Case Management Flashcards

ACMA

1
Q

What does CoP stand for and what is it?

A

Conditions of Participation.
Clear requirements set by CMS for assessment and discharge planning.

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2
Q

Initial discharge assessment done on admission day. When should CM review patient and plan again?

A

Day 2
(the answer is NOT daily)

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3
Q

what are 3 functions of Utilization management?

A

1- risk management
2- eval of medical necessity
3- contributing to decreased denials

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4
Q

patient has been in observation status for 2 days and now ready for discharge to SNF. What is CM next action?

A

inform patient and family they may need to pay privately

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5
Q

Traditional Medicare: scenario- Patient has been hospitalized for one observation midnight, will discharge tomorrow. care needs are SNF placement. what is CM action?

A

Advise patient and family that Medical won’t cover SNF. Explore home discharge with home health /care giver support.

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6
Q

Which regulatory agency impacts case management functions?

A

Office of Inspector General

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7
Q

Readmission risk assessment may be built into the ongoing reassessment. There are several common tools for this assessment.
Name

A

1) Society for Hospital Medicine’s Risk Assessment: Project Boost Screening Tool, 8P
2) Boston University School of Medicine the Agency for Healthcare
Research and Quality (AHRQ) Project Red Toolkit (Re-Engineered Discharge).
3) Validated Risk Assessment Tool: the LACE Index scoring tool

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8
Q

What are all of these screening tools for?
Project Boost Screening Tool, 8P
Project Red Toolkit
LACE Index scoring tool

A

Readmission Risk Assessment tools

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9
Q

How long can observation be? according to medicare

A

Medicare allows observation status for up to 48 hours. Allows time for decision to either discharge or admit to inpatient.

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10
Q

There is a certification requirement at day 20 for long stay patients and cost outlier cases, and hospitals should have a process in place to ensure documentation of this certification is present. It must include: (5 things)

A

1) A signed inpatient admission order before discharge is required.
2) An adequate written record of the reason for either continued stay of the patient for medical reasons or special or unusual services for cost outlier cases.
3)The estimated period of time the patient will need to remain in the hospital or, for cost outlier cases, the period of time the special or unusual services will be required.
4) Any plans for post-acute hospital care.
5) If the patient is only in the hospital awaiting SNF placement, the physician progress notes must indicate that as the reason for the continued stay.

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11
Q

Important that hospital notify physician when patient approaches day_____.

A

day 20 - certification requirements for documentation

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12
Q

Level of care assignment is based on clinical condition and/or procedure. inpatient vs outpatient.
What are the 2 most used tools to help make this decision?

A

InterQual
Milliman Care Guidelines (MCG)

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13
Q

If there’s a disagreement between the criteria for level of care and the admitting providers decision, what happens next?

A

CMS CoP require hospitals to have a utilization management committee and a UM plan which outline process for secondary physician review.

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14
Q

What is Condition Code 44?

A

billing code used when it is determined that a traditional Medicare patient does not meet medical necessity for an inpatient admission. An order to change the patient status from Inpatient to Observation MUST occur PRIOR TO DISCHARGE.

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15
Q

what are 4 requirements that must be met to bill a Condition Code 44?

A

1-The change from inpatient to observation must be made prior to discharge.
2- A claim has not already been submitted.
3- The provider concurs with the UR committee’s decision.
4-Physician concurrence is documented in the medical record.

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16
Q

What if all 4 requirements are NOT met to bill a Condition Code 44?

A

the hospital may bill for Medicare Part B only
services.
Condition Code 44 situations apply only to patients with all Medicare

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17
Q

three broad objectives related to the case management planning process:

A

1)Collaborate with patient, family, clinical team and post-acute providers to determine goals and outcomes for patient.
2) Sequence steps and interventions to ensure timely completion of plan of care: Plan for the day.
Plan for the stay. Plan for the way to discharge.
3)Communicate plan of care to patient, clinical team and next-level providers.

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18
Q

Acronym offered by AHRQ to talk about Discharge planning

A

IDEAL

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19
Q

What is IDEAL and what does it stand for?

A

Discharge planning

I- Include patient and caregiver in goal setting for return home or next level of care.
D- Discuss Key areas for preventing problems after discharge ( meds, ADL changes, need for services at home.
E- Educate patient/ caregiver
A- Assess how all members of care team are explaining dx, tests, expectations, and next steps in plan of care. Consistency is critical.
L- Listen to patient/ caregiver goals for discharge, care, recovery.

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20
Q

Case Managers should be aware of the following quality measures and tools and their role in engaging and assisting patients in the decision-making process concerning care plan options: 2-

A

1- The Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation Act of 2014 (IMPACT Act)
2-CMS Five-Star Quality Rating System. This is a quality initiative that consists of a tool to help compare Skilled Nursing Facilities (nursing homes).

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21
Q

What is IMPACT?

A

Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation Act of 2014 (IMPACT Act) is a quality initiative requiring the reporting of standardized patient assessment data by post-acute providers
including Long-Term Care Hospitals (LTCHs), Skilled Nursing Facilities (SNFs), Home Health Agencies
(HHA), and Inpatient Rehabilitation Facilities (IRFs). The IMPACT Act supports the goals/priorities outlined
within these strategies, and overall helps to facilitate coordinated care, improved outcomes, and quality
comparisons for post-acute providers.
To support the goal of the IMPACT Act, CMS has launched Compare Sites for both IRF (IRF COMPARE) and LTCH facilities (LTACH COMPARE) to provide
public reporting of this quality data.
Case Managers should educate patients on the existence of these sites so they can compare data from various facilities in order to find an option that aligns with their preferences. The availability of this information facilitates informed decision-making related to transitions and allows patients and their families to be active participants in the planning process.

