device-management access to interfaces that are configured under the control plane host configuration.

The console port supports hardware flow control

84
Q

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the lowest drop probability? (*)

A. AF13
B. AF43
C. AF11
D. AF41

A

AF41

85
Q

Which statement about traffic management when PIM snooping is enabled is true?

A. Traffic is restricted to host ports.
B. All multicast traffic is flooded to the designated router.
C. Join message are flooded to all routers.
D. Designated routers receive traffic only from groups through which a join message is received.

A

Designated routers receive traffic only from groups through which a join message is received

86
Q

Which two statements about the passive-interface command are true? (Choose two.)

A. A RIP router listens to multicast updates from its neighbor but stops sending multicast updates on the passive interface.
B. In OSPF, configuring passive-interface at the interface level suppresses hello packets for the interface and all sub interfaces.
C. An EIGRP router can form neighbor relationship on the passive interface, but incoming and outgoing multicast updates are disabled on the interface.
D. A RIP router disables all incoming and outgoing multicast updates in the passive interface.
E. In EIGRP, the passive interface stops sending hello packets.
F. In OSPF, the passive interface can receive incoming routing updates and update the device routing table.

A

A RIP router listens to multicast updates from its neighbor but stops sending multicast updates on the passive interface

In EIGRP, the passive interface stops sending hello packets.

87
Q

Which component of MPLS architecture uses protocols such as the label distribution protocol and tag distribution protocol to exchange labels?

A. control plane
B. data plane
C. forwarding plane
D. routing plane

A

control plane

88
Q

Which two methods can you use to limit the range for EIGRP queries? (Choose two.)

A. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.1 outbound from select EIGRP neighbor and permit everything else.
B. Configure route tagging for all EIGRP routes.
C. Summarize routes at the boundary routers of the EIGRP domain.
D. Configure unicast EIGRP on all routers in the EIGRP domain.
E. Configure stub routers in the EIGRP domain.
F. Use an access list to deny the multicast address 224.0.0.10 outbound from select EIGRP neighbors and permit everything else.

A

Summarize routes at the boundary routers of the EIGRP domain.

Configure stub routers in the EIGRP domain

89
Q

Which two best practices does Cisco recommend to migrate a network from PVST+ to MST? (Choose two.)

A. Start the migration at the edge nodes and work toward the root bridge.
B. Before starting the transition, configure one of the edge nodes with a lower priority so that it becomes the root bridge after the transition.
C. Before starting the transition, ensure that at least two nodes act as the root bridge for all VLANs in the network.
D. Start the migration at the root bridge and work toward the edge nodes.
E. Before starting the transition, configure one of the edge nodes with a higher priority so that it becomes the root bridge after the transition.
F. Before starting the transition, ensure that one node is the root bridge for all VLANs in the network.

A

Start the migration at the edge nodes and work toward the root bridge

Before starting the transition, ensure that one node is the root bridge for all VLANs in the network.

90
Q

Which two statements best describes the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two.)

A. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow.
B. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link.
C. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links.
D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links.

A

Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link.

Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links.

91
Q

router eigrp 1
network 10.0.0.0
eigrp stub

Refer to the exhibit. Which two route types are advertised by a router with this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. connected
B. external
C. summary
D. static
E. redistributed
A

connected

summary

92
Q

switch# show mls qos queue-set 1

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this egress queue are true? (Choose two.)

A. The queue 3 buffer is allocated 20 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 400 percent of memory.
B. The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 25 percent, and it is guaranteed 100 percent of memory.
C. The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it is guaranteed 150 percent of memory.
D. The queue 2 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 200 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.
E. The queue 3 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 100 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.

A

The queue 1 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 25 percent, and it is guaranteed 100 percent of memory

The queue 2 buffer is allocated 30 percent, its drop threshold is 200 percent, and it can use at maximum 400 percent of memory.

93
Q

vrf definition mgmt
rd 1:1
addresds family ipv4

Refer to exhibit. The router is unreachable using telnet. Which option is solution?
A. Use an extended access list instead of standard access list.
B. The transport output telnet command must be added.
C. The VRF configuration must be completed.
D. The “vrf-also” keyword must be added to the access-class configuration.

