CCE Test Flashcards

1
Q

Interns are not allowed to do ___ while on duty

A

Eat or drink in patient areas
Do outside work (ie homework)
Use cell phones (including texting); phones should be turned off
Use hospital computers for personal use-even with permission from staff members

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2
Q

Interns are allowed breaks during their 4-hour shift (T/F)?

A

False. Interns are only allowed a 30 min rest in the break room when performing two shifts in a row.

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3
Q

What is the recommended process for being efficient with starting and ending a double shift?

A

Arrive at first shift 15 mins early
Sign out of first shift 15 mins early and take a 30 min break
Sign in to second shift 15 mins late
Leave 15 mins after second shift has ended

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4
Q

What do you do when you’re not busy with any tasks?

A

Walk around the floor and ask patients and staff is they could be of any help
Make oneself useful by being productive even when not directly asked by medical staff

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5
Q

A complete uniform comprises of:

A
Polo shirt (tucked in)
Long khaki pants
ID Badge
White tennis shoes
A black pen
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6
Q

A full uniform is required for:

A
EVERY shift
Department trainings
All intern meetings
Signing in for shifts
Counseling sessions
Turning in paperwork to CCE office
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7
Q

What must be done with your ID badge if leaving for absence exceeding 2 weeks?

A

You MUST return your ID badge to the CCE office before you leave

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8
Q

All Intern Meetings are:

A

Twice every rotation on Sunday at 4pm and 5:30pm

For discussion of important information and updates such as announcing of awards

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9
Q

What if you can’t make it to an All Intern Meeting?

A

You must email your Department Coordinator before the meeting to request and excused absence
Interns who do not attend AIMs and are unexcused will lose priority for department assignments

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10
Q

Hours and shift requirements:

A

All CCEs must complete 1 four-hour shift each week in their assigned departments

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11
Q

First rotation hours:

A

48 hours

Failure to complete will result in staying in same department for second shift until minimum of 48 hours is completed

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12
Q

All rotations after first hour requirements:

A

48 hours
Failure to complete will not receive credit for completing the floor and will have a lower priority for department choices

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13
Q

Eligible hours toward pipeline graduation:

A

24 training hours (already completed upon first shift of entering Pipeline)
240 floor hours
10 meeting hours
4 department training hours
Recruitment (2 hours for each referred applicant who enters Pipeline)
Special projects (hospital sponsored projects)
Department specific shadowing (opportunity to shadow CCE in upcoming department)
Alternative departments (doubling up which can only be done after first rotation)

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14
Q

Ineligible hours towards graduation:

A

Leadership team

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15
Q

What is department specific training?

A

Mandatory
Takes place prior to starting a new rotation
Training dates and times are sent by email along with department assignments for the new rotation
Interns who do not attend department training may be reassigned to a different department

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16
Q

Who can initiate a counseling session and why?

A

Any Leadership Team member of the Pipeline Manager
A counseling session is initiated when an intern requires instruction or guidance to correct behaviors to ensure all Pipeline and facility policies are observed
Counseling reports will be signed by the intern and placed in his/her file at the end of the session

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17
Q

What if an intern receives multiple counseling reports?

A

First counseling session is designed to review Pipeline policy and correct behavior
Second counseling session will result with intern being placed on Performance Contract
Third counseling session may result with the intern being released from the Pipeline

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18
Q

When should a Change of Information form be submitted?

A

Changes to:
Permanent/local address
Phone numbers
Email addresses

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19
Q

When should a Intern Information Disclosure form be submitted?

A

If the intern requests a copy of their immunization and/or certification records

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20
Q

When should a Leave of Absence form be submitted?

A

If requesting Leave of Absence (LoA) of more than 14 consecutive days
Must be submitted at least two weeks prior to leave date to LoA coordinator or CCE office
Extensions of LoAs must be emailed to LoA coordinator with updated form containing revised return date

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21
Q

What happens if Leave of Absence exceeds 3 months? 6 months?

A

3 months: intern must repeat the initial 3-day training

6 months: intern must reapply to Pipeline

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22
Q

What are the reasons a Leave of Absence will be denied?

