Cattle Flashcards

1
Q

A client with a 110-cow dairy herd has had five lactating cows of mixed ages with diarrhoea over the past seven days.

a) List the differential diagnoses for diarrhoea in adult cattle. (10 marks)
b) Describe how you would investigate this problem and arrive at a diagnosis. (15 marks)
c) What advice would you give until a diagnosis is reached? (5 marks)

A
  • salmonella (typhimurium, dublin)
  • rotavirus
  • coronavirus
  • e coli
  • cryptosporidium
  • campylobacter
  • ruminal acidosis
  • diet change
  • johnes
  • braken toxicity
  • lead posioning
  • cooperia, ostertagia, other parasites
  • history- length of time, cows affected, recent diet changes,
  • Clinical examination- BCS, rumen sounds, pyrexia?
  • faecal cultures, ELISAs, FEC,
  • rumen sampling, pH,
  • faecal scoring

-treat as salmonella until proven otherwise- so antibiosis, quarantine, consider reporting, hygiene methods as public health risk!

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2
Q

A client with a 110-cow dairy herd has had five lactating cows of mixed ages with diarrhoea over the past seven days.

a) List the differential diagnoses for diarrhoea in adult cattle. (10 marks)
b) Describe how you would investigate this problem and arrive at a diagnosis. (15 marks)
c) What advice would you give until a diagnosis is reached? (5 marks)

A

Differentials for diarrhoea in adult cattle:
Infectious - salmonella, bvd, coccidiosis, E. Coli, fascioloiasis, winter dysentery, MCF, babesia divergens, parasitic gastroenteritis especially in the first grazing season, rotavirus, Johne’s.
Nutritional - SARA, lush food, diet change, excessive dietary protein, poor quality roughage, potato poisoning, molybdenosis/copper deficiency.
Toxic - salt poisoning, copper poisoning, lead, nitrite, arsenic, mercury, mycotoxicosis, alimentary tract carcinoma/bracken poisoning.
Other - endotoxaemia, lda, peritonitis, anmyloidosis, fat necrosis.
Investigation: always suspect salmonella until proven otherwise.
History - age of the animals, Johne’s older than three, worming history for PGE and coccidiosis, diet history, previous problems, vaccination protocol, calving difficulties?
Clinical examination - examine all animals in the herd from afar to begin with, assess comfort levels, food access, bullying signs, water availability, cleanliness and general hygiene, ruminating.
Examine animals with diarrhoea - general clinical exam, rumination sounds, rumen fill, faecal consistency, cleanliness, demeanour, mammary development, any mastitis, plank test, dentition, any pings on percussion - check general selection of other cows to examine as well including rumen fill, bcs, general health and cleanliness, incident may be tip of the iceberg.
Faecal samples - include general faecal scoring of affected animals and counterparts in the herd, want 3/5 generally, diarrhoea lover than this, take samples of faeces from afflicted animals and maybe some not obviously affected. Send away for PCR, Elisa for salmonella, fwec for parasites, any blood etc.
Metabolic profiles for affected animals and then some normals, include betahydroxybutyrate, proportionate, nefa, electrolytes for anion gap, urea and creatinine.
Viral detection in blood for BVD, serology for Johne’s,
Rumen sampling, get a direct pH, level of organisms.
Feed analysis, is it enough?
Milk tank antibodies to any of the above diseases?
Post Mortem if any have died.
Advice - separate, give fluids if not drinking, antibiotics if systemically unwell, isolate all new cases, milk at end of the line and clean thoroughly after use, good cleaning and disinfecting, keep feeding, clean clothes and wellies after in contact, NSAIDS for pain relief, monitor for other cases.

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3
Q

At a routine fertility visit, you are presented with a cow which has not been seen in oestrus within 70 days after calving. Describe your procedure for examining of the reproductive tract of this cow (4 marks). List the possible causes that could be diagnosed from this examination with a brief description of your findings? (6 marks)

A
  • brief clinical exam, BCS, udder
  • vaginal exam first- clean, lubricant, clean gloves, assess wall, cervix and any discharge
  • rectal examination- manually palpate uterus, horns, cervix, ovaries looking for tone, abnormalities, size and activity
  • scan using rectal U/S
  • cystic ovaries
    • folicular/luteal- either large cyst (>25mm and thin wall or
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4
Q

You are called out to a farm which has a problem of acute respiratory disease in 3 month old housed calves. Describe the approach you would take to investigate this problem. (10 marks)

A
  • history- vaccines used? previous diagnoses? length of time? age of calves affected? mixed age groups?
  • check housing
    • draughts, wet bedding, overcrowding
  • wisconsin scoring system, or similar
  • examine at least a mixed sample of the calves doing full clinical examinations. TPR, thoracic auscultation, possibly thoracic u/s (used in experimental protocols), in america look for ear droop.
  • can take swabs for culture or TW/BAL for virus isolation and bacterial culture to specify future vaccination and antibiosis use.
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5
Q

You decide to carry out an urethrostomy in a six-month-old steer with suspected urolithiasis near the sigmoid flexure. Write short notes on your surgical approach, including preparation, anaesthesia, and aftercare. (10 marks)

A
  • Clip and clean the perineal area using chlorhexidine or povidine iodine followed by spirit or chloroprep.
  • Restain steer, consider sedation. Can be done concious under a caudal epidural (clip and scrub over L6/s1, where tail most movement, place spinal needle on midline aiming 45 degrees cranially check in using hanging drop or loss of resistance technique.)
  • or under GA (increased risk and difficulty)
  • cut down perineal midline usig scalpel through skin and musculature to find urethra. Ligate ureathra using encircling ligature cut above ligature. Create spatulate opening of urethra and suture to skin while closing to create new opening.
  • ensure cleanliness post surgery, provide antibiosis and pain relief. monitor for obstruction and wound infection/breakdown.
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6
Q

What treatment options are there for a 2-month old calf with a midshaft tibial fracture (5 marks)? For one of your treatment suggestions, state the advantages and disadvantages compared to other options (5 marks).

A
  • euthanasia (if open or lack of nursing care available, cost!)
  • conservative place in small area (especially of partial/stress/non displaced)
  • external coaptation
    • robert jones bandage with or without splint
    • fibroglass cast
  • internal fixation using plates/pins etc (depends on size, facilities and willingness to spend money)
  • casting limb is relatively cheap, has a good prognosis assuming the fracture is well reduced. Higher risk of rub wounds than bandaging but more support and needs changing less often. Shouldn’t slip.
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7
Q
  1. Describe the method for open surgical castration in an 10-week-old dairy bull calf - do not include restraint or the anaesthetic technique (8 marks). List two of the more commonly occurring postoperative complications (2 marks).
A
  • can use either burdizzos or twist and pull
  • incise bluntly across the base of the scrotum, or can just chop the end off using 10 blade scalpel.
  • exteriorise testicle
  • incise through the tunica albuginea and expose testes, push tunic up
  • either clamp using burdizzo nut to nut around the vessels and vas deferens, keep on for minimum 1 minute
  • or grasp testicle firmly and twist in one direction while maintaining a ventral traction until it comes off in your hand.
  • repeat on the other testicle
  • spray incision with antibiotic spray liberally
  • Haemorrhage
  • infection
  • evisceration
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8
Q

Describe five methods of pregnancy diagnosis in cattle (5 marks) and apart from cost, give one advantage and one disadvantage of each method (5 marks).

