CCI flash cards

0
Q

ASD surgery is mainly considered when the Qp/Qs exceeds? What is Qp/Qs?

A

ASD surgery is mainly considered when the Qp/Qs > 1.5 the size of an atrial septal defect is typically described in terms of the ratio between pulmonary blood flow (Qp) and systolic blood flow (Qs).

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1
Q

Sound waves are described as?

A

Longitudinal, mechanical

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2
Q

What does each prefix mean ?

Ab, acro, epi, cyan, intra, supra, Brady, peri, leuk, end, auto

A

Ab-away from, acro-extremities, epi-outer, cyan-blue, intra-within, supra-above over, Brady-slow, per-around/about, leuk-white, end-inside, auto-self

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3
Q
What is the approximate equivalent of 16 ounces? 
A.1.5 liter
B. 1.0 kiloliter
C. 0.5 microliters
D. 500 milliliters
A

D. 500 milliliters

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4
Q

What is the average speed of sound in soft tissue, bone and air?

A

Soft tissue-1,540 m/s, bone 3,500 m/s, air 330m/s

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5
Q

What does each root word mean?

Athro, cardio, hemo, neuro, rhin, thromb, viscer, myco, laparo, path

A

Athro-joint. Cardio-heart. Hemo-blood. Neuro-nerve. Rhin-nose. Thromb-clot. Viscer-organ. Myco-fungus. Laparo-abdomen. Path-disease

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6
Q

What is the frequency of ultrasound? What is the frequency of infrasound?

A

Ultrasound is >20,000 hz. Infrasound is <20hz.

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7
Q

The label on a large aspirin bottle reads grains. Dr. Jeff feelbetter’s prescription reads aspirin. Grains XV every 4 hours. How many tablets should be tavern according to the dr.?

A

3 tablets should be taken.

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8
Q

The RV approximately how many times thinner than the LV?

A

Three

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9
Q

What does each suffix mean?

Algia, centsis, desis, ectomoy, itis, ostomy, plasty, Oma, scopy, and megaly.

A

Algia-pain. Centsis-surgical puncture. Desis-surgical Union. Ectomoy-removal. Itis-inflammation. Ostomy-opening into. Plasty-surgical repair. Oma-Tumor. Scopy-view. Megaly-enlargement

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10
Q

What is a specular reflector? What is nonspecular reflector?

A

Specular reflector=large smooth structure in comparison to the wavelength like a diaphragm. A nonspecular reflector (also known as Rayleigh scatter) is a smaller reflector like a red blood cell.

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11
Q

What are these measurements of? 1. Mm 2. Cc 3. Cm squared

A

Mm=distance. Cc=volume. Cm squared =area

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12
Q

What is harmonic imaging? If your harmonic frequency is 6mhz what is the initial transmit frequency?

A

Transmit a certain frequency which is the first harmonic and then processes the next harmonic at twice the frequency. 3mhz because, the first frequency was 3mhz the second higher frequency would be 6mhz.

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13
Q

What layer of the heart makes the heart contract? What is the thick middle layer of the heart called?

A

Myocardium

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14
Q

How many centimeters are in a meter? How many cubic centimeters in 3.56 cubic meters? What is 3/8 converted to a decimal? How many centimeters are in 2 meters?

A

100,3,560,000, 3/8 is 0.375, centi means hundredth so there are 200 centimeters in 2 meters.

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15
Q

Name the two major types of harmonic imaging?

A

Tissue and contrast

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16
Q
According to ohms law, resistance is the product of voltage divided by:
A. Ergs
B. Watts
C. Power
D. Current 
E. Ohms
A

D. Current

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17
Q

Are these prefixes in increasing order? Micro, centi, milli, deci, kilo, hecto.
What do the prefixes kilo, giga, and mega mean?

A

No, here is the correct increasing order : micro, milli, centi, deci, hecto, kilo.
Kilo=1000, giga = billion, mega=million

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18
Q

How many elements does the CW transducer need to operate?

A

Two. One sending and one receiving.

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19
Q

What is the name of the valve by the IVC?

A

Eustachian valve

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20
Q

How do you convert Fahrenheit to Celsius? How do you convert Celsius to Fahrenheit? Normal oral body temperature is 98.6F, what is the equivalent in Celsius?

A

To convert a Fahrenheit to Celsius, subtract 32 from the Fahrenheit reading and multiply by 5/9. Example : 5/9 (98.6-32)= 37.0. Celsius to Fahrenheit -multiply Celsius reading by 9/5 and add 32. Example : 9/5100 +32= 212.37.0C

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21
Q

What is a common murmur heard with mitral valve prolapse?

A

Mid systolic click

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22
Q

What is the damping material used for in a transducer? How does damping influence the bandwidth and Q factor?

A

Damping material is placed behind the element to reduce the number of cycles in each pulse. This also increases the bandwidth and decreases the Q factor.

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23
Q
A measure of the total opposition to current flow in an alternating current circuit, measured in ohms defines?
A. Voltage
B. Impedance
C. Inductance
D. Capacitance
A

B. Impedance

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24
Q

What abnormality is often associated with a high pitched friction rub murmur?

A

Pericarditis

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25
Q

What is the decimal form of 44%? 8 is 2 and 1/2% of what number? What is 2/3 divided by 5? What is the product of 2/3, 1/5, 3/6?

A

44%=.44, 8 is 2.5% of 320, 2/3 divided by 5 is 2/15, the product of 2/3, 1/5, 3/6 is 1/15.

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26
Q

What is the Doppler effect?

What is the Doppler shift?

A

Effect-change in frequency of sound relative to the movement of the source.
Shift- is the difference between the transmitted and received frequency.

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27
Q

Can aliasing occur with normal blood flow using color flow Doppler?

A

Yes, high velocities can alias

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28
Q

What is 40% of 200? What is 1.0 x 10 to the 5th power? If it takes 5 hours to clean 2/3 of a large boat, how long will it take to clean the whole boat?

A

40% of 200 is 80.

1.0 x 10 to the 5th power is 100,000. To clean the whole boat will take 7 1/2 hours.

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29
Q

What is a common Murmur heard in patients with constrictive pericarditis?

A

Pericardial knock

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30
Q

A patient with a PDA may have what type of murmur?

A

Continuous murmur

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31
Q
The normal range for white blood cell count in adult males (per cubic millimeter) is approximately :
A. 500-1,000
B. 5,000-10,000
C. 10,000-20,000
D. 50,000-100,000
E. 500,000-1,000,000
A

B. The normal range for white blood cell count in adult males (per cubic millimeter) is 5,000-10,000

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32
Q

What are three common sense principles of transporting patients?

A
  1. Always get adequate assistance when needed. 2. Use lower body strength (legs) they are strongest. 3. When moving an ambulatory patient from wheelchair to bed - bend knees, and put one foot between the patients legs and the other close to the bed. Turn your body as a unit, not a pivot.
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33
Q

What factor involving the wavelength and frequency will improve axial resolution?

A

Increasing the frequency will decrease the wavelength and improve axial resolution

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34
Q
A patient is admitted to the cardiac department with the following ABGs : Fi02 = 40%, ph =7.3, pc02 =50, hco3 = 20. According to these blood gases, the patient is in :
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
A

C. Respiratory acidosis - ABG Fi02 = 40% (respiratory) also note the pH is in acidosis range

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35
Q

How do you transport patients involving wheelchairs? When entering an elevator with a patient in a wheelchair you should?

A

Lock big wheels using the wheel locks. The foot rests must be moved aside or removed completely to prevent tripping. Back into the elevator so you can make a quick and safe exit.

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36
Q

T/F a mobile mass typically moves into the left atrium during systole and moves to the left ventricle during diastole?

A

True

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37
Q

What is axial resolution? What is lateral resolution?

A

Axial - able to resolve two closely spaced structures that are parallel to the direction sound is traveling.
Lateral- resolve closely spaced structures that are perpendicular to the beam.

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38
Q

List two common findings in a patient with the connective tissue disorder Marfans syndrome. What valvular jet is often observed?

A

Mitral valve prolapse, aortic dilatation/dissection. MR and AI

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39
Q

Ultrasound bio effects are not confirmed below what number?

A

100 mW/cm2 SPTA (spacial peak temporal average)

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40
Q

What are the three main methods of oxygen administration used in a medical setting?

A

Nasal cannula, nasal prongs, tent.

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41
Q

What is stable cavitation? What is transient cavitation?

A

Expansion and contraction of micro bubbles which may cause tissue damage. Stable is the safe cavitation. Transient is a more violent form which is bad.

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42
Q

What is the disease also knows as “aortic arch syndrome” that occurs more in women in Asia and Africa?

A

Takayasu arteritis also known as pulseless disease is an inflammatory disease with and unknown cause. It affects the aorta, the main blood vessels that attach to it. Inflammation of the aorta and major derivative branches. This inflammation leads to aterial stenosis, thrombosis, and aneurysms.

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43
Q

What system is the liver, pancreas, endocrine glands, thymus gland and gallbladder part of?

A

Digestive system

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44
Q

What is TGC and what does it do?

A

Time gain compensation. It helps to compensate for attenuation of the sound waves.

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45
Q

What is the most common mechanical prosthetic valve?

A

St. Jude (bi-leaflet tilting disc). The design (using two disks, a hinge mechanism, and a low profile) was found to be very durable when constructed of an appropriate material (usually carbon pyrolite) and has enjoyed low thrombogenecity and superior hemodynamics. Of the half dozen or so varieties of the bi -leaflet valve, the st. Jude prostheses has been used most often in aortic and mitral valve replacements. Of the three varieties of the st. Jude prostheses, all are constructed of carbon pyrolite, and have recently been fitted with circular metallic ring below the polyester sewing ring for aid in X-ray visibility.

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46
Q

What term would correspond to the list of terms?

1. Towards midline 2. Away from midline 3. Close to a location 4. Farther away from the location.

A

1.medial 2. Distal 3. Proximal 4. Distal

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47
Q
The major pathway of blood circulation to the brain is through the : 
A. Femoral arteries 
B. Carotid arteries 
C. Coronary arteries
D. Subclavian arteries 
E. Pulmonary arteries
A

B. The major pathway of blood circulation to the brain is through the carotid arteries.

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48
Q

What is the unit for attenuation? Name three causes of attenuation in soft tissue? Which is the most major cause of attenuation in soft tissue?