A

School-related reasons such as midterms or finals

Study for MCATs, NCLEX, GREs, etc

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23
Q

What is an Hours Audit Request?

A

Request for record of total hours served

Submit requests to Hours Records Coordinator

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24
Q

What are all the CCE forms?

A
Counseling Reports
Change of Information
Intern Information Disclosure
Leave of Absence
Hours Audit Request
Intra-Pipeline Facility Transfer
Pipeline Completion
Competency Checklist
Timesheet
Shifts Calendar
Letter of Reference Request
Leadership Team Application
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25
Q

What is the Intra-Pipeline Facility Transfer form?

A

Request to transfer to another Pipeline facility if moving at least 15 miles closer to desired transfer facility
Request must be submitted to current manager
Interns not allowed to contact desired transfer facility

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26
Q

What happens if an Intra-Pipeline Facility Transfer request is approved?

A

Must complete 3-day initial training at new Pipeline facility, pay Pipeline fee and submit all required documentation
Current floor hours will only transfer if s/he accumulates: 168 hours min (24 initial training hours and 144 floor hours) performed at new facility and required 280 cumulative graduation hours from both facilities

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27
Q

What is Leadership team and what are the duties?

A

Eligible to join after one rotation as CCE
Required to work 2 office hours per week
Help with Orientation/Interviews and Trainings
Assist with Special Projects

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28
Q

How do you sign up for shifts?

A

Blank calendar for the next month will be available for shift sign-ups from the 1st through the 25th of the current month
Calendar for sign-ups will be located in the Department Binder
Only sign up for one shift per week until the calendar is finalized

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29
Q

How to sign up for multiple shifts per week?

A

The sign-up calendar will be removed from the binder at the end of every month to be finalized
The calendar will be typed up by the Department Coordinator and a finalized electronic copy of the calendar will be emailed to interns
After a finalized calendar is sent, interns may pick up as many open shifts as they want via email
After the calendar is finalized, all scheduling must be done via email; handwritten changes to a finalized calendar are not valid and will not be recognized as a scheduled shift

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30
Q

What do you do if you miss a shift?

A

Call the Charge Nurse of assigned department 15 mins after the shift start time
Email the Department Coordinator at least 24 hours prior with the following information: valid reason for needing to miss and a new shift date and time to make-up

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31
Q

What is the timesheet protocol?

A

Timesheets will be created and placed in the Department Binder located in the assigned unit
First thing interns must do when they arrive is sign in and sign out before they leave (signing in and out at the same time is not permitted)
When signing in and out, round to the nearest quarter hour (0:07 round down, 0:08 round up)
Sign top section of the sign in sheet and sign the signature section after signing out of every shift

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32
Q

When must the Competency Checklist be complete, with who, and where does it go?

A

Must be completed by the end of the 2nd week of first month of every rotation
Com Checklist will be placed next to each timesheet in the Department Binder
Must be completed with a Registered Nurse only
When completed, place original in front pocket of Department Binder

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33
Q

Requirements for a functional patient care team:

A
Effective communication
Patient-centered focus
Establishing a common goal
Understanding other member's roles
Confidence in other team members
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34
Q

Obstacles to successful teamwork:

A

Ineffective leadership
Lack of understanding of other healthcare professionals
Turfism
Financial structures

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35
Q

Scope of practice is:

A

The duties or services that a particular healthcare practitioner is authorized to perform
Some professionals authorized to practice independently while others involve supervision or collaboration with a physician or other practitioner

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36
Q

Evolution of patient care

A

Past: doctor knows best, patients blindly followed physician instructions and the health of patients was the concern of 1 physician
Present: patient autonomy, right of patients to control the course of their own medical treatment, right to participate in decision-making process, patient’s health is concern of a team of healthcare providers

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37
Q

Allied health professionals are:

A

Mid-level health care professionals who support, complement, or supplement the work done by physicians and nurses
Represent 60% of nation’s healthcare providers

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38
Q

Examples of allied health professionals:

A
Certified nursing assistant
Emergency medical technician and paramedic
Physician assistant
Physical therapist
Occupational therapist
Registered dietician
Radiologic/X-ray/ultrasound tech
Respiratory therapist
Surgical technologist
Clinical lab technologist
Clinical lab scientist (more advanced than CLT)
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39
Q

Nurse examples:

A

Licensed vocational nurse
Registered nurse
Clinical nurse specialist
Nurse practitioner

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40
Q

Nursing gender gap due to:

A

Professionalization of nursing in mid-1800s contributed to decline of male nurses
Historically, men often discourage and denied access to nurse education

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41
Q

What was Florence Nightingale’s belief?