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22
Q

what is the CMS Five-Star Quality Rating System.

A

This is a quality initiative that consists of a tool to help compare Skilled Nursing Facilities (nursing homes). Case managers should educate patients on the availability of Nursing Home Compare as a tool that can be used to provide additional information on Health Inspections, Staffing, and Quality Measures in comparing facilities. Patients, families, and caregivers should be advised that this is a tool to supplement the decision-making process and should be used in conjunction with other sources of information, such as site visits.

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23
Q

Phrase that describes Planning and Intervention Sequence Steps and Intervene to Ensure Timely Completion of Plan of Care:

A

Plan for the day.
Plan for the stay.
Plan for the way (to discharge)

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24
Q

Plan for the day:

A

Planning for a patients day in the hospital begins with assessment to ensure the appropriate level of care. Initiating services at the right level of care is imperative to setting the patient on the correct path for evaluation, treatment and recovery.
The course of the hospital stay, in terms of resource use, patient experience and insurance payment, hinges on this initial determination being accurate. A mismatch between level of care and patient medical necessity and/or clinical condition disrupts planning in a number of ways, suchas: Delaying initiation of treatment, Adding unnecessary inpatient time waiting for consults or testing that
could be safely and appropriately performed in the outpatient setting, orManaging expectations that the
intensive care unit is appropriate for managing a patient who would be better cared for in a hospice or
palliative care setting.

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25
Q

Plan for the stay:

A

Anticipating and setting a target for the stay, or duration of
hospitalization, requires the case manager to understand the clinical condition, medical necessity and expected length of time it should take to complete the workup and provide the hospital phase of treatment.
This planning happens early in the admission, if not during preadmission. At this time, begin setting expectations for the patient and family, in terms of length of stay and expected day and time for
discharge, with the understanding that all target dates are anticipated and dependent upon patient
progress. Outlining these expectations is helpful for the patient, family and care team to provide a clear timeline to mark progress and an end point for hospitalization. Although each patients experience and plan of care should be individualized, most medical conditions and reasons for hospitalization fall within expected parameters for diagnosis, treatment and length of stay, and these expectations should be shared with patient and family at the earliest possible point. Patient conditions, however, may take unexpected
clinical turns, or may be highly complex due to trauma or underlying diseases. In these cases, the patient may not follow the generally expected path for hospitalization. The care team, as well as the patient and family, should review and revise the plan of care accordingly with frequent updates provided to the entire
care team. The level of care within the hospital, or the plan for testing or treatment, may need to be accelerated or altered, in order to address the change in condition in a timely manner.

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26
Q

Plan for the Way (of discharge):

A

The transition through and from the hospital includes the discharge plan and requires knowledge essential to development of effective planning, including the:
Full continuum of services beyond the hospital setting,
Eligibility criteria,
Likelihood that the patient’s insurance will
provide coverage, and
Patient’s level of engagement in helping to select the post-hospital care provider.
The post-hospital level of care requires an appropriate match between services and a patient’s clinical, functional and behavioral needs, as well as financial resources and insurance coverage. A patient’s clinical condition is the first factor driving the progression through the hospital and to the post-acute level of care.

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27
Q

What 4 questions can help a CM guide their efforts?
(according to NYU Langone Medical Center)

A

1- Why is the patient hospitalized?
2- why is the patient STILL hospitalized?
3- What has to happen for patient to safely leave hospital?
4- Where will patient be discharged to SAFELY?

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28
Q

There are four basic principles of healthcare ethics that should be practiced when
delivering healthcare services: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence and justice

A

autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence and justice

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29
Q

The term non-maleficence refers to

A

doing no harm and is yet another of the four basic
ethical principles.
Ensuring that they receive treatment with human dignity and respect is one incredibly
important way to protect them. Proper management of pain, respect for privacy and attending to spiritual
needs are examples that may fall within this domain

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30
Q

Beneficence

A

When weighing options, the case manager and interdisciplinary team
generally focus on the benefits, weighing risks versus benefits in the attempt to do what is best for the
patient.

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31
Q

Justice

A

Fairness- access to needed high quality services may be limited due to financial or other barriers. Learning how to navigate or advocate for patient is important role.

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32
Q

The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)

A

federally mandated law from 1990 that
requires hospitals and health systems participating in
Medicare/Medicaid programs to inform patients of their right to self-determination in healthcare decisions. The federal law requires that decisional patients be informed of their right to execute advance directives such as a living will or durable power of attorney for healthcare.
The law also specifies that the patient may not be discriminated against regardless of their
particular healthcare decision, including the decision to accept or reject treatment or care.”

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33
Q

The Uniform Health Care Decisions Act (HCDA)

A

enacted in 2000 to uniformly address, across all states, who could act on behalf of an individual who lacks legal capacity and a clearly executed advance directive/healthcare power of attorney.
For parents of minor children and legally appointed guardians, the courts clearly delineate the line of authority that can be relied upon by healthcare providers.
For patients that had not formally appointed a healthcare proxy, and who lack the ability or capacity to do so, this law provides for a uniform approach to determining who could step in and act on behalf of, and in the best interest of, the patient

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34
Q

The Uniform Health Care Decisions Act (HCDA)provides for a priority list of those who are eligible, such as first the spouse, second an adult child, third a parent, fourth a sibling, etc. Thus, according to the HCDA, the line of
authority follows specified sources for healthcare decision-making:

A

1-The individual patient with decision-making capacity.
2- The patient designated health care power of attorney.
3-A court-appointed guardian, or a surrogate/proxy decision-maker (based on the priority list).

