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CC - EE Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following lamps provides a continuous spectrum of radiant energy in the visible, near IR, and near UV regions of the spectrum?

A. Tungsten-filament
B. Hydrogen
C. Deuterium
D. Mercury vapor

A

A. Tungsten-filament

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following isolates light within a narrow region of the spectrum?

A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Monochromator
C. Photovoltaic cell
D. Detector

A

B. Monochromator

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is not descriptive of a photomultiplier tube?

A. Emits electrons proportionally to
initial light absorbed
B. Must be shielded from stray light
C. Cannot be used with a chopper
D. Amplifies the initial signal received

A

C. Cannot be used with a chopper

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following isfalse about a photomultiplier tube?

A. Converts radiant energy (light)
to electrical energy (current)
B. Amplifies the current significantly
C. Has a very rapid response time
D. Is composed of an iron plate and
a layer of selenium

A

D. Is composed of an iron plate and
a layer of selenium

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5
Q
  1. Which type of photodetector employs
    a linear arrangement that allows it to respond to a specific wavelength resulting in complete UV/visible spectrum analysis?

A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Phototube
C. Barrier layer cell
D. Photodiode array

A

D. Photodiode array

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6
Q
  1. When performing spectrophotometer quality assurance checks, what is the holmium oxide glass filter used to assess?

A. Linearity
B. Straylight
C. Absorbance accuracy
D. Wavelength accuracy

A

D. Wavelength accuracy

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7
Q
  1. In spectrophotometric analysis, what is the purpose of the reagent blank?

A. Correct for interfering chromogens
B. Correct for lipemia
C. Correct for protein
D. Correct for color contribution of the
reagents

A

D. Correct for color contribution of the
reagents

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8
Q
  1. In regard to bichromatic analysis, which of the following is false?

A. Absorbance is measured at the
spectral absorbance peak for a blank and the sample using the same wavelength.
B. Eliminates background interferences
C. Sample concentration determined
from difference in two measured
absorbances
D. Functions as a reference blank for
each sample

A

A. Absorbance is measured at the
spectral absorbance peak for a blank and the sample using the same wavelength.

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9
Q
  1. Thebandpassofaspectrophotometeris 10 nm. If an instalment is set at 540 nm,
    the wavelengths that are permitted to impinge on the sample will be within what wavelength range?

A. 530-540nm
B. 530-550nm
C. 535-545nm
D. 540-550nm

A

C. 535-545nm

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following formulas is an expression of the Beer-Lambert law that is routinely applied to spectrophotometric analysis?

A. Au x Cs over As = Cu
B. Cu x Cs over As = Au
C. As x Cs over As =Au
D. A = 2 - log%T

Ps. di ko maayos HAHHAHAHA

A

A. Au x Cs over As = Cu

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11
Q
  1. In spectrophotometry, which of the following is a mathematical expression of the relationship between absorbance and transmittance?

A. A = abc
B. Au over Cs = As over Cs
C. A = 2 - log %T
D. A = log %T

A

C. A = 2 - log %T

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a problem inherent in turbidimetry?

A. Variation in particle size of samples
B. Variation in particle size of standards
C. Rate of aggregation or settling of particles
D. Need to maintain a constant and specific temperature

A

D. Need to maintain a constant and specific temperature

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following may be asso- ciated with reflectance spectrophotometry as it relates to the dry reagent slide technique?

A. Light projected to the slide at
180-degree angle
B. Dye concentration directly
proportional to reflectance
C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected
by photodetector
D. Reflectance values are linearly
proportional to transmission values

A

C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected
by photodetector

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13
Q
  1. Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the exciting light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design?

A. Prevent loss of emitted light
B. Prevent loss of the excitation light
C. Focus emitted and excitation light
upon the detector
D. Prevent excitation light from reaching
the detector

A

D. Prevent excitation light from reaching
the detector

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following represents
    a primary advantage of performing fluorometric over absorption spectroscopic methods of analysis?

A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity
B. Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity
C. Purity of reagents used not as critical
D. Ease of performing assays

A

A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following may be associated with fluorescence polarization?