A

Decibel (dB). Reflection, absorption and scatter. Absorption is the largest form of attenuation in soft tissue. (Conversion of energy into heat)

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49
Q

What type of valves is the Hancock? What type of valve is the ionescu-shiley?

A

They are both prosthetic valves. Hancock - most commonly from the pig, ione from the cow.

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50
Q

When a patient is in respiratory distress, what are a few ways in which they could be positioned to help with breathing?

A

Upright in position (sitting 45 degrees), mid fowlers position (semi setting 30 degrees) reverse trendelenburg (lying down on back, head elevated higher than pelvis).

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51
Q

If a patient is in shock, what would be a good position to out them in?

A

Trendelenburg (lying down with feet elevated above pelvis)

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52
Q

Name four acoustic variables?

A

Temperature, density, particle motion And pressure.

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53
Q

What is the advantage and disadvantage of a mechanical valve vs. a bioprosthetic valve?

A

Mechanical valves typically are more durable but require anticoagulant therapy. Bioprosthetic valves usually don’t require anticoagulant ion and have low thrombic risk.

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54
Q

In performing CPR on an adult what is the recommended breath to compression ratio? What ratio for a child or infant?

A

Adult - 15 compressions to 2 breaths, child 5:1

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55
Q

T/F a common inflammatory finding with post surgery bioprosthetic valve replacement is they usually are at least 2mm thick?

A

False

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56
Q

What two factors influence propagation speed? Which has the largest effect?

A

Bulk modulus (stiffness) and density. Stiffness has the largest influence.

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57
Q
  1. Should IV bags be kept above, at level, or below the level of the IV site? 2. If a patient has a Foley catheter in place, should the bag be placed above, level with, or below the waist?
A
  1. Above infusion site 2. Below the waist
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58
Q

At a fat-tissue/ muscle interface approximately what percent of the ultrasound beam would be transmitted? Why?

A

99%, there is a small acoustic mismatch

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59
Q

What type of graft transplant would demonstrate replacing the aortic valve in the heart with another persons aortic valve?

A

Homographs (or allographs) in which the patient receives a replacement heart valve from a deceased donor. Because the delicate nature of the valve surgeons must be careful to ensure the grave is the proper size and to take the Utmost care during surgery, since it is harder to install than all other forms of tissue valves. In an autograph tissue valve, the tissue is from the bishops the patient receiving the valve replacement. The surgeon can take tissue from a variety of regions, including, but not limited to, the dura mater, pericardium, fascia lata, peritoneum, and vena cava. The tissue is then attached to a synthetic frame, usually of stainless steel, which gives the structure a stronger form and is therefore easier to transplant than a homograph.

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60
Q

Approximately how much sound energy would be reflected at a soft tissue (skin)/ air interface? Why?

A

99%, there is a large acoustic mismatch

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61
Q

What is a common sunroom of a patient with endocarditis? What is the “classic” cardiac finding with endocarditis?

A

Fever/chills. A patient with endocarditis is at risk of vegitations.

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62
Q

What is malpractice? What is consent? What is the primary goal of code of ethics?

A

Malpractice is defined as bad or harmful practice that injures another person. Consent is permission granted by a person voluntarily and in south mind. Code of ethics is to determine what is moral, it is your obligation to do good.

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63
Q

Are these sound velocities in order from lowest to highest? Air,fat,blood,muscle,liver,skin, bone?

A

Yes

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64
Q

What side of the mitral and tricuspid valves are vegitations most commonly seen?

A

Atrial side

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65
Q

Why is AC 60hz current (wall current), a ver dangerous current to the heart if you were to get shocked?

A

It can produce cardiac fibrillation - a life threatening arrhythmia.

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66
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is most commonly found in what type of patients? What side of the heart is most effected?

A

IV drug user. Right side of heart.

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67
Q

What is the difference between negligence and liability? What is the purpose of a quality assurance program?

A

Liability means we are legally responsible for our actions towards patients. Negligence means to not do something we should or do something we should not. QAP purpose it to monitor and help patients receive optimal care.

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68
Q

What is the frequency range for clinical imaging?

A

2-15 MHz

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69
Q

As frequency increases, axial resolution will?

A

Improve

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70
Q

Name three guidelines for charting health care records?

A
  1. Records are kept on all clients receiving care or treatment. 2. The chart is considered the property of the facility. 3. Do not chart before the event occurs.
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71
Q

Name 3 reasons a pericardial effusion may occur.

A

Infection, radiation therapy, metastatic disease

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72
Q

Name the government agency having the legal responsibility for enforcing proper drug manufacture and clinical use?

A

Food and drug administration (FDA)

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73
Q

What is tamponade?

A

A moderate to large pericardial fluid build up do to a rapid increase in venous pressure.

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74
Q

What unit is dynamic range measured in? What is dynamic range?

A

Decibels, the range of gray scale between the lowest and the highest magnitude signals the ultrasound system can detect.

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75
Q

As frequency increases attenuation will?

A

Increase

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76
Q

How does inspiration effect the mitral and tricuspid valve during a tamponade?

A

Inspiratory velocity decrease across MV and an increased velocity across TV.

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77
Q

When documenting in a computer chart, is it ok to use general non specific statements?

A

No, avoid using generalizations, use facts. These are things that can be visually observed, felt and heard.

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78
Q

If fibrin is seen in an effusion, what may this suggest?

A

Long standing effusion

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79
Q

What are most hospital safety requirements for power cables and electronic equipment like EKG and Echo machines? What is sparks fly when you plug in the machine?

A

They must be 3 wire conductor, with 3 prong plug. If sparks fly the machine might have been left on.

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80
Q

What describes power/area?

A

Intensity.

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81
Q

If a patient feels faint during a blood draw or IV insertion what might help?

A

Have the patient put there head between there knees.

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82
Q

What is pulses paradoxus?

A

> 10mmHg decrease in systolic pressure gradient during inspiration.

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83
Q

Which of the following Doppler frequencies 18 MHz, 7mhz, 2mhz, 2.5mhz would result in the shallowest penetration depth?

A

18 MHz

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84
Q

The largest Doppler shift occurs when the beam strikes at what angle?

A

0 degrees angle

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85
Q

What is the best reliable predictor for echo in a tamponade? What is a common way to treat a tamponade?

A

RV wall diastolic collapse. Pericardial centesis (tap) to drain the fluid.

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86
Q

What three factors influence residence to blood flow? What vessel has the greatest influence on total vascular resistance?

A

Radius of vessel, viscosity if fluid through the vessel and the length of the vessel all determine resistance to flow. Arterioles.

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87
Q
Which of the following vessels have the greatest influence on total vascular resistance? 
A. Veins
B. Venules
C. Arterioloes
D. Capillaries
A

C. Arterioles

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88
Q

Describe aliasing? Can aliasing only occur with pulsed Doppler systems?

A

When the PRF (pulse repitition frequency) is less than twice the Doppler shift frequency. Yes

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89
Q

What are the two classic findings (heart sound and m-mode) for constrictive pericarditis?

A
  1. Pericardial knock sound 2. Atrial or Spanish notch on m-mode
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90
Q

What are three types of electrical injury involving hands and feet? Which of the three is considered the most deadly?

A

Foot to foot electric shock,hand to foot, hand to hand. The most deadly route is hand to hand, with a risk of going through the heart.

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91
Q

T/F with constrictive pericarditis the diastolic filling is impaired?

A

True

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92
Q

What information does the spectral analysis provide?

A

Amplitude,time, frequency.

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93
Q

What is the reason heart valves open and close? What are the mean intra cardiac pressures (mmHg) for each chamber?

A

A change in intra cardiac pressure. RA 2-8. RV 15-30/2-8. LV 80 to 130/3-12. LA 2-12. PA15-30/4-12. AO 100-140/60-90

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94
Q

What does FFT (fast Fourier transform) do to ultrasound signals?

A

Converts Doppler signals to analog waveforms.

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95
Q

What is an aneroid sphygmomanometer? What is considered the normal value for blood pressure?

A

It is an inflatable cuff that measures the blood pressure using air or Mercury. Normal value is 120/80.

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96
Q

What is pulmonary HTN? What side of the heart does pulmonary HTN effect? What are three things associated with PHTN?

A

A pulmonary pressure greater than 30 mmHg. Right heart (PHTN is typically secondary to left heart problems). RAE, RVE, TR, dilated IVC.

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97
Q

Define the following key terms: asepsis, immunity, sterile, pathogen.

A

Asepsis- freedom from infection. The methods used by health care workers to prevent spread of microorganisms. Immunity- high level of resistance to certain microorganisms. Sterile- free from all living microorganisms. Pathogen- microorganism that produces disease.

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98
Q

T/F with PHTN there is a common finding d-shape “pancaking” of the septum in systole? T/F this is due to both volume overload and high pressure.

A

True, true

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99
Q

What is write magnification? Is this pre or post processing?

A

It is a zoom feature to increase the size of the structure you want to look at. It is part of preprocessing.

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100
Q

Define the following key terms: infection, isolation, reverse isolation.

A

Infection- invasion and multiplication of microorganisms in the body tissues. Isolation - separation from others (because they may have an infection) and want to prevent the spread of microorganisms. Reverse isolation- protects the patient from microorganisms that may be carried by staff or visitors.

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101
Q

What is a common method used to calculate pulmonary artery pressure by Doppler?

A

Get the TR jet peak velocity and use the modified Bernoulli formula (RSVP = 4xV squared). Then ad 5, 10, 15, 20 to it depending on the IVC size and function. Example : with a peak TR jet of 2.0m/s the RSVP would be 2x2x4=16+5 (IVC) answer : RSVP = 21 mmHg

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102
Q

What is pre processing? Name two pre processing functions?

A

After data is acquired you may use the data before storage in the scan converter. TGC and rejection are both pre processing.

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103
Q

The pressure gradient through a tube is inversely proportional to which of the following:
A. Length of the tube
B. Flow rate of fluid
C. Radius of the tube to the fourth power
D. Radius of the tube to the sixteenth power.

A

C. Radius of the tube to the fourth power.

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104
Q

What is a simplified view of the Krebs cycle?

A

Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle) Is basically many oxidation reductions, involving various acids. During these reactions, O2 and h2 combine and energy is released. The cycle creates energy (ATP), by breaking the bonds in glucose (ADP to ATP). This is import at because ATP is the primary energy storage molecule the heart muscle uses to contract.