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35
Q

Difference between capacity and competence

A

Competence is a legal term and a determination made by a judge in a court of law.

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36
Q

Patient decision-making capacity within the healthcare setting refers to a patient’s ability to
make independent decisions about his/her healthcare treatment.
More about this:

A

Capacity in this regard generally includes
the patients ability to:
-Understand the information being disclosed, including the risks, benefits and alternatives.
-Weigh the consequences and evaluate the impact of the decision on his or her life.
-State his or her choice and do so consistently over time.
Decision making capacity is situation specific. For
example, a patient may be able to make a decision about what type of medical treatment he/she wishes to have or understand the consequences of not accepting a particular treatment. This same patient, however, may not have the capacity to manage his or her financial affairs.

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37
Q

The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Law (EMTALA)

A

federal law passed in 1986 that applies to hospitals participating in Medicare and Medicaid programs.
Under this law, hospitals are required to provide emergency healthcare treatment to all individuals who present themselves to a hospital emergency department, regardless of their ability to pay or citizenship status. The care rendered must include an appropriate medical screening examination, and if an
emergency medical condition is identified, the patient must be treated and stabilized, or if safe and
appropriate or patient requests, the patient may be transferred.The transfer of unstable
individuals to another medical facility can only occur if a physician certifies that the medical benefits
outweigh the risks, or the patient requests the transfer in writing after being informed of the obligations under EMTALA and risks.

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38
Q

CoP-
What does CoP stand for?

A

Conditions of Participation

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39
Q

Describe CoP

A

To qualify for Medicare certification, health providers/systems must comply with a
minimum set of health and safety standards termed Conditions of Participation? (CoPs).
CoPs outline a broad range of standards including those for:
Utilization management.
Discharge and transition planning processes that apply to all patients.
A single standard of care/care planning process applicable to all patients.
Processes to address pain management.
Processes to ensure patient confidentiality.
Patient rights (which include rights to execute advance directives, informed consent, participate in plan of care and discharge plan or rights to choose post-acute care providers, such as HHC or SNF).

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40
Q

Important Message from Medicare (IMM) letter

A

CMS requires that all Medicare patients, upon admission (or within 2-days of admission)
to the hospital, receive an Important Message from Medicare (IMM) letter.
If hospital discharge occurs after the first 2-days, a second IMM is required to be given between 2-days of discharge, but not later than 4-hours prior to discharge.
This is to ensure that the patient is aware of the rights related to discharge appeal and is fully informed of the plan for discharge. If the patient, family, or even physician, do not agree with the plan and timing for discharge, they may follow the CMS process for discharge appeal.

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41
Q

Detailed Notice of Discharge

A

For patients or families who disagree with the plan and time for discharge and wish to appeal, a Detailed Notice of Discharge will be issued to the patient.
If the patient proceeds with filing an appeal with the hospitals regional CMS Quality Improvement Organization/Independent Peer Review
Organization (QIO/IPRO) and their appeal is overturned (i.e., the patient does not win his/her appeal), a Hospital Issued Notice of Non-Coverage (HINN) is issued. This essentially means that a patient no longer meets medical necessity for the continued hospital stay, and a safe plan for discharge has been identified.
All notices must be communicated both orally and in writing. Notices should also be documented in the
chart.

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42
Q

Hospital Issued Notice of Non-Coverage (HINN)

A

If the patient proceeds with filing an appeal with the hospitals regional CMS Quality Improvement Organization/Independent Peer Review
Organization (QIO/IPRO) and their appeal is overturned (i.e., the patient does not win his/her appeal), a Hospital Issued Notice of Non-Coverage (HINN) is issued. This essentially means that a patient no longer meets medical necessity for the continued hospital stay, and a safe plan for discharge has been identified.
All notices must be communicated both orally and in writing. Notices should also be documented in the
chart.

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43
Q

Medicare Outpatient Observation Notice (MOON)

A

standardized notice of status used to explain to Medicare beneficiaries their status as an outpatient in observation, not an inpatient. It includes an explanation as to why the patient is not inpatient and the implications of observations services related to cost-sharing and SNF coverage.
This is not a notice of non-coverage and must be received within 36 hours of the 24 hours of observation services.
An oral explanation is also
required when delivering the MOON notice and hospitals must maintain a signed copy

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44
Q

three options for the patient to choose relative to the ABN

A
  1. To proceed with care, have Medicare billed and if denied, appeal to Medicare
  2. To proceed with care and pay privately
  3. To forego the service
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45
Q

what’s wrong with last minute delivery of ABN?

A

Last minute delivery of an ABN can be construed as coercion. Last minute delivery is defined as, “after the beneficiary is likely to feel that the service has already begun and they have no
choice but to continue the service.”
For example, the beneficiary may have been connected to testing equipment or may have been placed in a testing machine (CAT scan).