A

That nursing was an extension of a woman’s “natural domestic role”

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42
Q

Men now make up what % of all nurses?

A

10%

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43
Q

Shortage of nurses affects:

A
Emergency preparedness
Access to care
Quality of care
Patient safety
Economic growth
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44
Q

Why is there a nursing shortage?

A

Steep population growth and aging population
Aging current nursing workforce
Diminishing pipeline of new students
High workforce attrition rates
Low job satisfaction and poor working conditions due to the shortage
Gender biases

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45
Q

Solutions to nursing shortage are:

A

Short term: wage and benefit equity
Long term: focus on new and innovative recruitment and retention strategies, increase incentives for nursing faculty recruitment, better educate public on impact of nursing care on healthcare quality and safety, and recruit foreign nurses

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46
Q

What is the gender ratio in U.S. medical schools now?

A

1M : 1F

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47
Q

What effect does gender have on patient satisfaction?

A

Males have a more straighfoward approach whereas females are more nurturing

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48
Q

What are the similarities between MD and DO physicians?

A
Course prerequisites
Medical education (same duration and core curriculum)
Postgraduate training
Duties and responsibilities
Salary
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49
Q

What are the differences between MD and DO physicians?

A

DO programs slightly less competitive
Licensing exams (USMLE and COMLEX
International recognition
Specialty selection

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50
Q

What is the physician hierarchy?

A
Medical student
Intern
Resident
Attending
Chief of medicine
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51
Q

What professionals make up a patient care team?

A
Physician
Nurse
Allied health professional
Volunteer
Patient
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52
Q

How do you become culturally competent?

A

Do not make any assumptions about the patient-ask questions
Respect patients’ values, beliefs and practices ever if they differ from your’s
Show respect for patients’ support system
Try to develop trust

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53
Q

Aspects of communication:

A
Directness
Gestures
Facial expressions
Touch
Degree of formality
Status
Pace
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54
Q

What should you demonstrate when listening?

A

Empathy not sympathy

Compassion

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55
Q

What are the barriers to listening?

A

Inappropriate language
Non-verbal cues
Verbal cues

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56
Q

How should you communicate with physicians?

A

Direct and straight forward

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57
Q

How should you communicate with patient’s family?

A

Friendly and reassuring

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58
Q

How should you communicate with clinical staff?

A

Instructional and directional

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59
Q

How should you communicate with patients?

A

Educational while listening and displaying empathy

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60
Q

How should you communicate with healthcare professionals?

A

Be professional and clear
Always ask for clarification
Always communicate inability to do a task outside of scope of practice
Never argue with the clinical staff-especially in presence of patient

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61
Q

How to be assertive:

A

Be clear, specific and direct when speaking
Keep repeating the message until it is HEARD
Ask for clarification when unsure of something
Body language is everything
Keep calm and stick to the point
Always be respectful of the rights of others

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62
Q

What are Joint Commissions?

A

U.S. based, not for profit organization that accredits and certifies hospitals

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63
Q

Why is accreditation important to hospitals?

A

Allows hospitals to receive reimbursement from federal government programs

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64
Q

What makes up the Joint Commission?

A

Accreditation standards: fundamentals for objective evaluation of healthcare organizations; subject to review and revision annually
National patient safety goals (NPSGs): developed from persistent issues or problems encountered at hospitals that negatively impact quality of patient care, sentinel events, and events that cause increase of healthcare costs
Reporting sentinel events: unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical/psychological injury
Un-/Scheduled surveys

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65
Q

What are the ways to correctly identify a patient?

A
Open ended question of name and DoB
Wristband
Nurse station
White board in patient room
Chart
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66
Q

What is the best way to prevent the spread of infection?