A
  • manual rectal palpation
    - immediate diagnosis, relys on accuracy of vet but can reach 95%, usually from 35 days minimum, later is more accurate but can delay treatment of non pregnants
  • u/s rectal scan
    • can be done earlier than manual (28d) but will experience early embryonic loss, rapid treatment but relys on operator experience
  • non return to oestrus
    • very unreliable, 7 of pregnant cows will show signs and even if oestrus detection good (and its usually poor), not all cattle not showing signs will be pregnant. Can delay correct identification of cattle needing treatment for anoestrus and early failure of pregnancy.
  • milk progesterone
    • secreted by functional CL, must be done 24 days after service to ensure not just normal, non pregnant CL, doesnt require a vet, cow side tests availiable. Lots of false positives
  • early conception factor/bovine pregnancy hormone
    • can be taken as soon as 48 hours post conception, lots of early embryolic mortality, so still unreliable. Requires a blood sample so most invasive.
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9
Q

Describe briefly how you would diagnose, (4 marks) treat (3 marks) and manage (3 marks) a case of per-acute coliform mastitis in a dairy cow.

A

History
Clinical examination
CMT

Fluids if required (oral electrolytes or IV if needed)
IV antibiosis, consider fluroquinolones for effectoveness against e coli
NSAIDs- flunixin/metacam for endotoxaemic affects
regular stripping of the teat, including oxytocin ?welfare

Needs nursing care while recumbent, turning, food, propylene glycol, check electrolytes. Environmental so disinfect, clean area, check milking procedures

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10
Q

How can you measure the effectiveness of passive transfer of maternal immunity to calves? What actions would you take if you discovered that failure of passive transfer had occurred? (10)

A

TP
Zn Turbidity test
Cow side ELISA
consider plasma transfusion, hyperimmune antisera, consider preventative measures, if early can tube colostrum

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11
Q

Describe briefly how you would diagnose, (4 marks) treat (3 marks) and manage (3 marks) a case of per-acute coliform mastitis in a dairy cow.

A

Diagnose - history, has it just called recently; clinical exam, systemic parameters, endotoxic shock, sick and dull and recumbency, udder shows swelling, heat, and pain, milk often looks watery and discoloured though often not with clots. Grade the milk and udder changes, grade one is secretion change only, grade two is secretion and udder change, grade three includes systemic health. Unlikely to be needed but can do a CMT, electrical conductivity, bactoscan, scc.
Treatment - good nursing, quarter stripping, NSAIDS, fluid therapy, antibiotics for both gram positive and negative, excenel, cefquinome good choice.
Management - good cleanliness at calving, make sure cow is systemically well, early call out to a vet as early treatment better, clean environment, disinfect in between calvings, set up a mastitis control plan either 5 or 10 point, have treatment protocol in place. Individual cow, good nursing, clean isolation area, strip quarter regularly, offer food and water, monitor closely.

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12
Q
  1. Describe the method for open surgical castration in an 10-week-old dairy bull calf - do not include restraint or the anaesthetic technique (8 marks). List two of the more commonly occurring postoperative complications (2 marks).
A
  • can use either burdizzos or twist and pull
  • incise bluntly across the
  • Haemorrhage
  • infection
  • evisceration
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13
Q

At a routine fertility visit, you are presented with a cow which has not been seen in oestrus within 70 days after calving. Describe your procedure for examining of the reproductive tract of this cow (4 marks). List the possible causes that could be diagnosed from this examination with a brief description of your findings? (6 marks)

A
  • brief clinical exam, BCS, udder
  • vaginal exam first- clean, lubricant, clean gloves, assess wall, cervix and any discharge
  • rectal examination- palpate uterus, horns, cervix, ovaries looking for tone, abnormalities, size and activity
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14
Q
List four (4) causes of lameness or abnormal gait in cattle that are NOT related to a problem in the foot (4 marks).
For each cause listed, state two distinctive presenting signs that would make you consider that condition (6 marks).
A

Dislocation of the hip

  • upwards displacement of the femoral head
  • muscular atrophy of gluteals esp one sided

Fractured femur/pelvis

  • crepitus on palpation/auscultation
  • pain swelling bruising and instability

Joint infection possible osteomyelitis

  • penetrating wound into joint, possible foreign material
  • swelling of joint, cellulitis, heat

Nerve paralysis, esp peroneal

  • spastic paralysis of one limb
  • muscular atrophy
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15
Q

At a routine fertility visit, you are presented with a cow which has not been seen in oestrus within 70 days after calving. Describe your procedure for examining of the reproductive tract of this cow (4 marks). List the possible causes that could be diagnosed from this examination with a brief description of your findings? (6 marks)

A

History of animal and calving and post calving period.
Appraisal, unlikely to do a full clinical exam for a routine check but can assess BCS, rumen fill, demeanour, full exam if worried.
Reproductive exam, first do a vaginal, assess for endometriosis or damage to vagina, then rectal, manually palpate uterus and ovaries or use a rectal ultrasound machine and observe the ovaries and uterus.
Causes: endometritis, can grade 1-3 depending on amount of pus in the mucus.
Bulling string, currently in oestrus, follicle present on ultrasound, bulling string from vagina.
Cystic ovary - luteal cyst with a thick wall and less an 25mm, follicular cyst has no wall and is greater than 25mm.
Post oestrus bleed - missed the ovulation.

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16
Q

You are called out to a farm which has a problem of acute respiratory disease in 3 month old housed calves. Describe the approach you would take to investigate this problem. (10 marks)

A

Approach: combination of stress factors and pathogen load.
History - where does he source his calves from, has he had any new additions, does he produce them himself and if he did did he ensure they all got enough colostrum. What has the weather been like, has he done any castration or dehorning on them recently? How often does he observe them? Does he change the groups often?
Clinical exam - look at them and the environment from afar, is there joint air space with older animals, is the building the well ventilated, are there draughts at calf level, is it very dusty, what is the cleanliness like, does it have good drainage, is it overstocked or under stocked?
Individual calves, use the Winsconsin pneumonia score for the calves, assess temperature of calves, nasal discharge, ear position or eye discharge, cough present? For the group, move them around and observe for any coughing induced by the exercise.
After scoring you can have an idea if there is a pneumonia problem, treat any that have a significant score and investigate further if implicated.
To isolate a pneumonia pathogen, either nasal swabs, tracheal wash or BAL, better a fresh post mortem. Can also do a specific antibody for a rising titre to PI3, IBR or others 2-3 weeks apart.
Need to exclude other causes than enzootic pneumonia, such as dictyocaulus viviparus, calf diphtheria, vit e or se deficiency, salmonella, inhaled pneumonia, CHF, histophilus somnus.