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46
Q

Negotiating and Advocating for Patient Services and Resources Case managers have an
important role within the hospital/healthcare system and a responsibility to their patients to:

A

1-Manage and navigate the hospital/healthcare system on behalf of the patient for the protection of their rights, safety and health. Hospitals and health systems can give the impression of foreign, fragmented and unfriendly places for patients and their families/caregivers. At a time when patient and caregiver should be focused solely on getting through the current health crisis and moving towards recovery and wellness or transition to rehabilitation or palliation, they are oftentimes met with a barrage of clinicians they have never before met, confusing medical terminology, worrisome costs, impossible insurance battles and a setting that seems light years away from a healing environment.
2-Negotiate with payers, post-acute providers, internal providers and others to secure the needed services and benefits on behalf of the patient. This includes knowing facts, organizing arguments, analyzing how cost of benefit outweighs cost of potential readmission, as well as preparing for counterpoints and compromise.
3-Represent the patients voice when
the patient faces barriers to speaking up for him or herself speak up for what the patient wishes. This is
especially important for patients facing life limiting illness.
4-Help identify and/or secure the appropriate
surrogate decision-maker when the patient is unable to demonstrate decision-making capacity.
5- Assess for biases- your own, those of the care team, those of the patient/family - and then support the patients values and choices within a context of informed consent/informed decision-making.
Develop community agency collaboration to smooth care transitions, develop innovative approaches to complex patient discharges and to ensure bidirectional communication.

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47
Q

Awareness of proactive strategies is needed on the part of the case manager to stay ahead of
the risk posed by Recovery Auditors (generally referred to as RAC) and Medical Administrative
Contractors (MACs).

A

RAC and MACs represent reimbursement recovery arms of CMS. In particular, the rules and guidelines which apply to medical necessity for observation status, acute care admission and continued hospital stay can be difficult for the interdisciplinary team to determine or attend to. The financial risk to the hospital, and potentially to the patient, can be substantial if an admission or continued
stay is not properly managed in the eyes of CMS.

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48
Q

ACMAs official definition of case management, as approved by membership in November 2002, is as follows:

A

Case Management in Hospital/Health Care Systems is a collaborative practice model including patients, nurses, social workers, physicians, other practitioners, caregivers and community.
The Case Management process encompasses communication and facilitates care along a
continuum through effective resource coordination. The goals of Case Management include the
achievement of optimal health, access to care and appropriate utilization of resources, balanced with the patients right to self-determination.

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49
Q

Condition of Participation: Utilization Review:

A

states the hospital must have in effect a
Utilization Management Plan (UM Plan) that provides for review of services furnished by the institution
and by members of the medical staff to patients entitled to benefits under the Medicare and Medicaid
programs

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50
Q

SMART goals

A

Specific -simply written and clearly
defined
Measurable- tangible result that demonstrates the goal was achieved
Achievable- attainable, agreed upon, adequate resources
Relevan- is the goal worthwhile and aligned with other goals
Time-bound - timeframe is realistic yet creates a sense of urgency

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51
Q

Three principles for change management are:

A

Create a shared need for the
change.
Understand and deal with resistance from stakeholders.
Build an effective influence strategy and
communication plan for the change

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52
Q

Advance Directive:

A

Instructions given by individuals specifying what actions should be taken for their health in the event they are no longer able to make decisions on their own behalf.
Examples include:
Living Will: one form of an advance directive that leaves instructions for treatment.
Power of Attorney/Health Care Proxy: someone appointed by the individual to make decisions
on his or her behalf when he or she is incapacitated. Individuals may also have a combination of both
documents, which is often encouraged to provide the most comprehensive guidance regarding a patient’s
care.

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53
Q

Acute Inpatient Rehabilitation (AIR):

A

Acute Inpatient Rehabilitation (AIR):Level of care where patients must have had a recent
event altering functional abilities, have the strength and endurance to participate in three hours of therapy per day and have the cognitive abilities to learn progressively.

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54
Q

Assent:

A

To agree or concur. Used with regard to a minor making healthcare decisions.
Minors do not have a legal right to consent to healthcare treatment and require parents or guardians to do so on their behalf. However, a knowledgeable, mature minor may have the ability to understand his/her treatment risks, options, choices, prognosis, etc. and participate in the decision-making process by offering agreement with recommendations or “assent”

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55
Q

Beneficence

A

is action that is done for the benefit of others, or a group of norms pertaining to relieving, lessening, or preventing harm and providing benefits and balancing benefits against risks and costs

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56
Q

Capacity

A

Within the healthcare setting, this term refers to a patient’s ability to make independent decisions about his/her healthcare treatment. Capacity in this regard generally includes the patients ability to:
-Understand the information being disclosed, including the risks, benefits and
alternatives.
-Express the decision, and to do so consistently over time.
-Weigh the consequences and evaluate the impact of the decision at-hand.

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57
Q

Case Mix Index (CMI):

A

A hospital measurement representing the average
diagnosis-related group (DRG) relative weight for a given facility.
The CMI is calculated by summing the
DRG weights for all Medicare discharges and dividing by the number of discharges.

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58
Q

Competence:

A

A cluster of related abilities, commitments, knowledge and skills that enable
a person to act effectively in a variety of situations. Competence is also a legal term and a determination
made by a judge in a court of law. Decision-making capacity is not the same as competence.

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59
Q

Condition Code 44 (CC 44):

A

A code describing a change in status when specific criteria are met. Under hospital Conditions of Participation (COPs), Medicare requires that all hospitals conduct utilization reviews (UR) to ensure that all requirements are met. When the hospital UR committee reviews the case and, in consultation with the admitting or treating practitioner, determines the admission is not medically necessary, however observation services are appropriate, the admission may be changed from inpatient to outpatient status. This is called Condition Code 44.
The change is permissible if all of the
following conditions are met:
-The change in patient status from inpatient to outpatient (observation) is made prior to discharge or release while the member is still a patient of the hospital.”
-The hospital has not submitted a claim for inpatient admission
-A physician concurs with the
utilization review committee’s decision.
-The physician and utilization review committee’s decision is documented in the patient’s medical record. The medical record should contain orders and notes that indicate why the change was made, the care that was furnished to the patient and the participants making this decision to change the status. The patient must be informed of this change in status.