A. Plane-polarized light is used for
sample excitation.
B. Small molecular complexes show
a greater amount of polarization.
C. It is a heterogeneous technique
employed in fluorophore-ligand
immunoassays.
D. Polarized light detected is directly
proportional to concentration of ligand in sample.

A

A. Plane-polarized light is used for
sample excitation.

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following may be associated with bioluminescence?

A. Light emission produced due to
enzymatic oxidation of a substrate
B. Less sensitive than direct fluorescent
assays
C. Electron excitation caused by radiant
energy
D. Employs a radioactive label

A

A. Light emission produced due to
enzymatic oxidation of a substrate

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17
Q
  1. Nephelometry is based on the measure- ment of light that is

A. Absorbed by particles in suspension
B. Scattered by particles in suspension
C. Produced by fluorescence
D. Produced by excitation of ground-state atoms

A

B. Scattered by particles in suspension

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following instruments is used in the clinical laboratory or in reference laboratories to detect beta and gamma emissions?

A. Fluorometer
B. Nephelometer
C. Scintillation counter
D. Spectrophotometer

A

C. Scintillation counter

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes chemiluminescence?

A. Electron excitation caused by radiant
energy
B. Enzymatic oxidation of a substrate
produces light emission
C. Chemical energy excites electrons that
emit light upon return to ground state
D. Employs a fluorescent label that
produces light

A

C. Chemical energy excites electrons that
emit light upon return to ground state

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20
Q
  1. In assaying an analyte with a single-beam atomic absorption spectrophotometer, what is the instrument actually measuring?

A. Intensity of light emitted by the
analyte on its return to the ground state
B. Intensity of light that the analyte
absorbs from the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Intensity of light that the analyte
absorbs from the flame
D. Intensity of the beam from the hollow-
cathode lamp after it has passed through the analyte-containing flame

A

D. Intensity of the beam from the hollow-
cathode lamp after it has passed through the analyte-containing flame

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21
Q
  1. What is the function of the flame in atomic absorption spectroscopy?

A. Absorb the energy emitted from the
metal analyte in returning to ground
state
B. Supply the thermal energy needed to
excite the metal analyte
C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground
state
D. Supply the light that is absorbed by the
metal analyte

A

C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground
state

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22
Q
  1. Most atomic absorption spectrophotometers incorporate a beam chopper and a tuned amplifier. The purpose of these components is to avoid errors that would be caused by

A. Variations in flame temperature
B. Deterioration of the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Stray light from the hollow-cathode lamp
D. Measurement of light emitted by the analyte

A

D. Measurement of light emitted by the analyte

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23
Q
  1. In potentiometry, which of the following is considered the standard electrode?

A. Hydrogen electrode
B. Calcium electrode
C. Potassium electrode
D. Copper electrode

A

A. Hydrogen electrode

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24
Q
  1. In an electrolytic cell, which of the following is the half-cell where reduction takes place?

A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Combination electrode
D. Electrode response

A

B. Cathode

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25
Q
  1. Mercury covered by a layer of mercurous chloride in contact with saturated potassium chloride solution is a description of which of the following types of electrodes?

A. Sodium
B. Calomel
C. Calcium
D. Silver/silver chloride

A

B. Calomel

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26
Q
  1. When a pH-sensitive glass electrode is not actively in use, in what type of solution should it be kept?

A. Tapwater
B. Physiologic saline solution
C. The medium recommended by the
manufacturer
D. A buffer solution of alkaline pH

A

C. The medium recommended by the
manufacturer

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27
Q
  1. When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of a liquid ion- exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?

A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin

A

D. Valinomycin

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following isfalse about ion-selective electrode analysis of sodium?

A. Uses a glass membrane
B. Errors occur from protein buildup on the membrane.
C. Membrane coated with valinomycin
D. Principle based on potentiometry

A

C. Membrane coated with valinomycin

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29
Q
  1. What are the principles of operation for a chloride analyzer that generates silver ions as part of its reaction mechanism?