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17
Q

You decide to carry out an urethrostomy in a six-month-old steer with suspected urolithiasis near the sigmoid flexure. Write short notes on your surgical approach, including preparation, anaesthesia, and aftercare. (10 marks)

A

Preparation - sedation with xylazine as it is licensed and produces good sedative effects in farm animals. Would then do a caudal epidural with lidocaine, not specifically licensed so may have to use procaine with adrenalin. The adrenaline has been suggested to cause problems but anecdotally people use it with no problems. Want the animal to be standing.
Clip and then use a razor to remove the hair from the perineal area. Scrub first with chlorhexidine, remove all gross signs of dirt and then the final scrub with ethanol.
10cm incision into the midline of the perineal area, bluntly dissect to expose the body of the penis, then dissect the penis at the ventral point of the skin incision. Secure the penile stump to the skin. Can open the urethra longitudinally and secure the urethral flaps to the skin. Suture the skin above and below to close.
Post surgery, ensure a high water intake, good fly control and protect the skin with Vaseline. Should not need antibiotics if done aseptic ally, however likely to get an infection if no antibiotics given on the farm, give TMPS or penicillin as first line prophylaxis. Give NSAIDS for three days for pain relief and analgesia. Monitor for signs of obstruction.

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18
Q

What treatment options are there for a 2-month old calf with a midshaft tibial fracture (5 marks)? For one of your treatment suggestions, state the advantages and disadvantages compared to other options (5 marks).

A

Euthanasia, welfare is paramount and if the farmer does not with to do anything euthanasia is a valid option.
External fixation with a cast or Robert jones bandage and external manipulation to get as straight a leg as possible.
Intra medullary pinning is a valid option followed by a good cast.
Plate and clamp rod internal fixation is the most likely to cause full healing.
Advantages of plate and clamp rod - greatest chance of successful healing and return to intended use with this method.
Disadvantages - osteomyelitis, implant loosening, sepsis, expense, need to remove after six months so growth is not impaired.

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19
Q
  1. Describe the method for open surgical castration in an 10-week-old dairy bull calf - do not include restraint or the anaesthetic technique (8 marks). List two of the more commonly occurring postoperative complications (2 marks).
A

Clean and prepare the scrotum with iodine or chlorhexidine. After time has been given for the local anaesthetic to work and you have washed your hands, push the testicle up towards the abdomen and cut off in one horizontal bold stroke with the scalpel blade the bottom of the scrotal sac, should be large enough that the testicles can be got through the resulting hole. A vertical incision is made over the first testicle, through the tunica vaginalis, the tissue is bluntly dissected away manually to expose the testicle and e gubernaculum is pulled away. The testicle is then pulled and twisted with constant traction until it comes loose and separates from the body. Or you can separate the vas deferens and vessels, crush and ligate both of them. Repeat for the other testicle. Check for haemorrhage and retrieve and ligate the stump if necessary.
Post op complications include haemorrhage and infection.

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20
Q

Describe five methods of pregnancy diagnosis in cattle (5 marks) and apart from cost, give one advantage and one disadvantage of each method (5 marks).

A

Manual palpation - quick and effective with experienced people, disadvantages include having to wait longer for a diagnosis, upto day 32.
Rectal ultrasound - can do it earlier at 28 days and do not have to manipulate the embryo. Disadvantage it requires more experience and skill to do and interpret the findings.
Progesterone assay - milk or plasma - easy to do, high number of false positives.
Early pregnancy associated protein - very early indicator of a conceptus, however early embryonic mortality can occur.
Non return to oestrus - low intensive system and less effort needed, however very unreliable and takes longer to detect rather than other means.

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21
Q

How can you measure the effectiveness of passive transfer of maternal immunity to calves? What actions would you take if you discovered that failure of passive transfer had occurred? (10)

A

TP, Zn Turbidity, RID, cow side ELISA
Clinical signs
Depends on time- if still open bottle feed colosrtrum! Give a plasma transfusion for the affected animals if worth it. If not extra care parenteral antibiotics? Very good hygiene. Monitor colostral giving techniques. Improve with new calves- 2l in 2 hours, 6l in 12, give if any doubt.

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22
Q

Briefly outline how the Prescribing Cascade should be implemented when providing analgesia for a goat given the absence of any products licensed for this purpose in this species (6 marks). What principles would you consider when determining the perioperative regimen for analgesia in a goat undergoing a surgical procedure (4 marks)?

A

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23
Q

How can you measure the effectiveness of passive transfer of maternal immunity to calves? What actions would you take if you discovered that failure of passive transfer had occurred? (10)

A

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24
Q

List the differential diagnoses you would consider for a 24-hour-old calf that is recumbent (7 marks). For one of your differentials, state the clinical signs you would expect to see (3 marks).

A

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25
Q

A heifer suckler cow, 5 months pregnant is found dead. The heifer was one of 80 cows at pasture and none of the others is showing any clinical signs. Outline your approach to this case. Your answer should include common differential diagnoses and how these could be identified (10 marks).

A

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26
Q

A number of calves in a group of 80 recently weaned housed calves have developed pneumonia. Explain why you may consider using antibiotics in your treatment regimen (2 marks). List 3 antibiotics which would be suitable for this situation (3 marks), and explain the factors which influence your choice of antibiotic (5 marks).

A

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27
Q

What are the indications for amputation of a bovine digit (2 marks)? Describe briefly the method of local anaesthesia (2 marks) and surgery (4 marks) that you would use to carry out amputation of a hind-limb lateral digit of a Friesian Holstein dairy cow. What would you advise the farmer about the management and future use of this animal (2 marks)?

A

Septic arthritis of distal joint, necrosis of insertion of deep flexor tendon to distal phalanx, Abscessation and necrosis of the digital cushion, osteitis and osteolysis of the pedal bone, pedal bone open fractures.
Intravenous regional analgesia - restrain the animal clip and disinfect over prominent superficial vein distal to tourniquet application, lateral digital vein, radial vein or median Palmer veins available on forelimb, lateral branch of lateral saphenous vein, lateral plantar vein or lateral plantar digital vein on hind limb. Not usually done but if exsanguinating the limb apply butterfly catheter first. Rubber tube tourniquet around the limb or wide flat rubber band on proximal metatarsal, proximal metacarpal region or above the hock or carpus. Needle into vein, aspirate blood to confirm it is in, inject local, usually around 20mls, lidocaine without adrenaline is better but not licensed. Withdraw needle and massage, should take five minutes for anaesthesia, ten for analgesia but work for 1-2hours if tourniquet left in place. Check for full analgesia first in deep tissues, caudal aspect of interdigital cleft, sometimes skin between digits not fully anaesthetised. Release tourniquet slowly over ten seconds, should not cause problems if ten minutes been given before release. Take around five minutes after tourniquet released for normal sensation, initial analgesic effects not uniform.
Procedure - scalpel cut starting at interdigital space and ending in the middle of the second phalanx, embryotomy wire to cut through bone, check for haemorrhage when tourniquet released, antibiotic spray, bandage, systemic antibiosis, clean dry place for two weeks, remove bandage after 96hours.
Don’t stress animal, good after care, cull when drying off, likely to have future problems.