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60
Q

Conditions of Participation (CoP)

A

Sections of the Code of Federal Regulations that pertain to health and safety standards that healthcare organizations must meet in order to begin and continue participating in the Medicare and Medicaid programs. These health and safety standards are the foundation for improving quality and for protecting the health and safety of beneficiaries.
There are two sections of CoPs particularly important to Case Managers - Utilization Review and Discharge Planning.
CoPs can also be the basis for other best practice standards, such as The Joint Commission

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61
Q

Detailed Notice of Discharge (DND Notice):

A

Provides a full explanation of the reasons for
hospital discharge and/or why services received are no longer covered by Medicare.

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62
Q

Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs):

A

A patient classification system used to identify
resources expended for hospital services without taking into account the therapeutic approaches
employed. In the DRG system, patient records are categorized into homogenous groups according to the diagnosis and healthcare expenses involved. The DRG system uses the following data for hospital
performance evaluation: average length of stay, average patient load, comparative performance index and case mix index

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63
Q

Extended Stay/Recovery:

A

Terminology used for outpatients in a bed who do not meet either Inpatient or Observation status requirements. These patients may be boarding after an uncomplicated procedure, or this classification is also used for social admissions. Generally, room and
board charges are not billable

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64
Q

HH face to face must occur how long before or how long after start of car?

A

The face-to-face encounter must occur within the 90 days prior to the start of home healthcare, or within the 30 days after the start of care.”

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65
Q

Hospital Issued Notice of Non-Coverage (HINN):

A

?Written notices given by a hospital to
tell a patient that Medicare may not cover his or her admission, inpatient status or continued stay while at
the hospital. This allows patients to be fully informed about decisions they must make that are affected by
their Medicare coverage as well as payment for an inpatient stay at the hospital. HINN letters are
delivered to beneficiaries prior to admission, at admission, or at any point during an inpatient stay when
the hospital determines services the patient is receiving, or about to receive, are not covered because the
services are not medically necessary, not delivered in the most appropriate setting or are custodial in
nature.

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66
Q

Last inpatient day:

A

The day before the patient is discharged is the last inpatient day.

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67
Q

An inpatient admission

A

An inpatient admission is generally appropriate when a patient is expected to need two or
more midnights of medically necessary hospital care, but the doctor must order such admission and the
hospital must formally admit the patient in order to be termed inpatient

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68
Q

Long-Term Acute Care Hospital (LTACH):?

A

A specialized care facility designed to treat
acutely ill patients who benefit from a prolonged LOS for a minimum of 25 days. LTACHs differ from
nursing homes and inpatient rehabilitation facilities. The significant difference is LTACHs are inpatient
facilities with full-time registered nurses and physicians who provide care 24-hours a day, seven days a
week. LTACHs are equipped to provide the same level of care as acute care hospitals with the exception
of emergency medical services, obstetrics and gynecology services. LTACHs are needed because they
help free beds in acute care hospitals, particularly in intensive care units.”

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69
Q

Medicaid Integrity Contractors (MIC):

A

A contractor responsible for ensuring that paid
claims were for (1) services provided and properly documented, (2) services billed properly, using correct
and appropriate procedure codes and (3) covered services. MICs additionally insure that claims are paid
according to Federal and State laws, regulations, and policies. There are three types of MICs - review,
audit and education.

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70
Q

Differences of Medicare ABCD

A

Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital services

Medicare Part B covers outpatient
medical services
Medicare Part C consists of Medicare Part A and Part B benefits that offer a choice between an open-network single-payer plan (traditional Medicare) and a network plan (Medicare
Advantage), where the federal government pays for private health coverage.”
Medicare Part D covers outpatient prescription drugs exclusively through private plans,
either standalone prescription drug plans or through Medicare Advantage plans.”

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71
Q

Medicare Spending per Beneficiary (MSPB):

A

A Medicare hospital spending claim that
includes all of Medicare Part A and Part B claims paid during the period from three days prior to a
hospital admission through 30 days after discharge

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72
Q

Nursing Home Compare:?

A

A Medicare.gov website that stores detailed information about
every Medicare and Medicaid-certified nursing home in the country. States may collect and post
additional information that is not collected by the federal government

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73
Q

Office of the Inspector General (OIG):

A

The Office of Inspector General (OIG) investigates
allegations of fraud, waste, abuse or misconduct within the executive branch of federal government. The office also assists residents with locating the proper agencies to address concerns, when necessary.
Furthermore, the OIG assists executive branch entities in identifying and correcting operational
deficiencies.

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74
Q

Power of Attorney (POA):

A

A written authorization to represent or act on another’s behalf
in private affairs, business or some other legal matter. The person authorizing the other to act is the
principal, grantor or donor of the power, and the one authorized to act is the agent, donor or attorney, or in
some common law jurisdictions, the attorney-in-fact. Formerly, a power referred to an instrument under
seal while a letter was an instrument under hand, but today both are under hand (i.e., signed by the donor),
and therefore there is no difference between the two.Durable Power of Attorney simply means that the
document stays in effect if you become incapacitated and unable to handle matters on your own.
(Ordinary, or “nondurable,” powers of attorney automatically end if the person who makes them loses mental capacity.)Healthcare Power of Attorney is a legal form that allows an individual to empower
another with decisions regarding his or her healthcare and medical treatment. Healthcare power of attorney becomes active when a person is unable to make decisions or consciously communicate
intentions regarding treatments.”

