CBTs Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum runway width for a 180 turn?

A

24,40 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Oxygen indication, green, if pressure greater than

A

1410 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Oxygen automatically deployed if cabin altitude greater than

A

14000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Initial takeoff phase starts when

A

N1 >= TO PWR, WOW, IAS < 100 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Final takeoff phase when

A

Both N1 at TO PWR, IAS > 100 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Takeoff phase ends when

A

Both N1 < TO PWR, RA > 400 ft or after 30s ground/air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Landing phase starts when

A

RA < 400 ft, gear down and locked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Landing phase ends, when

A

30 s after air/ground transition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Engine start starter cut out at what RPM?

A

50-60% N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If the signs are on auto, when are they on?

A

On with gear extended or cabin altitude > 10,000 feet,
additionally, seatbelt signs on with flaps > zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IAPS

A

Integrated avionics processing system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AHRS hängt an welchem BUS?

A

DC ESS BUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ADCU

A

Automatic deploy control unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What’s the power source logic?

A
  1. Onside IDG
  2. APU
  3. Offside IDG
  4. External power
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

EICAS electrical green indications? V and Hz

A

100-125v
375-425 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Max generator load?

A

40kVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The main battery charger is powered by which bus?

A

AC BUS 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

By which bus is the APU battery charger powered?

A

AC SERV BUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the reasons for an amber IDG?

A

Low oil pressure
high oil temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens if a generator is removed from a BUS due to overcurrent?

A

The auto transfer is inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is inoperative if there is a DC EMER BUS fault?

A

Fire extinguishing systems (Fire and smokes detection is still operative)
No APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bei welchen elektrischen Fehlern gilt: land at the nearest suitable airport?

A

DC EMER BUS
BAT BUSS
DC ESS BUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many stages does the low pressure turbine have?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many stages does the compressor rotor have?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How many stages does the high-pressure turbine have?
2
26
Where is the ITT measured?
Between high-pressure and low pressure turbine
27
Above which RPM does the FADEC alternator supply the FADEC?
50% N2
28
What drop in N1 triggers the one engine only fuel schedule on the other engine?
15%
29
What’s the N1 synchronization difference?
1,5%
30
What’s the N2 synchronization difference?
7,5%
31
What’s that maximum flex below APR thrust?
22%
32
What’s the APR thrust time limit?
5 min
33
At what pressure do you get a L/R fuel filter msg?
16-19 psi
34
At what pressure does the fuel filter bypass open?
22-27 psi
35
When does the engine overspeed protect protection kick in?
107% N2
36
When do you get an oil level low msg?
<57% with engines running < 80% with engines shutdown
37
Oil temperature green up to
155 degrees, rot ab 164
38
By which BUS is ignition A powered?
AC ESS BUS
39
By which BUS is ignition B powered?
DC BATT BUS (via static inverter)
40
When do we use continuous ignition?
Contaminated runway Moderate/heavy rain or turbulence Thunderstorms in the vicinity
41
Is it allowed to flex with anti-ice on?
No
42
What are the idle parameters of the engine?
N1 25 % N2 60 % Oil pressure 25 - 95 psi
43
What’s the engine shut down minimum cooling time?
2 min
44
Where do you have a hot and hung start protection?
Only on ground not in Flight
45
Can a deployed reverser in flight be restored?
No, it will remain open
46
How many locks are unlocked if REV unlocked?
2 out of 3 locks are unlocked, but the reverser is still stowed
47
What does this mean? APR CMD SET
It means that APR command is set It happens when the cross talk from engine to engine is interrupted (for example, if total N1 sensor failure)
48
What does this mean? L THROTTLE
Both data lines on one side failed, No TLA info, FADEC keeps last valid thrust rating
49
Is the ITT controlled by FADEC?
No
50
ACSC
Air-conditioning system controller
51
AILC
And ice and leak detection controller
52
Is the APU bleed used for anti ice?
No only for ECS
53
When is APU bleed air used if available?
During takeoff landing and on ground
54
When does bleed transfer take place?
When gear up and thrust levers out of TOGA (If no anti ice) Or When gear down or flaps > 20
55
The PRSOV limits the pressure to..?
45 +- 3 psi
56
From which compressor stage is bleed, air taken?
6th and 10th
57
What does this mean? L ENG BLEED
Eg. Excessive pressure or temperature
58
What does this mean? L BLEED DUCT
Overheat Detection leak, if the warning persists after 30 seconds, the offside bleed valve closes also and the aircraft is unpressurized
59
RARV
Ram air regulating valve
60
How much pack Air goes to the cockpit and to the cabin?
15% cockpit, 85% cabin
61
What percentage of total air can be a recirculated?
34%
62
Minimum speed for ram air on?
210 kt
63
In which pack does the ram Air go?
The right pack
64
Max cabin pressure?
8,6, -0,5 psi
65
Cabin ALT, caution, if
> 8500 ft
66
Cabin ALT warning, if
> 10000 ft
67
What does this mean? L PACK TEMP
Temperature not between 5 and 85
68
Hydraulic quantity during preflight should be between?
45% to 85%
69
When does the hydraulic fluid temperature turn Amber?
> 95 degrees
70
When do the ACMPs operate in AUTO position?
When the flaps are out of 0, and any generator is online
71
When do the ACMPs 1B, 2B, 3B turn off?
When the flaps are at 0 after takeoff
72
How’s the hydraulic system three cooled?
By Fuel
73
In which control circuit is the autopilot for the aileron installed?
The right one
74
In which control system is the autopilot for the elevator installed?
The left one
75
In which control circuit is the stickpusher installed?
The right one
76
When do the ground spoilers deploy?
1. RA < 10 ft 2. Left or right WOW 3. Left or right wheel speed > 16 kt (2 von 3 must be fulfilled)
77
When do the MFS deploy?
1. RA < 10 ft 2. Left and right WOW 3. Left and right wheel speed > 16 kt (2 von 3 must be fulfilled)
78
Was zeigt der Beginn des roten Bandes?
1.06 Vs in Final config
79
The outboard brakes are controlled by which hydraulic system?
2
80
The inboard brakes are controlled by which hydraulic system?
3
81
Normal gear extension is powered by which hydraulic system?
3
82
The parking brake is controlled by which hydraulics system?
3
83
Free fall off the main landing gear is assisted by which hydraulic system?
2
84
When is the brake temperature monitoring system green, white or red?
Green 0-6 White 7-14 Red 15-20
85
How many discharge bottles are there for both engines?
2
86
When do the Fuel transfer shut off valves open?
When the wing quantity is < 93%