A. Potentiometry and amperometry
B. Amperometry and polarography
C. Coulometry and potentiometry
D. Amperometry and coulometry

A

D. Amperometry and coulometry

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30
Q
  1. When quantifying glucose using an amperometric glucose electrode system, which of the following is not a component of the system?

A. Product oxidation produces a current
B. Hydrogen peroxide formed
C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose
D. Platinum electrode

A

C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose

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31
Q
  1. To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/ blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that

A. The barometric pressure be known
and used for adjustments
B. Calibrating gases of known high and
low concentrations be used
C. The calibration be performed at room
temperature
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be
used

A

D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be
used

32
Q
  1. The measurement of CO2 in blood by means of a PCO2 electrode is dependent on the

A. Passage of H+ ions through the
membrane that separates the sample
and the electrode
B. Change in pH because of increased
carbonic acid in the electrolyte
surrounding the electrodes
C. Movement of bicarbonate across the membrane that separates the sample
and the electrode
D. Linear relationship between PCO2 in
the sample and measured pH

A

B. Change in pH because of increased
carbonic acid in the electrolyte
surrounding the electrodes

33
Q
  1. The measurement of oxygen in blood by means of a PO2 electrode involves which of the following?

A. Wheatstone bridge arrangement of
resistive elements sensitive to oxygen
concentration
B. Direct relationship between amount of
oxygen in the sample and amount of
current flowing in the measuring system
C. Changeincurrentresultingfrom
an increase of free silver ions in solution
D. Glass electrode sensitive to H+ ions

A

B. Direct relationship between amount of
oxygen in the sample and amount of
current flowing in the measuring system

34
Q
  1. Which of the following blood gas parameters are measured directly by the blood gas analyzer electrochemically as opposed to being calculated by the instrument?

A. pH, HCO3, total CO2
B. PCO2,HCO3,PO2
C. pH,PCO2,PO2
D. PO2, HCO3, total CO2

A

C. pH,PCO2,PO2

35
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false about anodic stripping voltammetry
    (ASV)?

A. Based on potentiometry
B. Occurs in an electrochemical cell
C. Involves preconcentration of the
analyte by electroplating
D. Used to measure lead

A

A. Based on potentiometry

36
Q
  1. Which of the following methods allows for the separation of charged particles based on their rates of migration in an electric field?

A. Rheophoresis
B. Electrophoresis
C. Electroendosmosis
D. Ion exchange

A

B. Electrophoresis

37
Q
  1. Which of the following techniques is based on electro-osmotic flow?

A. Capillary electrophoresis
B. Zone electrophoresis
C. Iontophoresis
D. Isoelectric focusing

A

A. Capillary electrophoresis

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of support media used for serum protein electrophoresis?

A. Agarose gel
B. Cellulose acetate
C. Acrylamide
D. Celite

A

D. Celite

39
Q
  1. In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer solution of pH 8.6 is used, which of the following characterizes the proteins?

A. Exhibit net negative charge
B. Exhibit net positive charge
C. Exhibit charge neutrality
D. Migrate toward the cathode

A

A. Exhibit net negative charge

40
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics will a protein have at its isoelectric point?

A. Net negative charge
B. Net positive charge
C. Net zero charge
D. Mobility

A

C. Net zero charge

41
Q
  1. What dye may be used for staining protein bands following electrophoresis?

A. Fat red 7B
B. Sudan black B
C. Ponceau S
D. Oil redO

A

C. Ponceau S

42
Q
  1. When electrophoresis is performed, holes appear in the staining pattern, giving the stained protein band a doughnut-like appearance. What is the probable cause of this problem?

A. Protein denatured and will not stain properly
B. Ionic strength of the buffer was too high
C. Protein reached its isoelectric point and precipitated out
D. Protein concentration was too high

A

D. Protein concentration was too high

43
Q
  1. What is the purpose of using ampholytes in isoelectric focusing?

A. Maintain the polyacrylamide gel in
a solid state
B. Maintain the protein sample in
a charged state
C. Maintain the pH of the buffer
solution
D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

A

D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with silver stains?