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75
Q

Pre-Admission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR):

A

Under State and Federal Law,
PASSR applies to individuals who are: (1) being considered for admission to a nursing facility or (2) are already residents of a nursing facility and have a significant change in their physical or mental condition

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76
Q

Project Boost Risk Assessment:

A

risk assessment tool kit developed by the Society for
Hospital Medicine.”

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77
Q

Qualifying Stay:

A

For a Medicare patient to access benefits for a skilled rehabilitation or
nursing stay after discharge from an acute hospital, the patient must have a three-day, medically
necessary, qualifying hospital inpatient stay.”

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78
Q

Situational Judgment Tests (SJTs) or Inventories (SJIs):

A

A testing methodology where the
test taker is presented with realistic, hypothetical scenarios and ask to identify the most appropriate
response or to rank the responses in the order they feel is most effective.

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79
Q

Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF):?

A

A facility that provides healthcare when an individual
requires skilled nursing or rehabilitation staff to manage, observe and evaluate a patient?s care. Medicare
Part A provides payment for post-hospital care in SNFs for up to 100 days during each illness. An illness
begins on the first day a patient receives Medicare-covered inpatient hospital care and ends when the
patient has spent 60 consecutive days outside the institution, or remains in the institution but does not
receive Medicare-coverable care for 60 consecutive days. Once met, the patient is entitled to full coverage
of the first 20 days of SNF care. From the 21st through the 100th day, Medicare pays for all covered
services except for a daily co-insurance amount, which is adjusted annually.”

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80
Q

Uniform Health Care Decisions Act of 1993 (UHCDA):

A

This Act consolidates various
state laws dealing with all decisions about adult healthcare and healthcare powers of attorney. It aims at
assisting individuals and the medical profession in better assuring a person’s right to choose or reject a
particular course of treatment. This act is designed to replace existing living will, power of attorney for
healthcare and family health care consent statutes which are dealt with separately in most states.”

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81
Q

What are the first steps in conducting an assessment?

A

1)Establish rapport.
Establishing rapport is key to a thorough assessment as the patient is more likely to share detailed information if there is a level of trust.

2)Verify demographic information in the record.
This is an important step in an assessment, since errors could result at the time of discharge (for example equipment being sent to the wrong address).

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82
Q

Does CM verify insurance coverage?

A

Insurance verification is not the job of the case manager. Patient Access/Registration will be pre-authorizing the surgery, and the case manager will want to know at a later stage the specific benefits for discharge planning.
(this is in reference to what are the first steps in conducting an assessment?)

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83
Q

Description in question states that patient is independent in ADLs. Would CM want to evaluate ADLs?

A

Evaluate ADLs
The description of Ms. Xavier already states that she lives alone and is independent in all of her ADLs. There is no need to re-evaluate.

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84
Q

Question: conducting an assessment- would the CM Contact the Healthcare Power of Attorney to request verification documents?

A

If the patient is awake, alert, and capable of making her own health care decisions, there is no need to invoke the provisions in the Healthcare Power of Attorney document. It may be a facility’s policy to have these documents on file prior to a surgery, but this should not be pursued without first talking with the patient.

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85
Q

Pre-surgery CM assessment: After rapport is established and demographics have been verified, the first question the case manager asks is

A

“what is your understanding of the care you will need after this surgery?”

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86
Q

Pre surgery CM assessment, CM asked “what is your understanding of the care you will need after this surgery?” Patient says she expects to get back to regular activities quickly. What are next steps?

A

+2
Point out that after surgery, everyone requires some assistance, and address this need with the question, “will your children be willing, able and available to provide the physical assistance you will need and to stay with you until you progress to the point where you feel independent again?”
Good answer, but the case manager also needs to know what the care needs will be to better assess the family’s ability to provide the care.

+3
Ask the patient to describe what she understands about the care that will be required when she is discharged and returns home.
This is the best answer as it allows the patient to tell the case manager what she thinks will be needed, and it allows the case manager the opportunity to correct/adjust those ideas (based on experience and the patient’s prior level of functioning) to a more realistic assessment, if necessary.

(do NOT discuss SNF at this time)

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87
Q

presurgery CM assessment: After establishing that the patient has a clear understanding of what her care needs will be and that her children are willing, able and available to help her, what are the next questions(s) the case manager will ask?

A

+3
What are the number of steps to get into the house/apartment?
This is more relevant than the question above and can also be phrased as, “will the patient have difficulty getting into her home?”

+2
Are the bedroom and bathroom on the first floor?
This is also important. The case manager will need to determine, once the patient is in the home, whether they will be able to get to the bathroom and bedroom or require some form of assistance.

+1
Does the patient know if the doors in her home are wide enough for a walker to fit through?
This will be important to know if getting around the home presents a safety issue.

NO -2- wrong answer
What is the patient’s insurance coverage?
This will be asked later in the assessment, but not yet.
NO -3- wrong answer
Are there neighbors, or friends, willing to provide assistance?
While friends could be a part of a discharge plan, at this point this is irrelevant since she has a caregiver.

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88
Q

pre-surgery assessment :After assessing the physical environment, what is/are the case manager’s next concern(s)?

A

+3
Determining the patient’s insurance coverage for post-acute services.
At this point in the assessment, it is important to now assess the financial resources for needed services and open a conversation with the patient and/or family about limitations, if applicable. For example, the case manager knows that the patient has a Managed Medicare product and should share with the patient that access to home health or SNF will be based on therapy notes and need for rehab rather than the patient simply wanting to recover in a nursing home. Do remember that since she has Managed Medicare, her payer may allow SNF placement, if needed, without a 3-day stay.