A

Hand hygiene

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67
Q

When should you clean your hands?

A

Before and after touching a patient or anything in a patient’s room
Before putting on and after removing gloves
Before and after eating
Before and after personal care

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68
Q

How long should you wash your hands?

A

At least 15 seconds

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69
Q

How long should nails be kept?

A

No longer than 1/8” past the fingertip

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70
Q

What is the central premise of standard precautions?

A

All bodily fluids are potentially infectious

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71
Q

What does PPE stand for and what does it include?

A
Personal Protective Equipment
Gloves
Gown
Mask
Goggles and/or face shield
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72
Q

How do you reduce/prevent exposure to bloodborne pathogens?

A

Never recap a needle
Dispose of needle and syringe immediately into sharp objects container
Use safe sharps whenever possible
Use PPE whenever anticipating exposure to blood or bodily fluids

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73
Q

What are the CDC isolation precautions?

A
Standard
Contact
Droplet
Airborne
Neutropenic
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74
Q

What steps should be taken prior to entering a contact isolation room?

A

Wear gown and gloves

Wash hands after interaction

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75
Q

What steps should be taken prior to entering a droplet isolation room?

A

Wear a mask

76
Q

What steps should be taken prior to entering a contact/droplet isolation room?

A

Wear gown, gloves, and mask

77
Q

What steps should be taken prior to entering a airborne isolation room?

A

Wear N-95 mask or TB hood

78
Q

What is the difference between airborne and droplet isolation?

A

Pathogens in airborne can remain suspended in the air and thus patients must be placed in a negative pressure room

79
Q

What is unique about neutropenic isolation?

A

Reverse isolation

Patients who are immunocompromised

80
Q

What is MDRO?

A

Multidrug Resistant Organism

81
Q

What are the practices to reduce catheter-associated urinary tract infections?

A

Minimize use and duration in all patients
Avoid use to manage incontinence
Remove catheter asap postop, preferably within 24 hours
Monitor daily for continued need
Use proper insertion and maintenance techniques
Make sure bag and tubing do not touch the floor

82
Q

What are the practices to reduce central line bloodstream infections?

A

Use maximal sterile barriers when inserting line
Avoid femoral vein as insertion site
Scrubbing the hub for 10-15s with CHG when accessing line to give medications
Assess line daily for continued necessity

83
Q

What is HAI?

A

Hospital Associated Infection

84
Q

What is nosocomial infection?

A

Infection that is acquired while a patient is in the hospital

85
Q

What are the common bacterial infections?

A

Streptococcus

Staphylococcus

86
Q

What is used to treat Strep and Staph infections?

A

Methicillin or Vancomycin due to their resistance to Penicillin

87
Q

What is MRSA?

A

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

88
Q

What are the common viral infections?

A

HIV/AIDS
HPV
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
Influenza

89
Q

What do you do if you are exposed to the blood of a patient?

A

Wash needle sticks and cuts with soap and water
Flush splashes to nose, mouth, or skin with water
Irrigate eyes with clean water, saline, or sterile irrigants
Report exposure to charge nurse
Report exposure to pipeline manager

90
Q

Who in the hospital has low infection resistance?

A
Newborns (especially premature babies)
Elderly
Surgical
Seriously ill (ICU, CCU, etc)
Physically and nutritionally depleted
Immune compromised
91
Q

What are the dwell times for alcohol and bleach based wipes?

A

Alcohol: 2 minutes
Bleach: 4 minutes
Reapply if dries before end of dwell time

92
Q

What are Neonates and infants at high risk for?

A

Aspiration
Suffocation
Falls

93
Q

What are toddlers at high risk for?

A

Choking
Injury
Infection

94
Q

What are preschool and school age (4-12 yo) at high risk for?

A

Fall/bodily damage related injury
Trauma due to physical/sexual abuse
Asthma
Fluid/electrolyte imbalance related to gastroenteritis

95
Q

What are adolescents (13-18 yo) at high risk for?

A

Substance abuse
Depression/suicide
STDs

96
Q

What are young adults (18-40 yo) at high risk for?