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28
Q
  1. List the infectious causes of lesions on the teats of dairy cows (7 marks). Briefly describe how teat lesions may be involved in the epidemiology of mastitis in dairy cows (3 marks).
A
cow pox
parapox
BHV2,4
BPV 1,5,6
fusobacterium
FMD
VS

Teat lesions allow adherence of bacteria and weaken the barrier of the skin, may dilate teat. and remove plug.

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29
Q
  1. Compare and contrast the different methods available for correcting a left displaced abomasum in a cow. Give brief details of the technique for each method that you mention. (30 marks)
A

Rolling - cast the cow (rope at pressure points at level of scapula and the just in front of the pelvis), onto the right hand side first . Slowly rolled into dorsal with the abdomen being needed and following the abomasum with auscultation, hold in dorsal, then rest in left lateral recumbency, hold down for few minutes than let up.

Percutaneous technique - grymer-sterner toggle technique, pass a large curved needle through the body wall into the abomasum. Cast cow into right lateral, clip xiphisternum and umbilicus to right of midline, surgical disinfectant, local anaesthetic into cranial xiphisternum and caudal to xiphisternum. Roll into dorsal, knead left flank, auscultation of ping and have assistant kneel in front of the udder to exert pressure on the abdomen to keep abomasum close to body wall. Trochar through body wall and into abomasum, don’t let too much gas escape, toggle suture through trocar with help of push rod, confirm location as pH less than 4, repeat at cranial site, tie the two suture ends with a hand gap in between knot and body wall, roll into left lateral, hold in that position for five to ten mins, abts.

Paramedian laparotomy with ventral abomopexy or omentopexy under local - right lateral recumbency on soft surface, roll into dorsal, clip, sterilise to right of midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum, longitudinal incision through body wall large enough for hand, identify abomasum, pull to incision, suture abdominal wall to body wall just inside incision or incorporate the omentum close to abomasum.

Left flank laparotomy with abomasopexy or omentopexy under paravertebral or local infiltration anaesthesia. Clip ventral right area as per usual, clip left flank between 12th rib and tuber coxae, routine incision close to last rib, visualise abomasum, grab fold of greater omentum and pull into incision, two metre long absorbable suture into abomasum or omentum in a continuous mattress suture pattern, 4-5 bites. Pass down inner abdominal wall, and bring out at location of bottom sterilised area, repeat for cranial suture. Push abomasum down to midline whilst rotating it anticlockwise, assistant takes up slack in suture, position by yourself and once ok assistant ties it off like above. Close flank in routine manner.

Right flank laparotomy with right omentopexy or pyloropexy. Right flank incision, reposition abomasum into correct position, may need deflation with 19G needle and attached tubing, dorsal pressure and pull ventrally on greater omentum, attach pylorus to body wall just cranial to flank incision, or incorporate a fold of the omentum close to pylorus into first layer of flank closure. Identify right area with sows ear/omental flap. Close incision.

Bilateral laparotomy with right sided omentopexy or pyloropexy. Like above but one side to push it across.

Laparoscopy - minimally invasive, visual control, two toggle sutures into the abomasum through two keyhole incision into the left flank, retrieve sutures with cow now in dorsal recumbency through two ventral incisions.

Aftercare - antibiosis, analgesia, erythromycin (increased abomasum emptying and milk yield following surgery) and flunixin (rumen rate strongly increased at day one post surgery) dexamethasone (some support but then no NSAIDS). Oral propylene glycol and palatable food, insulin has shown evidence every 48 hours for refractory ketosis, may be hypocalcaemic, IV sodium chloride in dehydrated animals with hypochloraemia and hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis present. Concentrates reduced to 0.5-1kg bid and gradually increased to normal amount in seven days, transfaunation in refractory cases and ruminal stasis. Treat any concurrent disease.

Comparison of techniques - position, dorsal recumbency get regurg, more stressful, bad in pregnant and endotoxic. Easiest to see abomasum if go in the left, see ulcers and adhesions as well, decompression best in open left flank, good anchorage in most, best on right, high risk of contamination on paramedian and severe consequences if breakdown, can view other organs on right and bilateral, need two surgeons for bilateral, non vet assistants for casting, can’t do anything for adhesions on toggle, time and cost other factors.

Risk factors for LDA - abomasal wall pathology,
fibre need 2-5cm,
over feeding in early dry period (increased fat mobilisation in periparturient period, limit concentrate levels to 0.5-0.75 BW but important as increases ruminal papillae area and increases ability to absorb VFA, want forage:concs 60:40 ideally),
negative energy balance prepartum (increased serum NEFA),
high BCS - want between 2.75-3.25, increases higher than this.
poor feed face management (trough space, not ad libertum, staleness, sorting), prepartum diet more than 1.65Mcal net energy.
Concentrates postpartum gradual introduction, important first calving heifers.
Maize and silage large amounts.
Poor housing
Hypocalcaemia likely.
Fatty liver necrosis, ketosis increases risk of lda and lda increases risk of ketosis.
Metritis, RFM, time of year, bullying, lameness.

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30
Q
  1. You decide to carry out an eye enucleation in a 2-year-old beef heifer. In note form, describe the procedure (10 marks).
A

Restrain, sedate
Retrobulbar block and auriculopalprebral block 4 points around the eye.
Suture eyelids shut, incise around globe through skin and dissect back to opthalmic vessel and nerve. Attempt to ligate. Pack socket.Close

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31
Q
  1. You decide to carry out an eye enucleation in a 2-year-old beef heifer. In note form, describe the procedure (10 marks).
A

Restrain, sedate
Retrobulbar block, block 4 points around the eye.
Suture eyelids shut, incise around globe through skin and dissect back to opthalmic vessel and nerve. Attempt to ligate. Pack socket.Close

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32
Q
  1. Describe the five steps of the Dutch method of foot trimming in a hind foot (7 marks). What additional measure would you take when dealing with a sole ulcer in the lateral hind claw? (3 marks)
A

Routine Foot Trimming

1) Trim toe length to 7.5cm approx.
2) Match untrimmed claw to this.
3) Dish out

Corrective Trimming

4) Relieve weight off painful claw
5) Remove loose/under-run horn and hard ridges

  • Block medial claw
  • ensure adequate drainage of ulcer, clean and protect using antibiotic spray/equvalent
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33
Q
  1. Briefly describe the clinical signs (4 marks), diagnosis (2 marks) and control of infection (4 marks) caused by Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis in cattle herds.
A

Clinical signs - abortion and infertility, irregular cycles, multiple returns to service, early embryo death, some can cause abortion at 4-7 months, mucoflucculant vaginal discharge post serving possible.
Diagnosis - infertility = rule out other causes, isolate from vaginal mucus or preputial washes/scraping from the bull, serological tests available. Abortion = isolate from fetal lung, spleen, liver and fetal stomach contents.
Control - use AI not natural, maybe for six months only to give cows time to clear infection, replace bulls with Virgin bulls exclusively, avoid bull sharing and hire bulls, routine preputial washes.