A. Reactive to nanogram concentrations
of proteins
B. Polypeptides stain a variety of colors
C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant
blue
D. Preconcentration of CSF not
necessary

A

C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant
blue

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with isoelectric focusing?

A. Continuous pH gradient
B. Migration of proteins with net charge
of zero
C. Separation dependent on isoelectric
point
D. Zone electrophoresis

A

B. Migration of proteins with net charge
of zero

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is an elec- trophoretic technique employing a pH gradient that separates molecules with similar isoelectric points?

A. Zone electrophoresis
B. High-resolution electrophoresis
C. Isoelectric focusing
D. Immunoelectrophoresis

A

C. Isoelectric focusing

47
Q
  1. Given the following information on a particular compound that has been visualized by means of thin-layer chromatography, calculate the Rf of the compound.
  • Distance from origin to spot center = 48 mm
  • Distance from spot center to solvent front = 93 mm
  • Distance from origin to solvent front = 141 mm

A. 0.29
B. 0.34
C. 0.52
D. 0.66

A

B. 0.34

48
Q
  1. To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity, to what type of detector system could a gas chromatograph be coupled?

A. UV spectrophotometer
B. Bichromatic spectrophotometer
C. Mass spectrometer
D. Fluorescence detector

A

C. Mass spectrometer

49
Q
  1. Which of the following instruments has a sample-introduction system, solvent- delivery system, column, and detector as components?

A. Atomic absorption spectrometer
B. Mass spectrometer
C. High-performance liquid
chromatograph
D. Nephelometer

A

C. High-performance liquid
chromatograph

50
Q
  1. Which type of elution technique maybe used in high-performance liquid chromatography?

A. Amphoteric
B. Isoelectric
C. Gradient
D. Ion exchange

A

C. Gradient

51
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes discrete analysis?

A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled
separately in its own reaction vessel.
B. Samples are analyzed in a flowing
stream of reagent.
C. Analyzer must be dedicated to
measurement of only one analyte.
D. It does not have random access
capability.

A

A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled
separately in its own reaction vessel.

52
Q
  1. Which of the following chromatography systems may be described as having a stationary phase that is liquid absorbed on particles packed in a column and a liquid moving phase that is pumped through a column?

A. Thin-layer
B. High-performance liquid
C. Ion-exchange
D. Gas-liquid

A

B. High-performance liquid

53
Q
  1. Which of the following chromatography systems is characterized by a stationary phase of silica gel on a piece of glass and a moving phase of liquid?

A. Thin-layer
B. Ion-exchange
C. Gas-liquid
D. Partition

A

A. Thin-layer

54
Q
  1. Which of the following does not apply to gas-liquid chromatography?

A. Separation depends on volatility of the sample.
B. Separation depends on the sample’s solubility in the liquid layer of the stationary phase.
C. Stationary phase is a liquid layer adsorbed on the column packing.
D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped through the column.

A

D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped through the column.

55
Q
  1. Ion-exchange chromatography separates solutes in a sample based on the

A. Solubility of the solutes
B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge
C. Adsorption ability of the solutes
D. Molecular size

A

B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge

56
Q
  1. Which parameter is used in mass spectrometry to identify a compound?

A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio
B. Molecular size
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Retention time

A

A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio

57
Q
  1. Which chromatography system is commonly used in conjunction with mass spectrometry?

A. High-performance liquid
B. Ion-exchange
C. Partition
D. Gas-liquid

A

D. Gas-liquid

58
Q
  1. Which of the following may be a sampling source of error for an automated instrument?

A. Short sample
B. Air bubble in bottom of sample cup
C. Fibrin clot in sample probe
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

59
Q
  1. Checking instrument calibration, temperature accuracy, and electronic parameters are part of

A. Preventive maintenance
B. Qualitycontrol
C. Function verification
D. Precision verification

A

C. Function verification

60
Q
  1. For which of the following laboratory installments should preventive maintenance procedures be performed and recorded?