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105
Q

What is post processing? Name one example of post processing?

A

Using the data (assignment of grey shades) after it was stored in the scan converter. A frozen image

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106
Q

What is the normal dimension of the IVC? Does it collapse with inspiration?

A

1.2 to 2.3 cm.. Yes, it usually has some collapse upon inspiration.

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107
Q

What is the main organ responsible for regulating electrolyte and acid base balance in the body?

A

Kidney

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108
Q

What two things are a sound waves wavelength determined by?

A

The medium and source of sound

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109
Q

T/F PHTN is a common cause of left atrial enlargement?

A

False, PHTN is a right heart problem and usually does not effect the left atrium.

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110
Q

What are normal arterial blood gas values?

A

Normal ABG’s would be: PH 7.38-7.44, PC02 40 mmHg, HC03 (bicarbonate) 24mEq/L

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111
Q

What are two ways to reduce bio effects on an ultrasound system?

A

Limit the scan exposure time and reduce the transmit gain.

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112
Q

What do you call the memory or computer of the ultrasound machine?

A

Digital scan converter

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113
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis? What is a normal bicarbonate level?

A

Excessive bicarbonate (HCo3) in the blood. The normal level is 24-28mEq/L.

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114
Q

What is the number one cause of dilated cardiomyopathy in the USA? What are other international causes? What type of EF is associated with a dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Alcohol is the number one cause. Other causes are infection, AIDS, ischemia. 10-25% EF.

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115
Q

What is the number one valvular heart disease? What is the best 2-D view used for diagnosing mitral valve prolapse?

A

Mitral valve regurgitation is the number one valvular heart disease. Use the parasternal long axis view (3 chamber) for diagnosing MVP.

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116
Q

Why is a ultrasound transducer that is cracked considered unsafe?

A

It may cause electric shock

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117
Q

In an emergency situation what body fluids may be considered infectious? How do you disinfect an area after a blood spill?

A

All fluids may be infectious. After a blood spill put on tour gloves, then use 1 part bleach with 10 parts water.

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118
Q

What are five common findings associated with dilated cardiomyopathy? What is a common late complication associated with this type of cardiomyopathy?

A

Increased EPSS, dilated LV, global hypokinesis with a low EF, decreased aortic root motion, LAE. Risk of systemic emboli or apical thrombus late in course.

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119
Q

What is the formula for wavelength?

A

Wavelength=c/f (speed divided by frequency)

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120
Q

Describe the artifact reverberation and name one?

A

Multiple echoes equally spaced and close to the transducer. Gas bubbles.

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121
Q

If your are accidentally exposed to a patients blood, what is the medical responsibility to the healthcare worker?

A

Post exposure follow up must be made available and blood testing is free of charge.

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122
Q
In statistics, the most common used measure of variability or dispersion of data is the:
A. Chi square
B. Students t-test
C. Quartile deviation 
D. Standard deviation
E. Statistical mean
A

D. Standard deviation

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123
Q

What is Chagas’ disease?

A

Cardiomyopathy caused from a parasite bite (more common in South America)

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124
Q

If there is a lack of oxygen in the blood stream for anaerobic glycolysis, what is on of the end products?

A

Lactic acid may build up in the body.

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125
Q

What artifact will occur to an object if the propagation speed is less than 1540m/s when scanning?

A

The object will be placed too far from the transducer.

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126
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy may be seen as a bright myocArdium with ground glass appearance? What causes the bright appearance?

A

Amyloidosis. Starch like deposits of amyloid.

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127
Q

Oxidation of glucose is also known as? Why is the process important to the cell?

A

Cellular respiration. This process produces the cells energy.

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128
Q

What are the three major type of cardiomyopathy?

A

Hypertrophic (with or w/o obstruction), dilated (congestive), restrictive (infiltrative).

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129
Q

What type of artifact may sclerotic valves and prosthetic valves produce? What type of artifact is associated with low amplitude signals?

A

Shadowing artifact

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130
Q

What are building blocks of proteins called? What part of a cell stores genetic nucleic acids?

A

Amino acids, deoxyrubonucleic acid (DNA)

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131
Q

What are two classic findings associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy using Doppler and m-mode?

A

Late peak dager shape on Doppler, mid systolic notch of AoV (double diamond appearence) on m-mode.

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132
Q

What is considered the audible sound range? Does the Doppler shift occur in this range?

A

-20 kHz to 20 kHz. Yes

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133
Q

The heart rate and respirations are controlled in what part of the brain?

A

Medulla oblongata

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134
Q

What are two ways to improve temporal resolution? Will increasing the frame rate improve temporal resolution?

A

Decrease image depth, decrease the sector size of your scan. Yes.

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135
Q

What effect does the valsalva maneuver have on aortic valve murmurs?

A

It will increase or accentuate the murmur

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136
Q

What does the valsalva maneuver do to intrathoracic pressure? What murmurs will increase during the valsalva maneuver?

A

The strain phase of the valsalva maneuver increases intrathoracic pressure and will decrease venous return, stroke volume and cardiac output. All murmurs will decrease except for murmurs of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy and mitral valve prolapse.

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137
Q

What is the fresnel zone? What is the Fraunhofer zone?

A

Fresnel - near field of the sound beam. The region between the transducer face and the focal point.
Fraunhofer - far field. After the focal point where there is beam divergence.

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138
Q

What is the main brain stimulus used to control breathing? What nerve controls the breathing by the diaphragm?

A

The C02 levels in the body is what the brain uses to regulate breathing. The phrenic nerve controls breathing by the diaphragm.

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139
Q

T/F the memory of the ultrasound machine uses binary numbers?

A

True

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140
Q

T/F systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve is associated with HCM?

A

True

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141
Q

Where is insulin produced? Is the pancreas located in the abdominal cavity?

A

Pancreas. Yes.

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142
Q

Mosaic color may depict what type of blood flow?

A

Turbulent

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143
Q

What does amyl nitrate do to the heart? What murmurs are increased by amyl nitrate and which are decreased?

A

Amyl nitrate is a vasodilator which causes a decrease in BP and venous return. Murmurs such as AS, AO sclerosis and HOCM are increased. Also a murmur with MVP may be more prevalent, however murmurs MR, AR, and VSD’s will typically decrease.

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144
Q

What is the simplest carbohydrate group? What are the three classified groups of carbohydrates?

A

Monosaccharide, the simplest group, and is a single sugar molecule such as glucose or fructose. Disaccharide, polysaccharide, and monosaccharide.

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145
Q

Are lipids soluble in water? What are the three major groups of lipids?

A

No. The three groups are: triglycerides (fats, oils and waxes), phospholipid and steroids.

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146
Q

T/F with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy common findings are LVE, LVH and LAE.

A

False. LVH, LAE, and normal to decreased LV size.

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147
Q

What type of transducer can beam steer and focus from a small time delay in the elements firing mechanism?

A

Sector phased array transducer

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148
Q

Describe peak to peak pressure gradient compared to a peak instantaneous pressure gradient. Which is used in Doppler echocardiography?

A

Peak to peak used in cath, compares the peak systolic right or left ventricular pressure to the peak systolic pulmonary artery or aorta (2 measurements). While peak instantaneous is just one measurement obtaining the instantaneous peak between the 2 chambers and is used in echo.

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149
Q

What type of transducer does not have beam steering and produces a rectangle shape?

A

Linear sequenced array transducer

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150
Q

What type of ventricular aneurysm involves only two layers of the heart muscle? What are the two layers?

A

Pseudoaneurysm. Epicardium and pericardium.

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151
Q

In continuous wave ultrasound what is the maximum duty factor value? What is the minimum value?

A

Maximum is 1 or 100% when the CW is on. Minimum is 0 or 0.0% when CW is off. H

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152
Q

T/F A true ventricular aneurysm occurs more frequently than a pseudoanerysm? T/F aneurysm formation is the most complication of an myocardial infarction?

A

False. True.

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153
Q

What are the three parts that make up the respiratory system?

A

Respiratory system includes the trachea, bronchi and lungs.

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154
Q

In the ultrasound beam, where is lateral resolution best? Where is axial resolution best?

A

Lateral resolution is best at the focus. Axial resolution is best throughout the beams length.

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155
Q

T/F True venticular aneurysms have the mouth wider than the body and involve the endo, myo and epicardial ventricular walls?

A

True

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156
Q

What is amarosis fugax? What is syncope?

A

Temporary loss of sight or blindness in one eye (monocular) caused from decreased blood flow to the retina. Syncope is the medical term for fainting, a sudden, usually temporary, loss of consciousness generally caused by insufficient oxygen in the brain either through cerebral hypoxia or through hypotension, but possibly for other reasons. Typical symptoms progress through dizziness, clamminess of the skin, a dimming of vision or grey out, possible tinnitus, complete loss of vision, weakness of limbs to physical collapse.

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157
Q

What does the nervous system consists of?

A

The paired Vegas nerves, and paired sympathetic chains.

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158
Q

What is the name of the most common electronic cardiac transducer?

A

Sector phased array

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159
Q

What is the number one benign cardiac tumor that is made of connective tissue cells?

A

LA myxoma

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160
Q

What body cavity contains the lungs, heart, esophagus, trachea, major blood vessels, endocrine glands nervous system and lymphatics?

A

Thoracic cavity

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161
Q

What dB increase would be considered if the intensity is increased 1000 times greater than the original signal?

A

30dB

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162
Q

What is the number one malignant cardiac tumor?

A

Sarcoma- it is the most common malignant tumor of the heart, and occurs in the right atrium. Here it can cause right sided heart failure, arrhythmias, pericardial effusion, and cardiac tamponade.

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163
Q

What is the most common VSD including adult population?

A

Perimembraneous VSD

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164
Q

What percent does a -3dB loss of original intensity represent?

A

50% loss of the original intensity.

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165
Q

What structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

A

Diaphragm

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166
Q

What are the three major types of ASD’s? What is the most common ASD?

A

Sinus venosus (by SVC), primum (by the AV valves), secundum (mid septal area by PFO). Secundum types are most common, approximately 90% of all ASD’s are this type.

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167
Q

What cavity contains the stomach, gallbladder, pancreas, intestines, liver, spleen, adrenal glands and kidneys?

A

Abdominal cavity

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168
Q

What law is considered the law of refraction? Will refraction occur if there is perpendicular incidence?

A

Snells law. No.