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34
Q
  1. List the infectious causes of lesions on the teats of dairy cows (7 marks). Briefly describe how teat lesions may be involved in the epidemiology of mastitis in dairy cows (3 marks).
A

.

35
Q
  1. Give a brief description of the clinical signs associated with rotavirus infection in calves (4 marks). What measures would you recommend for a farm on which rotavirus had become a problem (6 marks)?
A

.

36
Q
  1. You decide to carry out an eye enucleation in a 2-year-old beef heifer. In note form, describe the procedure (10 marks).
A

.

37
Q
  1. Describe the five steps of the Dutch method of foot trimming in a hind foot (7 marks). What additional measure would you take when dealing with a sole ulcer in the lateral hind claw? (3 marks)
A

.

38
Q

Describe the ideal (including nutritional and therapeutic) management of dairy cows during the dry period from drying off through to the following calving. Explain how various management procedures would help to control production diseases such as mastitis, metabolic diseases, reproductive problems and lameness. 30

A

Mastitis: ideally 40-60 days. Dry off - stop concentrate feed two weeks before anticipated dry period. Check involution is occurring correctly. Do not allow NEB as increased infection risk. Week 0-3 involution, increased risk; steady state - resistance high especially to new infections; colostrogenesis results in increased risk to new infections, e.coli and strep uberis.
Intramammary antibiotic immediately after milking is most effective time for subclinical cases, can use increased dose, reduces incidence of mastitis at calving, gradual decline in protection over dry period. Do not work against gram environmentals, good for strep uberis and staph aureus. Artificial sealants help a lot of quarters that show delayed formation of a keratin plug in the dry period - internal or external (poor).
Keep clean dry cow yard, remove chances of environmental infection.

Metabolic Diseases: NEB and SARA. Aim for a body condition score of 2.5-3.0 at calving, fat cows have a depressed DMI and lose body condition in early lactation and resulting problems. Try to reduce in the far dry off period. High quality forages and 24 hour access important. Feed 2-3kg concentrates per day, acts to increase energy density of the ration as the DMI falls, and allows acclimatisation of the rumen microbes to a post calving diet. Promotes rumenal papillae growth and hence an increase in surface area so rapid VFA absorption occurs. Need a sufficient palatable long fibre to stimulate good rumination, enough protein (EDRP for rumenal function and DUP for milk). Otherwise get SARA and leads to NEB, ketosis, LDAs, fertility problems and lamesness issues. Happens when inadequate long fibre in the ration, excessive levels of concentrate, sudden diet changes, poor transition diet.
Hypocalcaemia: To reduce risk, can do one of two things:
1) Reduce calcium fed to cows in dry period, causes PTH to be active and bone resorption and maximal GI absorption to be occurring when calving. Can then utilise calcium given in post calving diet. Less than 30g per day.Then increase to over 100g per day at calving.
2) Metabolic alkalosis predisposes to milk fever as lack of bone resorption and reduced calcitriol production from the kidneys. Therefore lowering pH causes release of cations (Ca) and PTH resistance decreases. Dietary cation-anion difference (DCAD) = (Na+ and K+) - (Cl- and S–). Want to reduce to -100 to -200mEq/kg DM by increasing Cl or S. Magnesium chloride for example. Salts can be harmful, care. Often unpalatable. 2-3 weeks prior to calving. Make sure calcium is above 150g/day.
Ensure magnesium is above 40g/day as this can result in poor calcium absorption and result in hypocalcaemia.

Reproductive Problems - Hypocalcaemia can cause parturition problems, manage as above. Lack of eating, NEB, and SARA can result in poor oestrus following calving due to impaired GnRH release and decreased IGF-1 via increased GH which is resposible for follicular growth and ovarion follicle responsiveness. Important as want to be pregnant by 80 days post calving.

Lameness - SARA is one of the underlying conditions that results in laminitis. Get sole ulcers and white line disease, even toe rotation. Excessive concentrates, poor DMI and fibre intake, sudden diet changes results in acidosis and then laminitis. Also, good time to check the cows feet as they come into the dry cow yard and take corective measures. Improtant as need them to go to food.

39
Q

Write short notes on the diagnosis and treatment of endometritis in dairy cows. 12

A

Diagnosis: History - Any predisposing factors, when did the cow calve? Any fertility problems? Any problems with calving? Any recent systemic problems? What is the milk yield and has it dropped?
Clinical exam - Usually systemically well, can show some signs of septicaemia. Usually a white or whitishyellow mucopurulant vaginal discharge present.
Vaginal examination - Assess discharge/fluid. Grade 1 - Flecks of white/pus in the mucus. Grade 2 - 50/50 pus and mucus. Grade 3 - All pus.
Rectal examination - Uterus feels doughy. Rectal ultrasound can show cloudy fluid present in the uterus, may not be able to pick it up though.

Treatment: Intrauterine antibiotics - Tube through the cervix into the uterus. Only licensed product is metricure - cephapirin - 2nd generation cephalosporin.
Give PGF2a - If CL present with make the uterus come under control of oestrogens that promote blood flow and expose infection to immune system. Apparently may have effects even if CL isnt there.
Intrauterine flushing has no evidence of working and may actually cause more harm than good. Peopl have used chlorhexidine.
Leave it, most will resolve on their own and recheck in three weeks.

40
Q

Write short notes on the diagnosis and treatment of endometritis in dairy cows. 12

A

Diagnosis: History - Any predisposing factors, when did the cow calve? Any fertility problems? Any problems with calving? Any recent systemic problems? What is the milk yield and has it dropped?
Clinical exam - Usually systemically well, can show some signs of septicaemia. Usually a white or whitishyellow mucopurulant vaginal discharge present.
Vaginal examination - Assess discharge/fluid. Grade 1 - Flecks of white/pus in the mucus. Grade 2 - 50/50 pus and mucus. Grade 3 - All pus.
Rectal examination - Uterus feels doughy. Rectal ultrasound can show cloudy fluid present in the uterus, may not be able to pick it up though.

Treatment: Intrauterine antibiotics - Tube through the cervix into the uterus. Only licensed product is metricure - cephapirin - 2nd generation cephalosporin.
Give PGF2a - If CL present with make the uterus come under control of oestrogens that promote blood flow and expose infection to immune system. Apparently may have effects even if CL isnt there.
Intrauterine flushing has no evidence of working and may actually cause more harm than good. Peopl have used chlorhexidine.
Leave it, most will resolve on their own and recheck in three weeks.

41
Q

Describe how you would treat and manage a dairy cow with a solar ulcer in the outer claw of the left hind foot. 12

A

.

42
Q

List the common infectious conditions of the teat and udder skin of cattle (not including intramammary infections). For each one state the aetiological agent and the typical clinical signs. 12

A

.