+2
Clarifying the patient’s prescription benefit, including co-pay requirements.
The case manager knows that patients are discharged on anti-coagulants after joint surgery, and based on experience, the case manager knows these drugs can be expensive.

+1
Exploring with the patient her available resources and ability to make co-payments.
The patient may or may not have financial concerns, but education about how much these drugs could cost is important for all patients in order to prevent a surprise at discharge.

-2- NO- wrong answer
Determining who the patient’s primary care physician is.
This information should be contained in the record and should have been verified with the patient earlier in the assessment.

-1 NO- wrong answer
Determining what home health agency the patient wants to use, if needed.
Although a good question, this is not the next step. The case manager needs to check benefits, and since this is Managed Medicare, also check preferred providers before having this conversation.

-3 NO- wrong answer
Showing the patient how to use Medicare.gov to assist in choosing a SNF.
SNF placement is not in the care plan at this point. If it becomes necessary, the case manager must check first for in-network providers with Managed Medicare payers. In most Medicare Advantage plans, the patient needs to use plan doctors, hospitals and other providers or pay more or all of the costs (Medicare.gov website).

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89
Q

Immediately following surgery CM assessment: Now that patient is in the hospital, and the surgery has been completed, what are the next best steps of the case manager?

A

-2 NO wrong answer
Insist on seeing the patient on the day of surgery to get an assessment completed as soon as possible.
The patient may not be alert enough to assess.

+3
Ask the patient’s bedside nurse if the patient is alert and oriented, and visit with the patient on the day of surgery.
If the patient is alert and oriented, an assessment on the day of surgery could be valuable in controlling the length of stay.

+2
Confirm with the patient that the information in the pre-admission assessment is still accurate and complete.
As soon as the patient is alert and oriented, the first thing the case manager will do is confirm that there are no changes since the pre-admission assessment was completed.

-3 NO wrong answer
Have a detailed conversation about the patient and her options with the patient’s daughter while the patient is in the recovery unit.
Since the patient is not incapacitated, she is the one with which the case manager should confer.

90
Q

The case manager sees Ms. Xavier on Post-Op Day 1 and performs the Admission Assessment, confirming that the information provided at the pre-admission assessment has not changed. Ms. Xavier admits to 8/10 pain and states that she refused PT this morning because of the pain. The case manager notices the patient seems mildly confused and attributes that to anxiety and pain.
Question:
What is the case manager’s best response? (Select all that apply.)

A

-1 NO wrong answer
Encourages the patient to speak with her nurse about the use of her Patient Controlled Analgesic (PCA) pump.
While some pain is to be expected, it is possible that the patient is not using her PCA correctly. Proper use could control her pain much better; however, since she is confused, leaving it up to her to speak to her nurse is not the best solution.
+1
Explains to the patient that participation in physical therapy is critical to achieving her goal of discharge to home.
This is a good response. Perhaps the case manager could help patient understand that if she gets her pain under control, she will be more likely to participate in physical therapy and reach her goal of discharge to home. However, pain should be addressed first.
-2 NO wrong answer
Gives the patient the SNF list and tell her she will likely need rehab since she’s not up and about yet.
The case manager should address this concern with the patient after conferring with the care team (including PT) at a time when the patient is no longer confused.

+3
Reports the patient’s poor pain control and confusion to the patient care nurse.
The case manager knows that the patient’s report of 8-10 pain, and the confusion that is quite evident, are not normal for post-op day 1 after joint replacement. The case manager must share this information with the patient’s nurse and/or physician if available.

-3 NO wrong answer
Requests that the attending physician order a pain consult.
Orthopedic patients have pain that for the most part can be controlled with proper use of a PCA. The attending is not likely to order a pain consult on post op day 1.

-1 NO wrong answer
Asks PT to see the patient again.
If she is confused and in pain, this is not the time for her to be seen by PT.

+3
Collaborate with PT to see the patient again early the next day, and prompt PT to coordinate administration of pain medication with nursing so the patient is more likely to participate in therapy.
This is a positive and proactive action to take and is a good example of collaboration with the multidisciplinary care team.

91
Q

On Post-op day 2, when many total knee replacement (TKR) patients are being discharged home, the case manager returns to visit with the patient (who has been transferred back to the Ortho Unit). PT was able to see the patient early in the morning in ICU, and at that time they recommended SNF placement due to slow recovery and continuing lethargy. Ms. Xavier has some residual lethargy and states that she has 5/10 pain but has learned to use the PCA to manage it.
Question:
What are the next best steps of the case manager? (Select all that apply.)

A

+3
Share the PT recommendation with the patient and her daughter, who is at the bedside.
The information from PT should be shared as soon as possible to allow the placement process to begin.

+2
Discuss the SNF placement process with the patient.
Remind the patient/daughter that the patient has a Managed Medicare plan that does have in-network providers and a requirement to pre-authorize the placement.

-3NO wrong answer
Inform the patient that, since she has a Managed Medicare policy, she does not have a choice of facilities for SNF placement and will need to go to the facility approved by her payor.
While this is true, if the patient wants her insurance to pay for placement, patients always have a right to choose – if Ms. Xavier chooses to not make use of her Medicare benefit as provided by this Managed Care plan, she is free to go wherever she chooses.