A

Substance abuse
Increased stress from work, family, and possibly school
Midlife crisis during one’s 40s
Quarter life crisis during one’s 20s

97
Q

What are middle adults (40-64 yo) at high risk for?

A

Hearing and eyesight decline
Bone and joint pain
“Late” midlife crisis (difficulty accepting physical changes)

98
Q

What are older adults (65+ yo) at high risk for?

A
Decreased skin integrity
Aspiration
Sleep pattern disturbance
Falls
Sensory and perceptual alterations
99
Q

What is mandatory reporting?

A

Reporting of suspicious behavior or events to correct authorities

100
Q

What should interns be suspicious of?

A

Child abuse
Elderly abuse
Harassment
Domestic abuse

101
Q

What constitutes child abuse/neglect?

A

Physical injury (other than accidental)
Sexual abuse
Neglect
Willful harming

102
Q

What constitutes elder abuse?

A

Malnutrition
Bruises/bone fractures
Skin break downs/bed sores

103
Q

How do you report an incident?

A

Tell the charge nurse

Page pipeline manager and provide name, location, and unit phone number

104
Q

What is the Pipeline manager pager number?

A

888-248-2914

105
Q

What do you do if you are injured?

A

Tell charge nurse immediately after the incident occurs
Get treated at Employee Health during weekdays or Emergency Department after hours or in case of serious injury
Page pipeline manager

106
Q

How can fainting be prevented?

A

Eat prior to shift
Remain hydrated
Get plenty of rest

107
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Initially intended to make it easier for patients to move from one insurance plan to another
Establishes standard format for healthcare organizations to share medical information
Makes it illegal for information to be released to inappropriate parties

108
Q

What is PHI?

A

Protected Health Information

109
Q

What does PHI include?

A
Identifying information (name, address, SSN, DoB, names of relatives, etc)
Information on patient's physical and mental health, provided care, and payment for care
110
Q

Who is authorized to see patient information?

A

Those on need-to-know basis

111
Q

What are general ways to protect privacy?

A

Close doors and draw curtains during patient care and discussions
Make sure discussion of patient conditions cannot be overheard
Knock before entering rooms
Keep patient records locked and away from public areas
Do no give names or information when visitors ask about patients; direct inquiries to staff member

112
Q

What is code red and what is the response?

A

Fire
Dial 4000 and give name and location
Close all doors to area

113
Q

What is code blue and what is the response?

A

Cardiac arrest

Dial 4000 and give name and location

114
Q

What is code white and what is the response?

A

Infant medical emergency (under 3 mo)

Dial 4000 and give name and location

115
Q

What is code purple and what is the response?

A

Child abduction (3 mo-13 yo)
Report all incidents to security
Look for suspicious situations
Dial 4000 and give name and location

116
Q

What is code orange and what is the response?

A

Hazardous materials spill
Dial 4000 and give name and location
Do not attempt to clean up manually
Try to block off area

117
Q

What is code yellow and what is the response?

A

Bomb threat

Gather as much information about it as possible

118
Q

What is code silver and what is the response?

A

Person with a weapon or hostage situation
Dial 4000 and give name and location
Do not go to location

119
Q

What is code gray and what is the response?

A

Combative or disruptive person confronting hospital staff
If in area, go to location of code
If reporting, dial 4000 and give name and location

120
Q

What is code pink and what is the response?

A

Infant abduction
Dial 4000 and give name and location
Look for suspicious situations such as unattended duffle bags
Nurses will have pink stickers on ID badges and will use bassinets to transport babies

121
Q

What is code C?

A

C-Section

122
Q

What is code Dr. Stork?

A

Imminent Delivery

123
Q

What is code green?

A

Trauma-extra patient care support needed in ER

124
Q

What is code triage standby?

A

Potential natural disaster

125
Q

What is code zero?

A

Evacuation

126
Q

What is code vent?

A

Ventilation failure

127
Q

What are the 3 major classes of fires?

A

Electrical
Combustible
Chemical

128
Q

What kind of fire extinguisher can be used for all three classes of fires?

A

ABC

129
Q

What are the three things needed for fire to burn?