43
Q

What species of coccidia most commonly cause disease in UK cattle? 3 What are the clinical signs? 3 Outline the treatment and control advice you would give to a client who is experiencing an ongoing problem of severe coccidiosis in housed suckler calves. 6

A

Eimeria zuernii, alabamensis, bovis.
Diarrhoea with blood, tenesmus, decreased production, neurological signs possible.
Treatment - Coccicidals - Sulphamethizine. Treat individual animals as necessary (IVFT, lectade etc).
Control - All in all out, clean and disinfect in between batches. Preventative drugs can be used such as monensin. Isolate affected animals. Keep age groups separate and don’t mix. Clean and disinfect in between each age group. Get cattle from appropriate source. Keep outside.

44
Q

List the common infectious conditions of the teat and udder skin of cattle (not including intramammary infections). For each one state the aetiological agent and the typical clinical signs. 12

A

Psudocowpox - Parapox virus - small red papules on teats.
Herpes mammillitis - BHV-2 - Painful swelling and reddening leading to oedematous plaques that form vesicles that then rupture.Thick dark red scab then forms.
Cowpox - Erythema and pustule
Papillomas - BPV-2 - Warts
FMD - FMDV arterivirus - Ulcerative lesions on teats
Vesicular stomatitis - Ulcerative lesions on teats
Ringworm - Trichophyton verrucosum Grey-white crust encrustations
BActerial - Staph aureus, Strep dysgalactiae, T pyogenes can all infect scrapes and lesions on the teats leading to a bacterial pyoderma and even abscesses.

45
Q

Describe how you would treat and manage a dairy cow with a solar ulcer in the outer claw of the left hind foot. 12

A

Treatment - Dutch 5 step claw trimming:
1) Cut back the inner claw to a length of 7.5 cm
from the coronet, where the horn starts. The cut
must be perpendicular to the sole. Trim back the sole to a thickness of 0.5 - 0.8 cm at the tip of the toe and leave the thickness of the bulb or heel as it was. Save the height of the heel.
2) Cut back the length of the outer claw to the same length as the inner claw and trim the sole to an equal height as the inner claw (if possible). In case of a buckled toe (laminitic claw) it is not always
possible to reach the same height in the toe. The heel or bulb is more important, because it bears most of the weight.
3) Modelling: Trim the claws into a slightly hollow shape, starting 2.5 to 3cm from the toe towards the heel. This will keep the space between the claws clean and airy (preventing inter-digital dermatitis / slurry heel)
4) Curative step: If there is a defects like sole ulcer and or wall ulcer this claw must be trimmed down further. This creates a height difference between the healthy and damaged claw and the weight bearing is partly transferred to the healthy claw. The damaged claw can heal more quickly. In case of too little height difference a block may be applied to the healthy claw to raise its height. In case of bruising of the sole, a height difference can be made, but don’t trim the sole too thin. In step two the excess weight is removed and this is normally enough relief for the claw. Step 4 is not needed during preventative trimming.
5) Remove loose horn and hard ridges at the heel area of the claws. Be careful in the inner claw: here only the fissures in the heel are removed, any further loose horn is not a problem. Removing it will affect the stability and the height of the claw. In the outer claw loose horn and ridges have to be removed in the last two-thirds of the sole surface. At last check the feet for digital dermatitis.

Manage: Good nutrition, straw yard, reduce standing for milking, minimise any standing time, increase lying behaviour, routine claw trimming, improve the walkways.

46
Q
  1. You are presented with dystocia in a first-calving heifer due to feto-maternal disproportion. Outline the factors that would influence your decision whether to carry out a caesarean section or a fetotomy. (10)
A

.

47
Q
  1. Briefly outline three local anaesthetic techniques suitable for a caesarean section in a cow, giving the advantages and disadvantages of each. (10)
A

.

48
Q
  1. What is meant by ‘Failure of passive transfer’ in neonates?
    Give a brief description of:
    a) how it may occur
    b) the consequences of it
    c) the measures that may be taken to prevent it.
    (10)
A

.

49
Q
  1. Write short notes describing how you would diagnose, treat and manage ketosis in a recently calved dairy cow. (10)
A

.

50
Q
  1. Describe the technique of correcting a left displaced abomasum in an otherwise healthy dairy cow by the bilateral flank approach (do not describe anaesthesia or closure of the incision). (!0)
A

.

51
Q
  1. For disbudding and dehorning cattle:
    a) Complete the following table for techniques available:
    b) List four ways of dealing with post operative haemorrhage after dehorning.
    (10)
A

.

52
Q
  1. What is the indication for performing a tibial neurectomy in a calf? Describe the procedure in an otherwise healthy calf.(10)
A

Indications: spastic paresis (contraction of gastrocnemius leading to severe over extension of hock). Operate in lateral recumbency under sedation and high epidural or GA. Identify the groove between the two heads of the biceps femoris (can be done in standing animal prior to procedure and marked). Incise skin and bluntly dissect between the two heads of biceps femoris down to the popliteal lymph node. Slightly deep to the lymph node is the bifurcation of the sciatic nerve into the peroneal and tibial nerves. The peroneal nerve proceeds superficially over the lateral aspect of the stifle and the tibial nerve dives down deeply into the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle. Electrical stimulation can be used to confirm the identities: tibial nerve – extends hock, flexes digits; peroneal nerve – flexes hock, extends digits. Remove a 2cm section of the tibial nerve. Close incision by subcuticular layer followed by skin. Box rest for 2 weeks post surgery. If condition is bilateral allow 8 week rest before correcting the other side. Complication – gastrocnemius rupture in heavy cattle following overstretching (rare). Good prognosis.

53
Q
  1. Forty cows of a 200-cow dairy herd, block-calving from September to December, have experienced clinical mastitis in at least one quarter. All cases occurred within three weeks of calving.
    a) Describe the steps that you would take to investigate the mastitis problem in this herd (15 marks).
    b) Considering the likely organisms that may be involved, describe the management activities you would recommend from drying off to early lactation (15 marks).
A

.

54
Q
  1. a) What is the definition of endometritis in cattle?
    b) What options do you have for treatment of endometritis in cattle?
    c) List the main control points for a herd with an endometritis problem.
    (!0)
A

.

55
Q
  1. List the particular problems that are encountered by large ruminants under general anaesthesia, with potential preventative or corrective measures for those problems.(10)
A

.

56
Q
  1. You are presented with respiratory signs in a group of 4-7 months-old beef calves.
    a) List the possible causes.
    b) What diagnostic tests could you use to determine the cause?
    c) Suggest a treatment regime for affected calves, assuming they suffer from pneumonia.
    (!0)
A

.

57
Q
  1. General anaesthesia in ruminants is avoided if at all possible. Give reasons for this in note form.(10)
A

Cost
limited drugs as food producing animals
rumen always full- long starvation but never empty. Regurgitation/aspiration risk
ruminal tympany risk
intra abdominal pressure- respiratory and cardiac compromise
continuous saliva production- slippery floors must be positioned to allow to drain (metabolic acidosis unlikely)
large, heavy animals- pressure and positioning
alpha 2 agonists in sheep- pulmoary hypertension and hypoxaemia
starvation may cause bradycardia

58
Q
  1. In note form, describe the aetiology, treatment and control of white line disease in dairy cows.(10)
A

.