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169
Q

T/F Most ASD’s are low velocity with left to right shunting? T/F Longer standing ASD shunts commonly cause RV volume overload?

A

True. True.

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170
Q

What does plasma consist of?

A

Plasma is 90% water (liquid portion of blood), 8% proteins, nutrients, waste products such as uric acid and creatinine, electrolytes, (various ions such as sodium calcium chloride and bicarbonate), respiratory gases (O2 and C02).

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171
Q

What is the most common man made transducer made of?

A

Lead zirconate titanate (PZT)

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172
Q

T/F high velocity VSD jets are typically considered mild?

A

True, the smaller hole will create a high velocity jet.

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173
Q

The frequency of a CW transducer is determined by what factor?

A

The driving voltage frequency

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174
Q

What function do platlets and thrombocytes have?

A

Platelets and thrombocytes adhere to damaged blood vessel walls and release enzymes that activate hemostasis which stops bleeding.

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175
Q

What is in vitro? What is in vivo? What is epidemiology?

A

Vitro- studies performed in a glass tube. Vivo- performed on animals or plants. Epidemiology is the study of the prevalence of disease.

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176
Q

What is persistent left SVC? What is one common echo finding?

A

Congenital malformation where the last arm drains into the coronary sinus instead of the SVC. A dilated coronary sinus.

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177
Q

What is the most common protein and its function? Name a few other proteins and functions?

A

Albumin. It is produced by the liver and helps to keep osmotic pressure between blood and tissue. Other proteins are hormones, alpha and beta globulins (transport lipids), gamma globulins (antibodies), fibrogen and prothrombin (clotting proteins).

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178
Q

What are the main functions of blood? What is anemia? What is erythrocytes?

A

Transport nutrients, oxygen and hormones, remove metabolic waste and C02, provide immunity through antibodies, maintain body temperature, electrolyte balance and clotting. Anemia is low RBC count and erythrocytes is a high RBC count.

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179
Q

What is eisenmengers syndrome? What is a common complication associated with this disorder?

A

A long standing left to right ASD or VSD the shunt reverses and becomes right to left. Severe pulmonary HTN.

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180
Q

What is the basic value of attenuation in soft tissue?

A

.5-1dB/cm/MHz

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181
Q

What are the four blood types? Which is the universal donor?

A

A, B, AB and O. Type AB is the universal recipient. Type O- is considered the universal donor because it has no antibodies to clump with the antigens of other blood types.

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182
Q

What is a common view where the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) shunt is seen?

A

Use the PSAX at the aortic level

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183
Q

What is thermal index (TI)? What is mechanical index (MI)?

A

MI- is the potential of cavitation (the higher the MI the larger the potential) TI- estimates temperature rise from ultrasound exposure.

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184
Q

Blood and lymph can be checked by chemical tests and coagulation studies. What are the five common tests used for direct examination of blood?

A
  1. Hemoglobin test- measures the oxygen carrying ability of blood. 2. Hematocrit - measures volume of erythrocytes. 3. Sedimentation rates- how long it takes the erythrocytes to settle in the bottom of a container. 4. Blood cell counts (CBC, WBC, RBC) - to evaluate immune disorders and organ function and anemia. 5. Reticulocyte studies- measure the number of immature RBC’s.
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185
Q

If there is a propagation speed error what might occur?

A

The echo may be improperly located

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186
Q

In which of the following patients would an enteric isolation technique be used?
A. Influenza
B. Draining wounds
C. Respiratory disease
D. Diseases spread by fecal contamination.

A

D. Diseases spread by fecal contamination.

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187
Q

What is ebsteins anomaly? What are three common findings in patients with this anomaly?

A

Apical displacement of the TV leaflets. TV abnormal, RVVO, ASD.

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188
Q

Name the three layers of a vessels wall?

A

Tunica intima - inner most, media - middle, and adventia - outer layer.

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189
Q

What us associated with Huygens principle?

A

All points on a wave can be considered for secondary smaller waves.

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190
Q

What type of aortic dissection is the most common? What is the location?

A

Type one. Ascending aorta to the aortic arch.

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191
Q

T/F With truncus arteriosus the RV has no RV outflow tract and no pulmonic valve?

A

True

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192
Q

What are the arteries that act as controls valves through which blood is metered to the capillaries? What are capillaries and why are they considered Microvessels?

A

Arterioles. Capillaries are the smallest of a body’s blood vessels and are part of the microcirculation. They are only one cell thick. (Microvessels) they connect arterioles and venules, and enable the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many other nutrient and waste chemical substances between blood and surrounding tissues.

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193
Q

What are three other names that lateral resolution may be called? What factor determines lateral resolution?

A

Transverse, azimuthal, angular. Beam diameter determines lateral resolution.

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194
Q

In the PSLAX view what two aortic valve leaflets can be seen? Which leaflet is the closest to the MV in this view?

A

Right and non coronary. Non coronary.

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195
Q

What are three other names axial resolution may be called? What factors determine axial resolution?

A

Longitudinal, range, depth. Spacial pulse length and the frequency determine axial resolution.

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196
Q

What vessel contains deoxygenated blood from peripheral tissue?

A

Veins.

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197
Q

T/F Does the MV have a premature closure when acute severe AI is present? Is the MV effected with loss of sinus rhythm or when a first degree AVB present?

A

True, true- premature MV closure can occur.

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198
Q

What are the three distinct layers of the heart? What is the pericardium?

A

Epicardium- thin outer layer, myocardium - thick middle muscle, endocardium- inner layer composed of endothelial cells which line the heart valves. Pericardium is the protective sac that surrounds the heart, fibrous parietal and great vessels.

199
Q

What is the function of the matching layer on a transducer?

A

The matching layer decreases the impedance difference between the piezo crystal and soft tissue. This improves transmission and reception

200
Q

Refraction may often cause artifact known as?

A

Side lobe artifact.

201
Q

What does fine diastolic flutter of the mitral valve represent on m-mode? What type of murmur is associated with Austin flint?

A

AI is present. Austin flint murmur is a low pitched diastolic rumble present with severe AI.

202
Q

What is the function of the left atrium and the right atrium? What vessels carry 02 rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium? What three vessels carry C02 to the right atrium?

A

They both act as a temporary storage chambers so that blood will be readily available for ventricular filling. O2 rich blood enters the left atrium from the four pulmonary veins. Oxygen depleted blood (C02) enters the right atrium from the IVC, SVC and coronary sinus.

203
Q

What are the functions of the left and right ventricles?

A

The ventricles are the main pumping chambers for the systemic (oxygen rich LV) and (oxygen depleted RV) pulmonary circulation.

204
Q

What is the log of 10,000 equal to?

A

3

205
Q

Which has a longer ejection time AS or MR?

A

MR

206
Q

How can AI effect the LV size and wall motion?

A

LV dilatation, hyperkinesis of the IVS and LV wall.

207
Q

If a patient has chest pain and is given morphine, what effect would it typically have?

A

It should dull the chest pain and is known for the ability to increase vascular resistance and decrease systemic resistance.

208
Q

What determines the resonant frequency of the transducer?

A

Crystal thickness

209
Q

Name two mechanisms of bioeffects and describe them?

A

Thermal - localized heat is produced with ultrasound. Cavitation- small microbubbles are produced as a result of violent agitation.

210
Q

What is the function of a beta blocker? Name four common beta blockers?

A

Beta blockers slow the sinus rate, depress AV conduction, reduce BP (by blocking part of the sympathetic nervous system). Atenolol, propranolol, labetalol, and metoprolol are four common beta blockers.

211
Q

Which occurs first with AS, LVH or LVE?

A

LVH

212
Q

Can color shift information be determined by color flow Doppler if blood flow is 90 degrees (perpendicular) to flow?

A

No, a colorless region may be present.

213
Q

What is the Foramen Ovale and the Ductus Arteriosus function?

A

Foramen Ovale is a opening across the intratrial septum which allows blood to pass from the RA to the LA while the lungs develop during fetal development. The ductus arteriosus is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and aorta.

214
Q

What murmur typically has a mid systolic upper right sternal border? What murmur has a crescendo decrescendo right sternal S4 sound?

A

Aortic stenosis murmur. AS murmur.

215
Q

What are three classic symptoms with AS?

A

Angina pectoris, CHF, syncope.

216
Q

What is the function of calcium channel beta blockers? What are two common Ca++ channel blockers?

A

Calcium channel blockers block inward movement of calcium to slow impulse conduction (particularly through the AV node). They also relax smooth muscle contraction of the vessels. Diltiazem and verapamil are two common calcium channel blockers.

217
Q

What type of transducer has element that are energized sequentially from inside out and create a circular beam?

A

Annular array

218
Q

Autorrhythmic activity of the heart can be modified by what branch of the nervous system?

A

Autonomic nervous system.

219
Q

T/F AS often times may be overestimated if a bad angle or low cardiac output states are present?

A

False - underestimated.

220
Q

What type of information does color flow Doppler come from?

A

Multi-gate Pulsed wave Doppler.

221
Q

T/F Low transmit output and high receiver gain is safer than high transmit output low receiver gain?

A

True

222
Q

What’s does the cardiovascular system consist of? What are the three main functions?

A

The heart, blood vessels and blood. 1. Transport of nutrients, oxygen and metabolic waste removal. 2. Protection by WBC’s and antibodies. 3. Regulation of body temperature, fluid PH and H2O content in cells.

223
Q

What is Marfans syndrome? What are some physical abnormalities present with this disorder? What are some common echo findings?

A

A connective tissue disease. Patients may have long bones and eye problems, MVP, ascending aorta dilatation, and aortic aneurysm.

224
Q

T/F Rheumatic heart disease has been known to effect these three valves with MS, AS and TS?

A

True

225
Q

What is the propagation of sound inversely proportional to?

A

The mediums density

226
Q

Where is the highest O2 saturation in the fetal circulation found?

A

Umbilical vein.

227
Q

T/F As density of the medium increases, the speed increases?

A

False.

228
Q

Pauses can be seen on an EKG following a PVC or PAC. What are these pauses called? What is an interpolated PVC?

A

PVC- compensitory pause, PAC - Non-compensitory pause. PVC’s that don’t have a compensitory pauses are called interpolated PVC’s.

229
Q

What are four common findings with TR? Is the LA effected typically with TR?

A

RAE, RVE (volume overload), flattened septum, vena cava enlargement. No, the LA is not effected.