A

Oxygen
Fuel
Heat

130
Q

What is PASS?

A

Pull pin from extinguisher
Aim nozzle at base of fire
Squeeze handle
Sweep nozzle from side to side

131
Q

What is RACEE?

A
Rescue patients in danger
Activate alarm
Close all doors to area
Extinguish fire if possible
Evacuate area if necessary
132
Q

Which three companies and known for their customer service?

A

Walmart
Nordstrom
Disneyland

133
Q

What is the difference between a retail customer service and hospital customer service?

A

Patients don’t want to be in a hospital in the first place

134
Q

Who are the customers?

A
Patients
Families
Staff
Administrators
Vendors
EMTs
135
Q

Why is customer service important?

A

Happy patients heal faster
Provide patients with care, company, and help them feel more like people instead of just patients
Patient satisfaction scores affect hospital’s funding

136
Q

What is proper customer service etiquette?

A

Never put someone on hold for more than 30 seconds without checking in on them
The other end can hear you smile
Answer questions as if it’s the first time you’ve heard it
If you do not know the answer, find someone who does
If someone asks you where something is, take them there
Stay in control of your reactions
Stay neutral
Never crack jokes
Be considerate of emotions and personal space

137
Q

What do you do if a patient is falling?

A

Protect their head
Call a nurse immediately to help pick the patient up
Page pipeline manager
Notify department coordinator

138
Q

What are ways to prevent falls?

A

Always stay directly by the side of the patient

139
Q

What is the Trendelenburg position and when is it used?

A

Patient’s head is low and legs elevated

Used to treat shock

140
Q

What is the Reverse Trendelenburg position and when is it used?

A

Patient’s head is elevated

Used for head trauma (e.g open/bleeding wound)

141
Q

What is the Fowler’s position and when is it used?

A

Semi-sitting position with hips at 45-60 degree angle

Used after hip/abdominal surgery

142
Q

What is the Semi-Fowler’s position and when is it used?

A

Semi-sitting position with knees flexed and supported by a pillow
Used to reduce pressure on the back

143
Q

What is orthopedics?

A

Branch of surgery concerned with musculoskeletal system injuries and disorders

144
Q

What is an important precaution for post hip op patients?

A

Do not flex the hip past 45 degrees

Do not adduct the hip past the midline of the patient

145
Q

What is BM, CBC, KVO/TKO, NPO, PO, PR, PRN?

A

BM: bowel movement
CBC: complete blood count
KVO: keep vein open (IV flow enough to KVO)
NPO: non per os; nothing by mouth oral or liquid
PO: per os; administer by mouth
PR: per rectum
PRN: pro re nata; administer as needed

146
Q

What is inpatient and outpatient?

A

Inpatient: patient admitted to hospital for overnight stay
Outpatient: patient checks into hospital and leaves the same day as their procedure

147
Q

What is sign and symptom?

A

Sign: objective indication of some medical fact/quality detected by a physician during a physical exam
Symptom: subjective experience reported by patient

148
Q

What is the path of blood through the body?

A
Heart
Arteries
Capillaries
Veins
Heart
149
Q

What are the cardiovascular conditions?

A

Atherosclerosis: disease in which fatty material is deposited in the walls of arteries
Myocardial Infarction (MI): loss of blood supply to the heart; heart attack
Congestive Heart Failure (CHF): failure of heart to pump blood efficiently
Stroke (wet/dry): loss of blood supply to the brain
Shock: decreased perfusion of blood to body tissues

150
Q

What is the flow of air in the body?

A
Nose/mouth
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchus
Bronchi
Bronchiole
Alveoli
151
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A

Alveoli

152
Q

What are the pulmonary conditions?

A

Pneumonia: inflammation of lung by microorganism
Tuberculosis: infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Asthma: chronic condition characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and hypersecretion of mucus
Bronchitis: chronic expiratory airflow obstruction accompanied by chronic productive cough for 3+ months in two successive years
Emphysema: chronic expiratory airflow obstruction accompanied by permanent enlargement of alveoli

153
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

Uncontrolled, disorderly proliferation of cells

Can be benign or malignant

154
Q

How is neoplasia classified?