59
Q
  1. a) Name the tissue layers that are incised when performing a para-costal laparotomy in a standing cow.
    b) Give three indications for performing an exploratory laparotomy on the right side.
    c) Give two possible complications post surgery.
    (!0)
A

.

60
Q
  1. What is the indication for performing a tibial neurectomy in a calf? Describe the procedure in an otherwise healthy calf.(10)
A

.

61
Q
  1. A dairy client with 200 cows has a high lameness rate.
    • List the common clinical causes of lameness in dairy cattle. (20%)
    • Describe how you would investigate this problem. (40%)
    • What control measures could you instigate - give an indication for what cause(s) of lameness each measure may be particularly useful for. (40%)
    (30)
A

.

62
Q
  1. Describe the uses of exogenous gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) in the control of bovine fertility. (10)
A

.

63
Q
  1. General anaesthesia in ruminants is avoided if at all possible. Give reasons for this in note form.(10)
A

.

64
Q
  1. A farmer is worried about an increase in the incidence of omphalophlebitis (navel ill), septic arthritis (joint ill) and septicaemia in young calves. What are the main predisposing factors for these conditions? What advice would you give to help reduce the problem?(10)
A

.

65
Q
  1. Give two (2) examples of causes of respiratory disease in adult cattle. For the two causes listed, briefly give their typical clinical presentation, how you could confirm your diagnosis, and treat the animal.(10)
A

.

66
Q
  1. List the treatment options and main control points of mastitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus in a dairy herd.(10)
A

.

67
Q
  1. Describe the technique of correcting a left displaced abomasum in an otherwise healthy dairy cow using the Grymer-Sterner Toggle method. Also give two disadvantages of using this technique over a surgical technique(10)
A

.

68
Q
  1. Describe the method for open surgical castration in an eight-month-old beef bull calf - do not include the anaesthetic technique (8 marks). List two of the more commonly occurring postoperative complications (2 marks).
A

.

69
Q
  1. Describe the potential outcomes of the accidental introduction of a calf, persistently infected with bovine virus diarrhoea virus (BVDV), on the reproductive performance and health of animals in a dairy herd breeding its own replacements (12 marks). How may the problem be diagnosed (12 marks), and suggest control measures to mitigate and eventually eradicate this problem (6 marks).
A

BVDV is a pestivirus with cytopathic and non cytopathic strains. A PI calf infected in utero during days 40-130 gestation with a ncp strain. This causes immunotolerance because the immune system is not yet functioning, and so the calf is antigen positive but antibody negative at birth. It is born showing no signs of disease, though it may show poor growth. This calf sheds disease faecally and in doing so infects other members of the herd.
In naïve animals we see two forms, one showing diarrhoea in adult cattle and a mild decrease in milk production. This is generally mild with little mortality. Type 2 is more cytopathic and can cause haemorrhagic diarrhoea with increased mortality. Infection of pregnant cows will cause a spectrum of signs depending on their stage of gestation- it can produce early embryotic abortion and resorption (or retention of the fetus and expulsion late on), mid gestation it causes more PI calves and late gestation animals can recover due to a competent immune system, or show congentiatl defects such s cerebellar hypoplasia and cataracts). PI calves show signs of mucosal disease at 6-24 months when the ncp strain mutates to a cp straineither through mutation or exposure to a different strain. This causes ulceration throughout the GI tract and these animals invariably die.
Diagnosis- Bulk milk tank PCR looking for antigen/antibody to assess herd health status. If positive the aim needs to be to find and eliminate PI calves. PI calves are antigen positive, antibody negative (as are recently exposed cattle). Can test as born using genetic test on ear sample taken at tagging. Could attempt serological testing, but often cattle who abort have serologically converted by the time of abortion, viral antigen followed by serology for antibody is possible with cohorts or individual animal). Rarely present in aborted fetal tissue.
Identify and eliminate PI calves. Maintain a closed herd to reduce Trojan cow. Bulk milk test. Investigate abortions. Vaccinate.

70
Q

Describe briefly the aetiology and pathogenesis of hypomagnesaemia in adult cattle (4 marks). Give details of how an affected suckler cow might be treated (4 marks), and what options you might suggest to the farmer for prevention of hypomagnesaemia in the rest of this herd (4 marks).

A

Hypomagnesmia/grass staggers. Cattle cant store much magnesium so need new supply every day, any cause of decrease in intake can cause clinical signs. Fast growing grass has reduced magnesium if turned out, inclement weather with turn out, increased requirement, inappetence, concurrent disease (especially hypocalcaemia), inadequate supplementation of home mixed ration.

Magnesium is a cofactor in many enzyme reactions including ATP, and affects CA, K and Na channels. It plays a critical role in neuromuscular transmission and so causes muscle hyperactivity leading to depression, tremors, hypersalivation, tetanic spasms, convusions.

Magnesium alone IV causes severe arrhythmias and death. Can give with calcium boroglucanate slow IV and then subcutaneous with an increased concentration. May need to sedate to control tetany and minimise stimulation.

Don’t turn out on days with inclement weather, wean, supplement ration. Can give boluses. Can add to water. Don’t use potassium containing fertilisers.

71
Q
  1. A farmer has a group of 100 cattle aged approximately 5 to 7 months old which are being reared for beef production. They are a mixture of heifers and castrated males of different breeds purchased from a number of different sources in the previous month. They are housed in a single large shed.

The farmer is concerned about their health, as there has been a gradual increase in coughing over the last 2 weeks and feed intakes have been significantly reduced. One of the heifers has died overnight.

a. How would you investigate this problem? (10 marks)
b. What are the likely causes (consider pathogen, host and environmental factors)? (10 marks)
c. What advice will you give to resolve this problem and minimise any welfare problems and commercial losses in this unit now and in the future? (10 marks)

A
History- vaccinations, previously identified pathogens, treatments
Management
Clinical exam from afar
Clinical exam of affected
Wisconsin score
thoracic auscultation
in US- see ear droop.
Can PM and look for lesions, culture/pcr/VI for candidates.
If alive use swabs/ BAL to get samples

Draughts, wet bedding, overcrowding, poor quality milk replacers, inadequate colostral intake, stress, stockmanship

IBR, PI3, RSV, M haemolytica,
(H somni), P multocida, P trehalosi, trouperella, Staphs, salmonella, c.pyogenes

tx- appropriate antibiosis- oxytet, forfenicol, ceftiofur, tilmycosin,
NSAIDs- decrease recovery time
bronchodilators if v sick- clenbuterol
expectorants/mucolytics- bromhexidine
TLC inc fluid
individual housing, hyperimmune antisera, vacc dams, can screen herd for IBR

72
Q
  1. A dairy farm has had a recent problem with deaths in neonatal calves. Briefly describe how would you investigate the problem (6 marks) and what advice would you give to help reduce health problems in young calves (6 marks)?
A
History
Management
Clin exam from afar
Clinical examination of sick individuals
Post mortem
IgG testing- Zn turbidity, total protein, RID, ELISA
Assess cows including metabolic profile if deemed necessary- mastitis, colastral quality. 
Check colostrum handling.