230
Q

What are the basic four heart sounds?

A

S1 - Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves (systolic contraction), S2 - Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves (dicrotic notch), S3 - Rapid filling of blood into the left ventricle, S4 - Atria contracting, pushing blood into the LV and RV (final rush of blood).

231
Q

What are three common findings with stenotic valves?

A

Thickened leaflets, valvular dimming, reduced cusp separation

232
Q

What will happen to the speed of sound through tissue if the stiffness of the medium increases?

A

The speed will increase.

233
Q

Name one thing you can do to increase the frame rate?

A

Decrease the size of the image sector.

234
Q

What is a common chronotropic drug and a common inotropic drug?

A

Chronotropic=atropine, Inotropic=dobutamine

235
Q

What type of flow is AI and PI? Are these typically seen above or below the baseline with Doppler interrogation?

A

Diastolic flow. Seen typically above the baseline.

236
Q

If the blood travels away from the transducer the Doppler shift will be?

A

Negative Doppler shift.

237
Q

What is a false positive test? What is a false negative test?

A

FP= a positive test, but the patient does not have the disease state. FN= the test shows a negative result, but they really have a diseases state that has been missed.

238
Q

What type of flow is MR and TR?

A

Systolic flow.

239
Q

What are the inherent fire rates of the SA, AV and perkinje fibers?

A

SA=60-100, AV=40-60, perkinje=20-40 beats per minute.

240
Q

What are two common early stage findings with MR? What are three late stage findings?

A

LAE, LVE. Late- RVE, RVH, HTN.

241
Q

What artifact is typical of multi-element transducers?

A

Grating lobe artifact.

242
Q

What are six common findings with mitral stenosis? Is the LV commonly effected by mitral stenosis?

A

LAE, HTN, RAE, RVE, LA thrombus, A-Fib. No, the LV is not usually effected unless MR is present.

243
Q

What effect does the valsalva maneuver have on the cardiovascular system?

A

Decreases venous return.

244
Q

What function on the ultrasound machine would eliminate smaller amplitude voltages produced by weaker echos to reduce unwanted noise?

A

Reject function.

245
Q

List four findings with AS? Why is there sometimes post stenotic dilatation of the aortic valve with AS? Is the RV usually effected with AS?

A

LVH then LVE, LAE, decreased LV contractility. Post dilatation may occur because of the high pressure/velocity jet hitting the aortic walls. No effect on RV.

246
Q

What effect is there on the cardiovascular system with isometric exercise? (Sustained handgrip type of exercise).

A

Increased peripheral resistance, CO, BP, HR are some of the effects.

247
Q

What transducer will avoid aliasing better? 2.5 MHz or 3.5 MHz?

A

2.5 MHz.

248
Q

How many weeks does it take for the heart to be completely formed?

A

Seven

249
Q

T/F AI may effect the great vessels and sometimes cause aortic dilatation? What are three common findings with AI?

A

False. LVE, LAE, hyper dynamic LV.

250
Q

What percentage of time is a pulsed ultrasound system receiving sound?

A

99.9%

251
Q

In the fetal heart what does the Bulbus Cordes form?

A

LV and RV.

252
Q

Looking at the monitor, approximately how many shades of gray can the organic human eyeball see?

A

One hundred.

253
Q

What equation should be used to determine AVA? Does AI effect this equation for an accurate peak velocity? What value is considered severe aortic stenosis?

A

Continuity of flow equation A2=A1xV1/V2. AI I does not effect the V1/V2 equation. <.7 cm2 is severe.

254
Q

A 97 year old female is scheduled for a TEE. As a perioperative measure, his doctor has given him 25mg of demoral. Upon entry to the lab, his breathing is shallow and he is unresponsive. After notifying the cardiologist, which of the following medications WOULD be MOST useful for counteracting the effects of the narcotic given? A. Versed. B. Narcan. C. Oxygen. D. Valium. E. Verapamil

A

B. Narcan

255
Q

A change in direction of a sound beam at a interface with two different impedances is called?

A

Refraction

256
Q

What heart valve is located most superior? On m-mode what abnormality is a common finding with a deep “a” dip of the posterior leaflet >7mm?

A

Pulmonic. Pulmonic stenosis.

257
Q

What is pectus carinatum?

A

A protrusion of the chest over the sternum which gives the chest a bowed-out appearance.

258
Q

What are three common findings with PS? T/F The LV and LA are typically effected with pulmonic stenosis? T/F The most common cause of PS is congenital (non-RHD)?

A

RVH then RVE over time, also possible RAE. False. True.

259
Q

What determines the brightness of an echo signal?

A

Amplitude.

260
Q

In relation to the EKG what normally occurs with the S2 murmur?

A

End of T wave.

261
Q

What is the unit of frequency?

A

Hz

262
Q

Where is a common area a PDA can be viewed from in 2D?

A

PSAX aortic valve level.

263
Q

Can respiratory inspiration cause a delay in the interval between aortic and pulmonic valve closure?

A

Yes

264
Q

How does PI effect the RV? T/F The very most common cause of PI is valvular ring dilitation?

A

RVE with paradoxyl septal motion, possible fine diastolic flutter of the TV leaflets. True.

265
Q

The time it takes for one cycle to occur is called?

A

Period.

266
Q

(In statistics) What is the greatest common variability of data? What is the statistical mean of 1, 2, 3?

A

The greatest common variability of data is the “standard deviation”. Mean is the average, so the answer is 2.

267
Q

T/F Wavelength increases as frequency increases?

A

False.

268
Q

What are three causes of TR? T/F Carcinoid Is a TV disease were the valves are thickened and fixed in a closed position?

A

RHD, carcinoid syndrome, ebsteins anomally. False - fixed in an open position.

269
Q

Name two common radioisotopes used in nuclear myocardial scan?

A

Thallium 201, Technetium (99m Tc) referred to as Sestamibi.

270
Q

What are three common findings with ASD’s?

A

PA enlargement, RAE, RVE.

271
Q

What does a sound wave carry?

A

Energy.

272
Q

How many cycles are there in one second in a 7 MHz transducer?

A

Seven million

273
Q

What are two common findings with VSD’s? What is a classic m-mode finding with ASD’s? Which direction is the blood flow across the VSD usually?

A

LAE, LVE, RVVO. Left to right (higher pressure to lower)

274
Q

What is one of the most common protocols used during the treadmill exam?

A

Bruce protocol

275
Q

Is attenuation higher in soft tissue or bone?

A

Soft tissue.

276
Q

T/F Aortic coarctation is strongly associated with bicuspid aortic valve?

A

True.

277
Q

The SA and AVB node receive oxygenated blood from which coronary artery?

A

Right (RCA)

278
Q

T/F A decreased EPS separation of the MV (m-mode) is usually associated with an increased ejection fraction?

A

False.

279
Q

What is the crux of the heart?

A

Where all four heart chambers come together.

280
Q

What term is used to describe when pressure changes a crystals shape from electric voltage hitting it?

A

Piezoelectric effect.

281
Q

What is automaticity?

A

The ability of the heart to start and maintain rhythmic activity without the use of the nervous system.

282
Q

What is the bandwidth?

A

A range of frequencies that occur with a pulse of sound

283
Q

If standing, venous return and ventricular filling will?

A

Decrease.

284
Q

If there is high O2 sats in the IVC, what abnormality may be present?

A

ASD

285
Q

What type of modality is 2D imaging?

A

B mode

286
Q
Splitting of S2 is best heard at the? 
A. Apex 
B. Third left intercostal space 
C. Fourth left intercostal space. 
D. Second right intercostal space.
A

B. Third left intercostal space

287
Q

Is color flow angle dependent?

A

Yes

288
Q

T/F On pulsed wave Doppler an an E/A ratio of 2:1 is a normal diastolic value?

A

False 1.0-1.5 to 1 ratio is normal.

289
Q

What type of EKG signal is produced when the heart depolarizes toward a positive electrode?

A

R wave

290
Q

Name the two basic ways to focus the ultrasound beam?

A

Mechanical and electronic

291
Q
What are the five wall motion assignments? What do the segments define in regard to function of wall motion? T/F number 1 is normal so 2 would be akinetic? Hung kinda mmniichbtk
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YIMUHDO,PO,
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KiiijuuiujkoliOYUvK l
A

The five wall motion segments define the wall motion of the heart as follows: 1. Normal=no obvious abnormality 2. Hypokinetic = lower than normal movement 3. Akinetic = no movement 4. Diskinesis = opposite motion 5. Aneurysmal = a tear or ripping of wall. False-segment 2 represents hypokinesis.

292
Q

What effect does inspiration have on preload? What effect does the valsalva maneuver have on venous return and BP?

A

Inspiration results in increased preload and increased RV stroke volume. The valsalva maneuver (bearing down) causes decreased BP and and decreased venous return.

293
Q

T/F Doming of a valve is usually caused by valvular regurgitation rather than valvular stenosis?

A

False - valvular doming is associated with stenosis rather than regurgitation. Valve thickening, decreased leaflet excursion and Doming (tethering) may all occur in valvular stenosis.

294
Q

What is the formula Z=ps used to describe?

A

Acoustic impedance

295
Q

Which cardiac valve is the first to open and the last one to close in ventricular systole?

A

Pulmonic valve

296
Q

High frequency transducers will have what type of wavelength and penetration?

A

Short wavelength and poor depth of penetration.

297
Q

How does poiseuilles law demonstrate the changes in pressure related to the radius of a blood vessel? Which factor had the largest effect on resistance to laminar flow through vessel?

A

Inversely proportional to the 4th power. The vessels radius.

298
Q

With a PDA what side of the heart is usually effected? What are four common findings with a PDA?

A

Left. LAE, LVH, LVVO, dilated pulmonary artery.

299
Q

Vagal stimulation of the heart will?

A

Decrease the SA node rate

300
Q

What happens when a annular array transducer malfunctions?

A

There will be a horizontal blank space on the CRT.

301
Q

Which would endocarditis most likely cause, PI or PS?

A

PIKA

302
Q

Name three things that ultrasound systems require periodic testing?

A

Depth calibration, axial resolution, lateral resolution.

303
Q

What does stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system have on the heart?

A

It decreases the AV conduction time, which will increase heart rate and contractility.

304
Q

What type of aneurysm is kawasakis disease?