A

The “vrf-also” keyword must be added to the access-class configuration

94
Q

Which two statements about the function of PIM designated router are true? (Choose two.)

A. It registers directly connected source to the PIM rendezvous point.
B. It sends PIM asserts on the interface of the outgoing interface list.
C. It sends PIM Join/Prune messages for directly connected receivers.
D. It forwards multicast traffic from the source into the PIM network.
E. It sends IGMP queries

A

It registers directly connected source to the PIM rendezvous point.

It sends PIM Join/Prune messages for directly connected receivers

95
Q

Which two options are mandatory components of a multiprotocol BGP VPN-IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

A. a system ID
B. a route target
C. a route distinguisher
D. an MPLS label
E. an area ID
F. an IPv4 address
A

an IPv4 address

a route distinguisher

96
Q

interface loopback25
ip address 23.25.25.1/24

int eth0
ip adrress 192.168.12.1 /30

Refer to the exhibit. You are bringing a new MPLS router online and have configured only what is shown to bring LDP up. Assume that the peer has been configured in a similar manner.
You verify the LDP peer state and see that there are no neighbors.
What will the output of show mpls ldp discovery show?

A. Interfaces:
Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit
B. Interfaces:
Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit/recv
LDP Id: 25.25.25.2:0; IP addr: 192.168.12.2
C. Interfaces:
Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit/recv
LDP Id: 192.168.12.2:0; no route
D. Interfaces:
Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit/recv
LDP Id: 25.25.25.2:0; no route
A

Interfaces:
Ethernet0/0 (ldp): xmit/recv
LDP Id: 25.25.25.2:0; no route

97
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The Main1 and Branch1 switches are connected directly over an MPLS pseudowire, and both run UDLD. After router B1 reloads because of a power failure, the pseudowire is restored. However, the Branch1 switch is unable to reach the Main1 switch.

Which two actions can you take to restore connectivity and prevent the problem from recurring? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a backup pseudowire between the Main1 and Branch1 switches.
B. Enable UDLD recovery on both the Main1 and Branch1 switches.
C. Configure a backup GRE tunnel between the Main1 and Branch1 swiitches.
D. Enable errdisable recovery on both the Main1 and Branch1 switches.
E. Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on both the Branch1 switch’s uplink to the B1 router and the Main1 switch’s uplink to the M1 router.
F. Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the Branch1 switch uplink to the B1 router only.

A

Enable errdisable recovery on both the Main1 and Branch1 switches

Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the Branch1 switch uplink to the B1 router only.

98
Q

Drag and drop extended ping command

TOS

sweep range of sizes

data pattern

loose strict record timestamp

A

TOS adjusting delay, throughput

sweep range of sizes determine MTU

data pattern, framing issues

loose strict , configuring ip header

99
Q

performance monitoring config process

A

Interface

Policy

Class

Monitor

Record

100
Q

BGP attributes

well known mandatory

A

AS Path

101
Q

BGP optional transitive

A

Community

102
Q

BGP optional nontransitive

A

originator ID

cluster list

103
Q

Open Confirm

A

BGP routing process waits to receive an initial keepalive message from the peer

104
Q

idle

A

Initial BGP state

105
Q

Active

A

BGP process tries to establish a TCP session with a peer device

106
Q

Connect

A

BGP routing process detects that a peer is trying to establush a TCP session with the local BGP speaker

107
Q

OpenSent

A

TCP connect is established

108
Q

Established

A

Router exchanges update messages

109
Q

Unique local unicast

A

FC00::/7

110
Q

Global Unicast

A

2000::/3

111
Q

Link Local Unicast

A

FE80::/10

112
Q

Multicast

A

FF00::/8

113
Q

SNMP element

inform

A

an exchange of MIB data

114
Q

Response

A

reply to a request

115
Q

Trap

A

unsolicited message

116
Q

Set

A

reply by a manager to an agent

CCIE crack 100+ questions (1 decks)

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