Monitor closely, particularly colostral intake. If any doubt supplement. Give 2L in first 2 hours, 6L in first 12. Suckling better than bottle better than tube but most important to get it in. Two feeds boosts absorption. Don’t foremilk, catch any running milk (IgG 1 actively concentrated). Test calves routinely for IgG using cow side ELISA, consider plasma transfusions where necessary.
Staffing- proven that farmers wife better
Housing- improve bedding, stocking density, cleanliness and ventilation
Removal from dam- ASAP if johnes etc, 12 hours to allow sucking
Good quality milk replacers
Check navel dipping technique/solution
Vaccinate dams if scours, respiratory (NOT for E coli sepsis)

73
Q
  1. What 3 methods are most commonly used for the castration of calves? (3 marks) What are the legal requirements for each method regarding the timing of the procedure (3 marks), who may perform the procedure (3 marks), and the provision of analgesia required for each method (3 marks)?
A

Rubber ring- less than 7 days, can be applied by anyone, no local needed, or systemic pain relief
Burdizzo- maximum age 12 weeks, but requires local and to be done by a vet after 8 weeks.
Surgical- torsion and traction up to 12 weeks, emasculators 3-9 months then ligatures over 9 months. Over 8 weeks requires local and a vet.

74
Q
  1. List the diseases of cattle that are notifiable in the United Kingdom under the Animal Health Act 1981 (9 marks). Indicate which of these are still endemic in England (3 marks).
A
Anthrax
Rabies
Aujeskys
Brucellosis
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
TB- endemic
BSE- endemic
Rinderpest
Warble fly
Bluetongue
FMD
enzootic bovine leukosis
75
Q

Describe the indications (2 marks) for and technique (4 marks) of intravenous regional analgesia in farm animals. What problems may result from its use (6 marks)?

A

Any surgical procedure of the distal limb (e.g digit amp), or potentially painful investigations of the distal limb. Clip and prepare area first. Apply tourniquet to proximal to joint above area required (carpus and tarsus). Torniquet use a wide rubber band (less painful than thinner) Butterly catherter into superficial vein, apply local, may need to remove corresponding volume of blood to fit in. (approx. 20mls procaine). Wait for local to take effect (5mins for anaesthesia, 10 for analgesia), test effect using needle onto caudal solar margin and interdigital skin. Perform procedure. Must wait minimum of 20 minutes form applying tourniquet to removal, maximum 90 minutes. Remove over 10 minutes to avoid rapid reperfusion of the local systemically and of the limb.

Too short- too much local delivered systemically- arrthymias
Too long- tissue hypoxia leading to necrosis
Reperfusion- if removed too quickly reperfusion injury causing increase ROS and damage.
Keep cow down until feeling returned or risk of limb damage by inappropriate weight bearing
Doesn’t work- inflamed tissue has increased acidity and local is less effective
Hypertension of the limb and blood vessel damage- adding in too much local can cause vessels to rupture
Tendon and nerve damage by trouniquet too tight

76
Q
  1. Briefly describe the DairyCo mobility scoring system that had been suggested for dairy cows. (10)
A

Monitor herd once a month on non slip floor. Individually watch each cow make 6-10 strides. Identities recorded of cows scored 2 or 3 and a tally of 0-1. Repeat examination if unsure

0- walks with even rhythm, long strides and even weight bearing, flat back
1-shortened stride but affected limb not identifiable
2- uneven weight bearing, limb identifiable, shortened strides with hunched back
3- as score 2 but unable to keep up with herd.

77
Q
  1. What are the main clinical signs of left displaced abomasum in dairy cows (4 marks)? List four methods of treatment available (4 marks) and describe an advantage and disadvantage for each method (4 marks).
A
Milk drop
Ketosis- depression, neurological signs
Diarrhoea
Left abdominal distension
Abomasal tympany (ping on ausculatation)
Anorexia

Rolling- cheap, ?easy, no surgery, risk of recurrence/ non fixation if adhesions
Roll and toggle- blind toggling increases risk of not accurate positioning or not acutally toggling, wont work if adhesions, cheaper and no large wound to manage.
Surgical- Right flank- usual method, accurate repositioning of abomansum, good visualisation of pexy, hard to reach abomasum
Bilateral- extra person required, easier to reach abomasum, good pexy as right flank. Two wounds.
Utrecht- good visulaisation of abomasum, extra assistant needed, avoid mammary vein, blind repositioning
Para sternal- need to get down (GA preferable), but easy and quick as abomasum should float to incision site. Wound dehiscence catastrophic.
Lapaoscopy- possible, technical demanding but minimal inicision and improved recovery

78
Q
  1. Discuss briefly the importance of leptospirosis to a dairy farmer (5 marks). How would you diagnose the condition (3 marks) and control the clinical consequences of infection in a dairy herd (4 marks)?
A

Leptospira hardjo, pomonoa, gripptphosa. Sporadic milk drop nad agalactica. ZOONOTIC. Abortions, still borths and weak calves, reduced fertility by increased returns (early embryonic deaths) and infertility. Abortion storms with Pomona and gryptiphysosa but spor=adic with hardjo. Most subclinical. May see interstitial nephritsis at slaughter.

Abortion- dam serology, pared serology of little value but high antibodies taken as proof. Specific antibodies in fetal fluids. Leptospires in fetal organs- culture or IF.
Herd- blood/bulk milk serology

Treat any infected with streptomycin. Vaccination from 6 months, yearly booster. Reduce rodents. Biosecruity, good hygiene, pasteurisation, isolation of infected, investigate all abortions.

79
Q
  1. A farmer has a group of 100 cattle aged approximately 5 to 7 months old which are being reared for beef production. They are a mixture of heifers and castrated males of different breeds purchased from a number of different sources in the previous month. They are housed in a single large shed.

The farmer is concerned about their health, as there has been a gradual increase in coughing over the last 2 weeks and feed intakes have been significantly reduced. One of the heifers has died overnight.

a. How would you investigate this problem? (10 marks)
b. What are the likely causes (consider pathogen, host and environmental factors)? (10 marks)
c. What advice will you give to resolve this problem and minimise any welfare problems and commercial losses in this unit now and in the future? (10 marks)

A

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80
Q
  1. Write short notes on the resuscitation of newborn calves following severe dystocia.
    (10)
A

.

81
Q
  1. List the diseases of cattle that are notifiable in the United Kingdom under the Animal Health Act 1981 (9 marks). Indicate which of these are still endemic in England (3 marks).
A

.

82
Q
  1. What clinical signs would suggest a diagnosis of left displaced abomasum (LDA) in a dairy cow? (7 marks) Describe one appropriate method of treatment for this condition (5 marks).
A

.

83
Q
  1. Briefly describe the DairyCo mobility scoring system that had been suggested for dairy cows. (10)
A

.