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

305
Q

What is primary hypertension? What is the cause of PHTN? What are four major risk factors that can develop with high BP?

A

An increase in peripheral vascular resistance (usually - BP >140/90) The etiology of most HTN is unknown. Risk factors include heart attack, stroke, heart and kidney failure.

306
Q

What is the number one cause of Ischemia? What is Ischemia? What is CHF?

A

Atherosclerosis. Lack of oxygen to the myocardium. The hearts inability to meet metabolic demands of the body.

307
Q

What ratio does maximum amplitude to minimum amplitude describe?

A

Dynamic range.

308
Q

What is blood pressure? What is pulse pressure?

A

Force of the blood against the walls of the arteries. The systolic is when the heart contracts and is the highest number, the lowest number is in diastole when the heart relaxes. Normal pressure is 120/80. Pulse pressure is the difference between the top number and the bottom number.

309
Q

What is Dressler’s syndrome?

A

A post MI pericardial effusion

310
Q

What is temporal resolution? What type of frame rate will help improve temporal resolution?

A

Being able to determine the position of a moving structure at any given time on the ultrasound system. Higher frame rates improve temporal resolution.

311
Q

Name a common test object used in quality assurance and its purpose?

A

AIUM 100mm test object -used to evaluate resolution and range performance. (Non-attenuation)

312
Q

What are the two most common congenital abnormalities found in adults?

A

Atrial septal defect (ASD) and bicuspid aortic valve are the two most common congenital abnormalities found in adults. However, the most common congenital cardiac anomaly is ventricular septal defect which is involved in 20%-30% of all congenital defects.

313
Q

Which percent stenosis is considered to be significant coronary artery disease?

A

70%

314
Q

T/F Blood flow toward the transducer is above the baseline?

A

True

315
Q
  1. Which of the following coronary arteries provide blood to the anterior wall of the left ventricle? 2. Which to the right ventricle? Which to the inferior septal walls in a right dominant system?
A
  1. LAD (left anterior descending) 2. Right coronary 3. Posterior descending.
316
Q

What is the number one cause of mitral stenosis? What is considered a significant stenosis? What three measurements should you get in a MS study?

A

Rheumatic heart disease. <1cm2. MVA, P1/2T, PAP.

317
Q

What is contrast commonly used for in an echo study? Where is peripheral contrast appear first?

A

To determine LV function, also helpful in ASD, TR and VSD studies. Appears in the RA first.

318
Q

What is the Absolute or Effective refractory period of the heart?

A

When the heart is unable to respond to electrical impulses.

319
Q

With a stenosis, What location is there a typically the most turbulent blood flow?

A

Distal to the stenosis

320
Q
During the holding phase of the valsalva maneuver, which of the following occurs? 
A. Increased cardiac output 
B. Decreased intrathoracic pressure 
C. Increased venous return to the heart 
D. Decreased venous return to the heart.
A

D. Decreased venous flow to the heart

321
Q

T/F Plural effusion is commonly difficult to see in the presence of RVH?

A

True

322
Q

What EKG findings may be present with a patient with the electrolyte disorder hypokalemia?

A

Peaked P waves (lead 2) and long QT interval, large U waves, also flat T waves.

323
Q

Will color flow Doppler provide peak velocity blood flow information?

A

No, average velocity.

324
Q

(On a treadmill) What is the hearts largest response to myocardial work and increased oxygen demand?

A

The heart adapts to work by vasodilation of the myocardial arteroles.

325
Q

In the 2 chamber apical view what 2 LV walls are seen? In the four chamber apical view what LV walls are seen?

A

2CH-Inferior septal and anterior walls. 4CH-Anterior lateral and septal.

326
Q

What type of Doppler uses autocorrelation?

A

Color flow Doppler

327
Q

If a person is walking, what is the main mechanism responsible to returning the venous blood to the heart?

A

Skeletal Muscle

328
Q

What is the curie point? In performing TEE echoes you must keep all transducers sterilized, should you use autoclaving for this?

A

A temperature 300-400 degrees C that will cause the piezoelectric crystals to permanently lose effectiveness. No.

329
Q

What type of MI involves the right ventricle?

A

Inferior MI

330
Q

Coronary artery perfusion occurs from?

A

Epicardium to endocardium

331
Q

What does a darker color shade represent during aliasing? What does the color black represent?

A

Lower frequency shifts will exhibit darker shades of color. Black represents no Doppler shift (zero baseline)

332
Q

What vessel in the body contains the largest volume of blood?

A

Veins and venules

333
Q

Name three functions that effect the frame rate of color gain ?

A

Sector size, color size box, PRF

334
Q

What is hibernating myocardium? What is stunned myocardium?

A

A living myocardial muscle that is nonfunctioning because of chronic ischemia-perfusion may restore function. Ischemic muscle that is reperfused but still not functioning.

335
Q

Which method is the most common right heart cath method used for predicting cardiac output? Which the most accurate method? What is cardiac output?

A

Thermodilution. Fick. Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute (SVxHR), normal range is 4-8LPM

336
Q

Cyanosis is often seen in what types of congenital abnormality?

A

Eisenmenges syndrome, and a number of congenital heart defects including atrial septal defects, ventricular septal defects, patent ductus arteriosus, and more complex types of cyanotic heart disease.

337
Q

How are each of the following units used in ultrasound? Area, circumference, time, volume.

A

Area-distance squared
Circumference- length or distance (inches or millimeters)
Time- seconds milliseconds (ms) or microseconds,
Volume - cubic units (cc)

338
Q

What is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart per beat called? What is normal range? Is the stroke volume of the LV equal to that of the RV?

A

Stoke volume (EDV-ESV). The normal range is 70cc-100cc. Yes.

339
Q

In a vessel, what is the number that determines when turbulent flow will occur?

A

Reynolds number (number greater than 2000)

340
Q

List three findings with post operative cardiac patients?

A

Paradoxyl septal motion, pericardial effusion, atrial enlargement in some cases.

341
Q

What equation helps to keep the proper depth of a reflection?

A

Range equation

342
Q

How many pulses does it take to equal one scan line on the image frame?

A

One

343
Q

Peak instantaneous pressure gradient for a patient with aortic stenosis of 4.0 m/s is?

A

64mmHg

344
Q

What are the normal left and right heart oxygen saturation levels?

A

Right heart sats are 70% and the left heart sats are 98%.

345
Q

(In comparing the systemic circulation to the pulmonary circulation) Which has the higher pressure, higher resistance, higher oxygen content, thicker ventricular and vessel walls and lower C02 level?

A

Systemic circulation

346
Q

What are the two major components of demodulation?

A

Rectification, smoothing

347
Q

What is the B notch seen on the M mode? What does this indicate?

A

It is the small notch between the AC point on the mitral valve m-mode, caused from prolongation of the AC interval. Indicates elevated LV diastolic pressure.

348
Q

How do the stenotic aortic and pulmonic valves effect the ventricle chamber first?

A

Ventricular pressure overload.

349
Q

Name the components of the pulmonary circulation?

A

RV, main pulmonary artery and branches, pulmonary capillaries, pulmonary veins.

350
Q

What is CRT? What format does CRT write on?

A

TV screen or computer screen (cathode ray tube), writes in a faster scan format up to 60HZ or 60 frames per minute.

351
Q

Frequency and wavelength are inversely related, what does this mean?

A

As frequency increases wavelength decreases. As frequency decreases wavelength increases.

352
Q

How does a regurgitant mitral and tricuspid valve first effect the atrial chambers?

A

MR first creates volume overload of the left heart and TR creates overload of the right heart.

353
Q

Name three components of the systemic circulation?

A

LV, aorta, systemic capillary network, cerebral, peripheral and abdominal veins, SVC and IVC.

354
Q

How does MS and TS effect the atria first?

A

MS creates pressure overload of the left atrium and TS creates pressure overload of the RA.

355
Q

The length of myocardial fibril stretch prior to its next contraction is called? What 3 factors influence this?

A

Preload, LV preload occurs only during ventricular diastole and the 3 measurements that evaluate LV preload are resting fiber length, end diastolic volume and end diastolic pressure.

356
Q

What’s does the term BART stand for in ultrasound?

A

This is the standard direction of blood flow in orientation to the transducer. (Blue-away red-towards)

357
Q

How does AI and PI effect the ventricle first?

A

Ventricular overload.

358
Q

The resistance (pressure build up) the ventricles face as they eject blood is called? Blood pressure is mainly determined by? Increasing the _____ will cause a decrease in cardiac output.

A

Afterload, afterload, afterload causes a decrease in CO due to the increase in resistance.

359
Q

With acoustic exposure, what type of ultrasound has the highest intensity levels?

A

Pulsed wave and color flow Doppler have the highest intensities. m-mode and 2D imaging have the lowest intensities.

360
Q

80 mm is the same as how many centimeters?

A

8cm

361
Q

Depolarization of the ventricle occurs with the onset of which EKG complex?

A

QRS

362
Q

Loud S1, opening snap and late diastolic murmur often represent?

A

Rheumatic mitral stenosis.

363
Q

2 meters per second (m/s) can be written as how many cm per second?

A

200cm/s

364
Q

What effect does isometric handgrip excercise have on the mitral valve?

A

Increases the murmur and regurgitation

365
Q

When do the mitral and tricuspid valves close and open in relation to the EKG? Why do they open and close?

A

MV and TV close with the onset of the QRS. The LV and RV pressure has exceeded the LA and RA pressure. The MV and TV open at the end of the T wave when LV and RV pressure falls below LA and RA pressure.

366
Q

Describe the mitral valve prolapse murmur? Is the 2-D 4 chamber view a good view to determine the presence of MVP?

A

A MVP murmur is a mid-systolic and late systolic murmur at cardiac apex. NO, MVP may be falsely diagnosed in the 4 chamber.

367
Q

What are the 4 phases of the action potential curve?

A

Phase 0-1: Cardiac cell repaid depolarization (sodium rapidly enters cell and potassium leaves)
Phase 1: Ealry rapid re polarization (K+ reeneters cel Na+ leaves)
Phase 2: Plateau phase (consides w/ the ST segment and is cardiac contraction)
Phase 3: Final rapid repolarization (Na+ and caa++ out, while k+ returns to cell)
Phase 4: resting.

368
Q

PSAX at the apex of the heart can be seen contracting in what direction?

A

Counter clockwise

369
Q

What will improve temporal resolution?

