CBT Flashcards

1
Q

Which stage of bleed air is the normal supply to the pneumatic system?

A

Intermediate Pressure stage (IP)

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2
Q

The ground compressed air and the APU air are applied to which side of the pneumatic system?

A

Left

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3
Q

With the X BLEED in AUTO, and APU bleed valve open, the Engine Bleed Valves will be ___?

A

Closed

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4
Q

The Engine Bleed Valves are controlled by ___?

A

The associated BMC

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5
Q

With the X BLEED in AUTO, APU bleed valve open, the X BLEED valve will be ___?

A

Open

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6
Q

What is the maximum steering angle provided by the steering hand wheel?

A

75 degrees

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7
Q

For how long can wing-anti ice be operated on the ground?

A

30 seconds

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8
Q

Which fuel tank normally supplies the APU?

A

Left

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9
Q

What control the aileron and elevator response?

A

ELACs

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10
Q

How many slat segments are located on the leading edge of the wing?

A

Five

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11
Q

Is the tail cone area pressurized?

A

no

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12
Q

What is the wingspan?

A

34.1m

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13
Q

Which Display Unit shows the E/WD?

A

Upper ECAM

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14
Q

What is the normal configuration for switches and lights on the flightdeck of the A320?

A

Lights out

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15
Q

The fuel quantity display (FOB) is located on the ___?

A

ECAM E/WD

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16
Q

What color illuminates in a switch to inform that a system is available?

A

Green

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17
Q

Where is the EFIS Control Panels?

A

Glareshield

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18
Q

Potable Water pressure is provided by __?

A

Bleed air and an electric motor pump

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19
Q

Waste tank negative pressure is provided by cabin differential air pressure when aircraft is above ___?

A

16 000 ft

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20
Q

Which of the External Lights automatically turns off when gear is retracted? (regardless of switch position)

A

TAXI, TO and RWY TURN OFF

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21
Q

If the strobe lights are in AUTO, when will they operate?

A

When the main gear struts are extended

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22
Q

When is the LDG LT memo displayed?

A

When at least one landing light is extended

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23
Q

Which electrical bus provides the power to charge the internal batteries for the emergency light system?

A

DC SHED ESS BUS

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24
Q

When activated, how long does the emergency lights last?

A

10 minutes

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25
Q

When on battery power, which dome light can be turned on?

A

Righthand

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26
Q

Where is the control switch for the standby compass light?

A

Overhead panel

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27
Q

If a cabin door is armed, and opened from the outside, what happens?

A

Slide will not deploy, and emergency mode will not operate

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28
Q

Pilot inputs to the MCDU are considered ____?

A

Managed inputs

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29
Q

Pilots inputs to the FCU is considered ____?

A

Selected inputs

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30
Q

What device is responsible for autotuning of RADNAV?

A

FMGS

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31
Q

With AP1 and 2 on for a dual channel approach, which FMGS is the master?

A

FMGC 1

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32
Q

Which FMGC provides signals to the autopilots?

A

Both

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33
Q

Cat 3 dual is ___?

A

a fail operational system

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34
Q

After an instinctive disconnect, the alerts _______.

A

Will automatically cancel

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35
Q

What is engaged when the V/S - FPA knob is pressed (pushed in)?

A

Level off

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36
Q

What is engaged when the altitude selector knob is pressed?

A

Managed vertical mode

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37
Q

For how long is a white box present around a newly activated FMA mode?

A

10 seconds

38
Q

In which FMA row will special FMA messages appear?

39
Q

Is A/THR used for takeoff?

40
Q

Which DMC normally provides images to the System Display (SD)?

41
Q

If the mode or range data fail on the ND, what is the default mode and range?

A

ROSE NAV mode, 80NM range

42
Q

The airspeed trend arrow shows the predicted speed in how much time?

A

10 seconds

43
Q

How much vertical speed is needed for it to show in digital format on the vertical speed display?

A

min 200ft/min

44
Q

How many display modes are available on the ND?

A

5 (PLAN, ARC, NAV, VOR, LS)

45
Q

What is the radar tilt based upon?

A

The horizon

46
Q

What is the nominal delay time for APU shutdown, with APU BLEED in use?

A

60-120 seconds

47
Q

What happens if one lane of the air conditioning system controller fails?