A

Benign vs malignant

Tissue of origin

155
Q

What are the vital signs?

A
Temperature
Heart rate/pulse
Blood pressure
Respiratory rate
Oxygen saturation
Pain level
156
Q

Why are vital signs important?

A

Acute medical problems: sudden changes

Chronic disease states: prolonged abnormal values

157
Q

What is ESI?

A

Emergency Severity Index

158
Q

What are the different methods for taking temperature?

A

Oral
Axillary
Tympanic
Rectal

159
Q

Which is the most inaccurate method and takes the longest to measure temperature?

A

Axillary

160
Q

What is the normal body temperature?

A

97.6~99.6 degrees F

161
Q

What can cause increase in body temperature?

A
Strenuous activity
Digestion of food
Drinking a warm beverage
Illness
Emotional stress
Taking a warm bath
High levels of progesterone after ovulation
162
Q

What causes decrease in body temperature?

A
Fainting
Illness
Dehydration
Drinking a cold beverage
Fasting
Sleep/rest
High levels of estrogen before ovulation
163
Q

Where is the most common area to measure the pulse?

A

Radial artery

164
Q

What are all the locations commonly used to measure pulse?

A
Carotid
Brachial
Femoral
Popliteal
Posterior tibial
Dorsalis pedis
165
Q

What does the presence of a pulse in the dorsalis pedis indicate?

A

Blood circulation to extremities

166
Q

What is the normal resting heart rate for adult, children, toddlers, and infants?

A

Adult: 60-100 bpm
Children: 80-100 bpm
Toddlers: 100-120 bpm
Infants: 120-169 bpm

167
Q

What factors cause change in heart rate?

A
Body temperature
Emotional state
Activity level
Health of the heart
Hemorrhage
Drugs
168
Q

What are the characteristics of the pulse?

A

Rate
Rhythm
Quality

169
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

Pressure exerted by the blood against artery walls as the heart pumps and then relaxes

170
Q

What instruments are used to measure blood pressure?

A

Sphygmomanometer (bp cuff)
Stethoscope
Alcohol wipes

171
Q

What is systolic and diastolic pressure?

A

Systolic: greatest force exerted against the walls of the arteries during a heart contraction
Diastolic: least force exerted against the walls of the arteries when the heart relaxes

172
Q

What is the normal systolic and diastolic pressure?

A

Systolic: 100-140 mm Hg
Diastolic: 60-90 mm Hg
Average adult: 120/80 mm Hg

173
Q

What causes increase in blood pressure?

A
Lack of exercise
Obesity
Illness
Stress
Ethnic background
Family history
High sodium intake
174
Q

What causes decrease in blood pressure?

A
Fasting
Shock
Hemorrhage
Rest
Low sodium intake
175
Q

One respiration comprises of:

A

One inspiration + one expiration

176
Q

What is the normal breathing rate in adults, children, and newborns?

A

Adult: 12-20 bpm
Children: 15-30 bpm
Newborns: 30-60 bpm

177
Q

What causes increases in respiratory rate?

A

Strenuous exercise
Illness
Increased/decreased CO2 levels in blood

178
Q

What causes decrease in respiratory rate?

A

Sleep
Rest
Inactivity
Opioids

179
Q

What is oxygen saturation?

A

Measure of how much oxygen is bonded to hemoglobin in the blood as a percentage

180
Q

What is unique about reporting of pain level?

A

Subjective to and determined by the patient alone

Cannot really be quantified or measured

181
Q

At what reported pain level should be reported to nursing staff?

A

8 or higher

182
Q

What is AIDET?

A
Acknowledge
Introduction
Duration
Explanation
Thank you
183
Q

What are the 3 Ps?

A

Pain
Potty
Position

184
Q

What is the hourly rounding overview?

A
Use opening key words and /or actions to introduce yourself and your scope of practice
Perform scheduled tasks
Address the 3 Ps
Assess additional comfort needs
Conduct environmental assessment
Use closing key words and/or actions
Explain when you or others will return
Document the round on CCE rounding chart
185
Q

What is the primary reason people go to the hospital?

A

They are in pain