A

Increase the number of images per second (increase PRF - by decreasing the depth)

370
Q

When do the aortic and pulmonic valves open and close? Why?

A

In early ventricular systole the aortic and pulmonic valves open as the Left and Right ventricle pressures exceed the aortic and pulmonic pressure. They close when the pressure in the ventricles fall below the aortic and pulmonic pressure.

371
Q

(T/F) Does the TV open before the MV? Does the MV close before the TV?

A

True. True.

372
Q

Anterior clear space is seen between the epicardium and myocardium, what is the most likely?

A

Fat tissue (adipose tissue)

373
Q

What is the muscle bundle that attaches from the RV free wall to the IVS?

A

Moderator band.

374
Q

Which semilunar valve opens first? Which semilunar valve closes first?

A

Pulmonic, aortic.

375
Q

What is the subpulmonic area of the RV?

A

Infundibulum.

376
Q

What vessel has the lowest O2 saturation?

A

Coronary sinus.

377
Q

How does tricuspid regurgitation affect the right atrium? How does it effect the the right ventricle?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation may cause right atrial enlargement due to volume overload. The right ventricle may become dilated and present hyperdynamic wall motion.

378
Q

What is the sequence of cardiac conduction?

A

SA node - Internodal tracts - AV node (RA muscle then To the LA muscle) - His bundle - R and L bundle branches (left has 2 sections the anterior and posterior) - perkinje fibers.

379
Q

How do the layers of the heart muscle depolarize when ventricular depolarization occurs? Coronary artery perfusion occurs from?

A

Endocardium to epicardium. Epicardium to endocardium.

380
Q

Where is the tricuspid valve located? Name the three tricuspid valve leaflet (cusps) in relation to the right ventricle?

A

The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle. The cusps are Anterior, posterior, and medial septal.

381
Q
Sound travels though tissue at approximately: 
A. 154.0 m/s
B. 1,540.0 m/s
C. 15,400 m/s
D. 154,000 m/s
A

B. 1,540 m/s

382
Q

What is the medical term for headaches?

A

Cephalagia

383
Q

What pulmonic valve normally seen on m mode? What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?

A

The posterior pulmonic valve is usually seen on m mode. Congenital abnormality is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis.

384
Q

An incision into the gallbladder is named?

A

Cholecystotomy

385
Q

What 2D view is best for visualizing tricuspid regurgitation? What are two main echo findings with chronic tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Apical four chamber is the best for visualizing tricuspid regurgitation. Findings with chronic tricuspid regurgitation are right ventricular volume overload and right ventricular dilitation.

386
Q

Breakdown of fat is called?

A

Lipolysis

387
Q

T/F Aortic valve peak velocities can often be detected from the apical four chamber view?

A

False. (Five chamber view)

388
Q

A common word for sternum is?

A

Breast bone.

389
Q

T/F Mapping is one of the most common used methods of quantitating the severity of a regurgitant jet?

A

True

390
Q

What is “under the skin” referred to?

A

Hypodermic or subcutaneous.

391
Q

What is 4v squared?

A

The modified Bernoulli equation.

392
Q

T/F Congenital bicuspid mitral valve typically has a larger anterior leaflet and a smaller posterior leaflet?

A

True

393
Q

What does the word stetho mean?

A

Chest

394
Q

Before a medical procedure a patient should sign an informed consent. What are two general principles concerning informed consents?

A
  1. Consent forms must be signed by the patient prior to preoperative medication administration (such as Demerol). 2. A patient that sign an informed consent - protects the medical staff from claims of unauthorized procedures.
395
Q

Describe parachute MV? The mitral valve consists of two valve leaflets (anterior and posterior), what other structures are part of the MV apparatus?

A

Parachute MV is the abnormal condition in which the LV papillary muscles are closer than normal or fused to create a single papillary muscle. The other structures of the normal MV include the LV walls, mitral annulus and papillary muscles.

396
Q

What is a common ventricular finding with infundibular pulmonic stenosis?

A

Hypertrophied portion of the RV outflow tract.

397
Q

What is the function of the spleen? What is the function of the hepatic veins?

A

The spleen filters plasma and dead RBC’s and store blood. The hepatic veins drain directly into the IVC to drain deoxygenated blood from liver.

398
Q

A 89 year old male with jugular venous distention and a pericardial knock; What might be the diagnosis?

A

Constrictive pericarditis

399
Q

Breaches of patients confidence may result in what law suit?

A

Libel and slander

400
Q

22 year old female seen in the ER with a severe ripping feeling; What might be two possible diagnosis?

A

MI or aortic dissection.

401
Q

Performing treatment without the patients informed consent, the physician runs a risk of suit for?

A

Assault and battery

402
Q

In the PSAX - what wall can be seen at the top of the screen? Which is at the bottom?

A

The top is the anterior wall. The bottom is the inferior wall.

403
Q

What statute generally protects a physician from civil liability in cases of rendering emergency care if done with a good faith and due caution?

A

Good Samaritan statues

404
Q

What chamber is the lateral wall seen in?

A

Four chamber

405
Q

What is the factor you multiply red blood cells by if you are doing a RBC count? What is considered a normal white blood count? What would a WBC of count of 22,000 indicate?

A

Multiply buy 10,000 for a RBC count. 5,000-10,000 is a normal WBC count. WBC of 22,000 indicates a systemic infection.

406
Q
Which of the following is most influenced by distance from the face of the transducer? 
A. Frequency 
B. Wavelength
C. Axial resolution 
D. Lateral resolution 
E. Medium 
F. Nyquist limit.
A

D. Lateral resolution

407
Q

In RBC blood transfusions, what blood type is the universal donor? What is the universal acceptor? What blood types are compatible for the universal receptor?

A

O- is the universal donor and they can only receive type O-. AB+ is the universal acceptor and they can receive A+,A-,B+,B-,O+,O-,
AB+,AB-

408
Q

What coronary artery delivers blood to the anterior and anterior septal wall of the heart?

A

Left.

409
Q

What coronary artery usually supplies the anterior lateral and inferior lateral wall?

A

Circumflex (left)

410
Q

What percentage is the normal right side heart pressure compared to that of the left side heart pressure?

A

Right heart is approximately 20% of the left heart.

411
Q

What artery supplies the RV apex and the RV free wall?

A

Right

412
Q

What is the most common diagnostic modality used in a chest X-ray? Name two possible cardiac related findings in X-rays? Is X-ray able to detect coronary artery disease?

A

PA and lateral. Cardiomegaly and increased pulmonary vascularity are two findings seen on X-ray that may indicate cardiac abnormalities are present. No, there are no specific findings for CAD on X-ray.

413
Q

What is the first downward deflection on the EKG that follows the P wave? What does the QRS complex consist of? What does the QRS represent? What is the normal time duration for the QRS complex?

A

Q wave, the QRS consists of the Q wave, the R wave, and the S wave. It is produced by the ventricular depolarization and is associated with ventricular contraction. .06 to .12 seconds is the normal duration.

414
Q

What percent of patients have a right dominant coronary artery supply? What does this mean? What 2-D view is best for visualizing the coronary arteries?

A

80-90%. This means the right coronary artery supplies the crux and the posterior descending artery. (PDCA-determines dominance). Parasternal short axis at the AoV level.

415
Q

In mitral stenosis what is considered a severe p1/2 time and what is a severe MVA?

A

> 220 p1/2time and MVA <1.0cm2

416
Q

What are the largest white blood cells called ?

A

Monocytes.

417
Q

What are the neurons that carry impulses toward the brain or spinal cord?

A

Afferent neurons

418
Q

What is the normal thickness of the IVSd?

A

7-11 mm

419
Q

What is the basic description of right heart catherization? Are all of the following pressures measured in a right heart cath? RA, RV systolic, RV end diastolic, systolic pulm artery, end- diastolic pulm artery, mean and pulm artery wedge pressure.

A

A catheter is inserted in a femoral antecubital vein and advanced to the SVC, IVC, RA, RV and main PA to obtain pressures and oxygen saturation levels. Yes

420
Q

What is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood?

A

The pulmonary artery.

421
Q

What is present in the blood that causes red blood cells to appear red?

A

Oxyhemoglobin

422
Q

What normally causes the patent Foramen Ovale (PFO) to close after birth? What is is called when the PFO remains open after birth? What view is best for evaluating a patient with this anomaly?

A

Higher LA pressure. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). The parasternal short axis view at the basal level is the best view for detecting the PDA. Usually blood flows in a left to right direction from the aorta to the pulmonary artery during diastole.

423
Q

What are three basic divisions of the heart?

A

Basal, Mid, apical

424
Q

What nerves regulate the heartbeat? What happens when the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. There will be a decrease in HR if the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated.

425
Q

Lying on the stomach is referred to as?

A

Prone position.

426
Q
If the relative output of an ultrasound instrument is calibrated in decibels and the sonographer increases the output by 50 dB, how many times will the beam intensity increase? 
A. 2
B. 100
C. 100,000
D. 1,000,000
A

C. 100,000

427
Q

What is CAD directly associated with?

A

Restricted blood flow to the heart muscle

428
Q

What does the isles of langerhans produce?

A

Insulin

429
Q

T/F Pericardial effusions are commonly present with chronic renal failure?

A

True

430
Q

What is a condition in which the heart is unable to pump adequate amounts of blood to tissues and organs?

A

Cardiac failure.

431
Q

What do the following abbreviations mean? Qid, STAT.

A

Qid- medication given four times a day. STAT - immediately.

432
Q

What do the following medications do? Analgesics, antibiotics.

A

Analgesics - relieve pain, antibiotics fight infection.

433
Q

Disinfectants destroy?

A

Bacteria.

434
Q

What is another name for the RV outflow tract?

A

Infundibulum

435
Q

Describe ebsteins anomaly an what echo view is best to asses this?

A

A congenital defect where one or more of the tricuspid valves are displaced. The apical four chamber view or the subcostal view is best for viewing this tricuspid abnormality.

436
Q

The polarized state of the heart is considered the?

A

Resting state.

437
Q

Upon viewing the echo screen and observing the EKG - When does the aortic valve open in relation to the EKG?

A

Aortic valve opens at the end of the QRS complex.

438
Q

Where does V1 go when placing an electrode on the patients chest?

A

4th intercostal space down from the right clavicle.

439
Q

T/F The most amount of ventricular filling occurs in a phase of diastole called “active filling”?