A. Analytical balance
B. Centrifuge
C. Chemistry analyzer
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is not the reason that preventive maintenance schedules are required?

A. Keep instrument components clean
B. Replace worn parts
C. Extend the life of the equipment
D. Keep personnel busy when the laboratory work is slow

A

D. Keep personnel busy when the laboratory work is slow

62
Q
  1. Which globin chains compose hemoglobin A1?

A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains
B. Two alpha chains and two delta chains
C. Two alpha chains and two gamma chains
D. Two beta chains and two delta chains

A

A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains

63
Q
  1. Which hemoglobin may be differentiated from other hemoglobins on the basis of its resistance to denature in alkaline solution?

A. A1
B. A2
C. C
D. F

A

D. F

64
Q
  1. Hemoglobin S is an abnormal hemoglobin that is characterized by a substitution of which amino acid?

A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the beta chain
B. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the alpha chain
C. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the beta chain
D. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the alpha chain

A

A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the beta chain

65
Q
  1. When performing electrophoresis at pH 8.6, which hemoglobin molecule migrates the fastest on cellulose acetate toward the anode?

A. A1
B. A2
C. F
D. S

A

A. A1

66
Q
  1. Because of similar electrophoretic mobili- ties, several hemoglobins cannot be differentiated on cellulose acetate medium. Electrophoresis of hemoglobins at pH 6.2 on agar gel may be useful in differentiating which hemoglobins?

A. A1 from A2
B. A1 from D
C. A1 from E
D. C fromA2

A

D. C fromA2

67
Q
  1. In addition to performing hemoglobin electrophoresis, a solubility test may be performed to detect the presence of what hemoglobin?

A. A1
B. C
C. F
D. S

A

D. S

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is not quantified using an immunoassay method?

A. Vitamins
B. Hormones
C. Electrolytes
D. Drugs

A

C. Electrolytes

69
Q
  1. Which of the following is a homogeneous immunoassay where separation of the bound from the free labeled species is not required?

A. Radioimmunoassay
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C. Immunoradiometric assay
D. Enzyme -multiplied immunoassay technique

A

D. Enzyme -multiplied immunoassay technique

70
Q
  1. The substance to be measured reacts with a specific macromolecule of limited binding capacity. Which of the following assays does not employ this principle?

A. Chemiluminescence immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
C. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
D. High-performance liquid chromatography

A

D. High-performance liquid chromatography

71
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with the enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT)?

A. Is a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay
B. Determines antigen concentration
C. Employs a labeled reactant
D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum sample

A

D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum sample

72
Q
  1. When using EMIT, the enzyme is coupled to

A. Antibody
B. Antigen
C. Substrate
D. Coenzyme

A

B. Antigen

73
Q
  1. The enzyme activity measured in the EMIT is the result of the reaction between the substrate and coenzyme with

A. Freeantibody
B. Free unlabeled antigen
C. Free labeled antigen
D. Labeled antigen-antibody complexe

A

C. Free labeled antigen

74
Q
  1. Singlet oxygen reacting with a precursor chemiluminescent compound to form a decay product whose light energizes a fluorophore best describes

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
C. Electrochemiluminescence immunoassay
D. Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay

A

D. Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay

75
Q
  1. Which of the following stimulates the production of singlet oxygen at the surface of the sensitizer particle in a luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay?

A. Radiant energy
B. Heat energy
C. Enzymatic reaction
D. Fluorescent irradiation

A

A. Radiant energy

76
Q
  1. Proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids are the three major biochemical compounds of human metabolism. What is the element that distinguishes proteins from carbo- hydrate and lipid compounds?

A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

A

D. Nitrogen

77
Q
  1. Proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation, heat, or extreme chemical treatment. How are proteins affected by denaturation?

A. Alteration in primary structure
B. Alteration in secondary structure
C. Alteration in tertiary structure
D. Increase in solubility

A

C. Alteration in tertiary structure

CC - EE (1 decks)

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