A

the remaining lane takes over and operation remains normal

48
Q

What is the normal configuration of the avionics ventilation system on a warm day?

A

Open curcuit

49
Q

What is the normal configuration of the avionics ventilation during flight?

A

Closed curcuit

50
Q

What happens to hot air to the cargo compartment when the cargo door is opened?

A

The hot air valve automatically closes, shutting off heat to the cargo compartment

51
Q

How many CPC (Cabin Pressure Controllers) are there?

52
Q

How many onboard sources of AC power is available?

A

5 (ENG1 GEN, ENG2 GEN, APU GEN, EMER GEN, Static Inverter)

53
Q

If the ND mode is in ILS, what ILS data is displayed?

A

Data from opposite ILS radio

54
Q

Within what ranges is the Predictive Windshear system giving alerts? Ranges for on ground and in flight respectively.

A

3NM (ground), 1.5NM (flight)

55
Q

From what heights is the PRED W/S advisories available?

A

1500-50ft AGL

56
Q

When are all TA aural alerts inhibited?

A

600ft AGL and below when climbing
400ft AGL and below when descending

57
Q

Below what height is “Increase Descent” RAs inhibited?

A

1450ft AGL

58
Q

With the TCAS switch in ABV, within what altitude ranges is traffic displayed?

A

9900 above, 2700 below

59
Q

What is the primary purpose of GPWS Mode 4 alerts?

A

To provide alert to protect against CFIT

60
Q

What is the approximate time before impact for a look ahead terrain caution?

A

40-60 seconds

61
Q

Where does the GPWS receive data from?

A

RA1, ADIRS1, ILS1, FMGC1, LGCIU1

62
Q

What hydraulic system provides normal braking?

63
Q

What has to be electrically powered for the landing gear indicator panel lights to be operational?

64
Q

What does LGCIU stand for?

A

Landing Gear Control Interface Unit

65
Q

How many brake applications are available when operating on accumulator pressure only?

66
Q

When does a wheel brake temperature arc appear amber?

A

When temperature exceeds 300 degrees

67
Q

What hydraulic system provide pressure to the Nosewheel Steering?

68
Q

What is the maximum steering angle that can be commanded by rudder pedals?

A

6 degrees either direction

69
Q

Where is fuel that flows through the IDG cooler returned to?

A

Outer tank of respective wing

70
Q

What computers provide backup for elevators and ailerons?

71
Q

Which spoiler panels deploys as speed brakes?

A

2, 3 and 4

72
Q

How many slat and flap surfaces are on each wing?

A

5 slat, 2 flap

73
Q

At what bank angle will the FDs disappear?

A

45 degrees

74
Q

When does the aircraft switch from ground mode to flight mode?

A

RA above 50ft, AC in flight, pitch above 8 degrees

75
Q

What modes are available when operating with alternate law with reduced protection?

A

Flight, flare, ground

76
Q

How many crew masks are there on the flight deck?

77
Q

At what cabin altitude does the cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?

78
Q

How are the reverser doors operated?

A

Hydraulically

79
Q

At what N2-percentage will ignition come on during an automatic start?

80
Q

When will ignition automatically shut off during an engine start? (regardless of auto or manual start)

A

When N2 reaches 50%

81
Q

How many igniters will activate during manual engine start?

82
Q

When does the green command arcs appear on the E/WD to display the difference from the current thrust and commanded thrust?

A

Only when A/THR is active

83
Q

When the Mode Selector is moved to IGN/START, what happens?

A

The FADEC is powered, the ECAM engine page displays, and the pack valves close

84
Q

If the thrust levers are positioned between detents, what is the thrust limit computed to?

A

The next higher detent

85
Q

After the agent has been discharged to a cargo compartment, how long will it be until the DISCH light comes on?

A

About 60 seconds

86
Q

What parts of the wing can be heated by the wing anti ice?

A

the three most outboard slats

87
Q

With loss of electrical power, in what position does the wing anti ice valve fail?

88
Q

With loss of electrical power, in what position does the engine anti ice valve fail?

89
Q

At what pressure will the bleed air valve automatically close due to downstream pressure?

90
Q

What will appear on the DOOR/OXY ECAM page if the regulated oxygen pressure drops below 50 PSI?

A

Amber REGUL LO PR indication

91
Q

At what cabin alt will the cockpit oxygen system provide 100% oxygen, regardless of selected operating mode?