A

False, the passive (rapid) stage of diastolic filling accounts to approx 70% of filling? “Active filling” is when atrial contraction (a-kick) occurs, there is approx 30% of the remaining ventricular filling.

440
Q

What precordial ECG lead is placed 5th intercostal down mid -axillary?

A

V 6

441
Q

What would you consider a heart rhythm that is regular and a heart rate of 98.6 BPM?

A

Sinus rhythm

442
Q

Which patients are at higher risk of infective endocarditis?

  1. Arrhythmia
  2. CAD
  3. Aneurysmal pericardium
  4. Valvular disease
A
  1. Valvular heart disease and prosthetic heart valves increase the risk for infective endocarditis.
443
Q

What is pectus excavatum?

A

A condition in which the “breast bone” (sternum) appears sunken in the chest, concave.

444
Q

What is the most common type of right ventricular outflow obstruction? Name three types of RV obstruction?

A

At the valvular level is the most common type of RVO obstruction. Two other less common types may be subvalvular and supra valvular.

445
Q
A ventricular wall motion abnormality that is reversible with nitroglycerin is associated with: 
A. Pericarditis
B. Myocardial fibrosis
C. Myocardial ischemia 
D. Myocardial infarction 
E. Stunned myocardium
A

Myocardial ischemia

446
Q

An extension cord running under the patients bed is likely to produce?

A

AC interference.

447
Q

What is the most reliable m mode finding for pulmonary hypertension?

A

Notching or flying W appearance due to mid systolic closure of the pulmonary valve

448
Q

What is the name of the most common restrictive cardiomyopathy in which a thickened bright shiny myocardium is present.

A

Amyloidosis

449
Q

Where is the U wave on the EKG?

A

A small U wave may sometimes be seen between the T wave and the P wave.

450
Q

What does the T wave represent?

A

Repolarization of the ventricles.

451
Q

What is the name of the hypertrophy describing an interatrial septum that has a primary appearance of a “dumbbell shaped” (thick septum but thin at the level of the fossa ovalis)?

A

Lipomatous hypertrophy

452
Q

What is the normal EKG paper speed?

A

25mm per second

453
Q

What structure has the lowest oxygen saturation level of nay structure in the body? What is the normal oxygen (02) saturation for the right heart? What is the normal O2 saturation level of the normal left heart? Do the pulmonary veins have a high oxygen saturation level?

A

The coronary sinus has the lowest O2 saturation in the body. Right heart

454
Q

What is the name of the hypertrophy describing an interatrial septum that has a primary appearance of a “dumbbell shaped” (thick septum but thin at the level of the fossa ovalis)?

A

Lipomatous hypertrophy

455
Q

What is the normal EKG paper speed?

A

25mm per second

456
Q

What structure has the lowest oxygen saturation level of nay structure in the body? What is the normal oxygen (02) saturation for the right heart? What is the normal O2 saturation level of the normal left heart? Do the pulmonary veins have a high oxygen saturation level?

A

The coronary sinus has the lowest O2 saturation in the body. Right heart chamber saturation is normally around 75%. Left heart saturation is normally around 98%. Yes, the pulmonary veins have the highest 02 sat level.

457
Q

What sensors are used for a 2 lead ECG?

A

R-arm (negative) and L-leg (positive) electrode placement.

458
Q

When do the aortic and pulmonic valves open and close? Why?

A

In early ventricular systole the aortic and pulmonic valves open as the left and right ventricle pressures exceed the aortic and pulmonic pressure. They close when the pressure in the ventricles fall below the aortic and pulmonic pressure.

459
Q

How many grades of murmurs are there? What is the least intense murmur? What is the strongest murmur?

A

Six grades, the weakest would be 1/6, the strongest would be 6/6. A moderately loud murmur would be 3/6.

460
Q

What are four reasons a patient may have a wandering baseline EKG?

A

Bad prep, bad sensor, oily skin, movement.

461
Q

What is Ejection Fraction? What is the normal value? Name three things Ejection Fraction (EF) can determine?

A

The percentage of blood pumped out of the LV during systole. Normal percentage is 60-75%. Overall heart function, Cardiac output, wall motion.

462
Q

What percent is the normal arterial 02 saturation level? (Sa02)

A

93-98%

463
Q

How many pulmonary veins are there? How do the pulmonary veins connect to the systemic circulation? What echo view is the best for viewing the pulmonary veins?

A

There are 4 pulmonary veins. The oxygenated blood leaves the lungs through the pulmonary veins p, which returns it to the left heart, completing the pulmonary cycle. This blood then enters the left atrium, which pumps it through the bicuspid valve (mitral valve), into the left ventricle. The blood is then ejected through the aortic valve and distributed to the body through the systemic circulation. Four chamber view.

464
Q

What is ejection fraction? What is the normal value?

A

The percentage of blood pumped out of the LV during systole. Normal percentage is 60-75%.

465
Q

Is dobutamine a pharmacological agent that is considered a positive inotrope and chronotrope?

A

Yes

466
Q

What three vessels arise from the arch of the aorta? Which is the first artery that arises from the aortic arch?

A

The three arteries are the brachiocephalic artery (Innominate artery), left common carotid artery and left subclavian artery. The brachiocephalic artery is the first large branch of the aortic valve.

467
Q

How many pulmonary arteries are there? Does the pulmonary artery bifurcate? Describe the flow of blood through the pulmonary artery. What is the normal mean flow velocity across the pulmonic valve?

A

There is one main pulmonary artery. Yes, it does bifurcate - from the right ventricle, blood is pumped through the pulmonic (semilunar valve) into the main pulmonary artery. This blood enters the two pulmonary arteries (and bifurcates one for each lung) and travels through the lungs. 0.7 m/s is the average pulmonic flow velocity.

468
Q

Is adenosine considered a coronary vasodilator?

A

Yes

469
Q

What is inotrope? What is chronotrope?

A

Inotrope - increases the contractility of heart. Chronotrope - increase the pacemaker firing rate of heart.

470
Q

When evaluating the heart from different echo views, it is important to look for abnormalities. List several common questions you should keep in mind when you image?

A

Is there evidence of an effusion? Mitral, aortic, tricuspid or pulmonic valve disease? LV, RV or septal wall thickness? Any chamber size enlargement or masses? Segmental wall motion abnormalities or decreased LV function? Color flow and Doppler velocities normal?

471
Q
Difficulty in determining echocardiographic signs of tamponade may occur in the presence of: 
A. Right pleural effusion 
B. Systemic hypertension. 
C. Left ventricular dysfunction 
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy 
E. Infundibular stenosis 
F. Coronary sinus dilatation
A

D. Right ventricular hypertrophy

472
Q

What will nitrates (nitro) do to smooth muscle? Will this effect after load? Why should you keep nitro in a dark bottle out of direct light?

A

Vasodilates smooth muscle. Yes, this will decrease after load. Light will degrade the effect of the nitro.

473
Q

In statistics, what is the most commonly occurring value out of many numbers?

A

Mode: example: Out of the numbers 1,2,7,5,5,3,5,9 the mode would be 5 because It occurs the most.

474
Q

Is it possible for a medication or lab specimen to slowly lose its potency, or simply deteriorate as a result of aging?

A

Yes

475
Q

What is the refractory period?

A

The time that immediately follows a stimulus to the cardiac muscle and will not respond to new stimulus.

476
Q

What is PAW? What does it reflect?

A

Pulmonary artery wedge pressure. It reflects the LA and LV end diastolic pressure which is usually (3-8mmhg)

477
Q

What are 2 ways to determine severity of AI?

A

2 ways to determine the severity of aortic regurgitation - look for the p1/2 time slope and also the vena contracta.

478
Q

What effect does the valsalva maneuver (sustained bearing down) have on the cardiovascular system?

A

Decreased blood pressure and decreased venous return

479
Q

What does inspiration have on the cardiovascular system?

A

Increases the right atrial venous return and the hearts stroke volume.

480
Q

Why is it common for moderate AI to eventually cause left atrial enlargement?

A

Moderate AI will cause LV volume overload, (then LVH over time) the LA enlargement is also common due to volume of back flow blood.

481
Q

What abnormality is primarily seen with HCM?

A

Thickened ventricular walls, increased LV mass and raised ventricular diastolic pressure. There are 2 types of HCM - either obstructive (HOCM) which van cause syncope and has been known to cause sudden death. Also non-obstructive (HCM). Use of the valsalva maneuver may help provoke obstruction.

482
Q

What ion enters the heart in systole to make the heart contract?

A

Ca++

483
Q

What is the voltage of a resting cardiac muscle cell?

A

-90mv

484
Q

What are the three main coronary arteries? When does coronary blood flow occur?

A

RCA, LAD, Circumflex. Diastole

485
Q

What is streptokinase? What is heparin?

A

Streptokinase is a thrombocytes do dissolves clots. Heparin blocks clot formation, (blood thinner), so clots won’t get larger.

486
Q

During isovolumic contraction which cardiac valves are open? During isovolumic relaxation what valves are closed?

A

The four valves (MV, TV, AOV, PV) are closed during both of the isometric stages.

487
Q

What is the first thing you should do according to the American heart association if an adult patient collapses and is unresponsive?

A

Activate the local emergency medical services number.

488
Q

What is the most common life threatening complication of myocardial infarction?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias

489
Q

What is the normal cardiac valves function in regard to the direction of blood flow? In the case of a stenotic area of a vessel or valve, where typically is the highest velocity of blood flow found?

A

One way or unidirectional flow. Proximal to the stenotic area is where the highest velocity will be found.

490
Q

Describe how cardiac muscle contracts when sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium?

A

Myosin cross bridges form, then the calcium released by sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin molecules in the actin helix this causes contraction.

491
Q

Name 2 other common names for the obstructive variant of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?

A

The obstructive variant of HCM, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) has also historically been known as idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) and asymmetric septal hypertrophy. (ASH)

492
Q

Name three things chest pain or angina may be caused by?

A

Embolus, tissue hypoxia, plaque

493
Q

What is the first mechanical event in the cardiac cycle? What is the name for the amount of blood pumped from the ventricles in a solo systolic event? Why is CO/HR called?

A

Ventricular systole, stroke volume. Stroke volume= CO/HR

494
Q

Name three things ejection fraction (EF) can determine? What is considered a normal EF?

A

Overall heart function, cardiac output, wall motion. Normal EF is usually >60%.