+2
Realize that the patient may go beyond a 2-day stay, so asks her utilization management partner to give the Important Message from Medicare Second Notice (IM).
While the utilization manager would not have needed to give an Important Message (IM) Second Notice because this procedure was planned for discharge within 48-hours of admission, the case manager now realizes that the patient may go beyond a 2-day stay, so she asks her utilization management partner to give the IM.

92
Q

patient/family expresses concern that this is too soon for transfer to SNF. Ms. Xavier was just in the ICU this morning, and the family wants to go visit the facilities before making a decision. The family states they will contact the physician and their insurance company to appeal this decision.
Question:
What are the appropriate next steps in this scenario? (Select all that apply.)

A

-3 NO wrong answer
The utilization manager takes the “Detailed Notice of Discharge” into the patient and her daughter.
The Important Message from Medicare that the patient received earlier gives the patient/family the phone number for appeal. The “Detailed Notice of Discharge” is provided after the appeal is confirmed.
+3
The utilization manager awaits a call from the QIO that an appeal has been filed.
This is appropriate because any next steps should not be taken until the appeal is official.
+1
The case manager notifies the SNF that the patient is appealing her discharge, so she will not be transferred today.
This may be premature since the appeal is still not officially filed.

+1
The case manager notifies the physician that the patient is appealing her discharge.
Again, this may be premature until the QIO notifies the utilization manager that the appeal has been filed.

93
Q

The QIO notifies the hospital that the patient is appealing her discharge. They confirm that there is a discharge order on the chart and ask that the record be sent to them immediately.
Question:
Now that the QIO has notified the Hospital of the appeal, what should the utilization manager do? (Select all that apply.)

A

+3
Take the “Detailed Notice of Discharge” into the patient’s room and deliver to the patient and her daughter.
This is the first thing that should happen after receiving notice from the QIO.
+2
Call the Managed Medicare Company to alert them to the discharge appeal and to let them know the patient will not be leaving today for the SNF.
The payor needs to know the discharge is not happening today. They will want an update from PT prior to approving a transfer to SNF given this delay.
-3- NO wrong answer
Tell the patient that she is likely to lose the SNF bed and that may result in her discharge to home instead.
This would not necessarily be true. The patient may still not be safe to discharge home, and it could be perceived as a retaliatory statement because of the appeal.
-3 NO wrong answer
Tell PT that the patient has appealed her discharge so they don’t need to see the patient again in the morning.
PT needs to see the patient even if she has appealed her discharge because the case manager knows a PT update will need to be provided to the payor, as well as to the physician, as alternate plans may need to be made if the payor denies SNF placement.

+1
Document delivery of the “Detailed Notice of Discharge” and the appeal in accordance with hospital policy and Medicare regulations.
Requirements for documentation of this process are defined by CMS regulations as well as department policy.

94
Q

Question about ICU ventilated patient. Day 29. Which of the following should the case manager prioritize during the initial assessment? (Select all that apply.)

A

+1
Current mental status.
Current status is listed as “anoxic brain injury and not following commands.” It would be important to know the mental status as patient may not respond appropriately to questions or have ability to write answers.

0
Review labs, tests and procedure reports.
This data is unlikely to provide information needed to complete a case management assessment.

+1
Current clinical status.
Overall clinical status may help determine a timeline towards readiness for discharge.
0
Current ventilator support needs.
The patient has failed a ventilator wean three times at the outside hospital. His current status is unlikely to provide additional necessary information for assessment.
+2
Contact brother.
The brother is the only known living relative and is listed as emergency contact.
-2- no wrong answer
Tell the receiving facility they are required to take the patient back after the pacemaker is inserted, and arrange for disposition.
There is no such legal requirement. There may be a contractual agreement between the referring and receiving facility; however, this has not been disclosed to the candidate.

95
Q

Mr. Jones has been weaned off intravenous medications, and is now receiving all medications via his PEG tube. With the anticipation of ventilator weaning, the planned discharge disposition has shifted to skilled nursing facilities (SNF). Jerry continues to visit and advises there is no extended family available for support. Jerry is also consistent in saying he cannot provide any financial or living situation support for Mr. Jones. Jerry has questioned how long he will have to make decisions for Mr. Jones, as he is feeling the burden of this responsibility and has his own family to be concerned about. Calls to the construction company have gone unanswered.
Question:
What are the case manager’s next actions? (Select all that apply.)

A

+2
Schedule a family meeting with the brother, healthcare team and the Medicaid eligibility counselor.
As Mr. Jones’ discharge readiness approaches, the financial aspects of the discharge plan must be settled.

+1
Request that the legal and/or risk management department call the construction company.
This may be a viable source of funding for the hospital and post-acute care.

+1
Make referrals to skilled nursing facilities with tracheostomy care capability.
This is the identified appropriate level of care at discharge.
+1
Approach hospital leaders to inquire if the hospital would cover the cost of SNF care until Mr. Jones is eligible.
At this moment, Mr. Jones has no identified source of funding, limiting his disposition options.
+1
Discuss the option of guardianship.
Mr. Jones cannot communicate his wishes, and Jerry indicates he is tiring of being Mr. Jones’ decision maker. Someone must be identified to represent Mr. Jones’ interests.
+1
Confer with the physician to discuss any less expensive alternatives for medications and treatment plans.
Identifying potentially less costly medications and treatment plans may increase the chances a SNF will accept Mr. Jones with potential Medicaid funding.
0
Call the transferring hospital about sending the patient back for completion of care.
This does not resolve any disposition problems for Mr. Jones.

96
Q

Mr. Jones has been determined to not have the capacity to make decisions for himself and discussions of guardianship continue with the legal department.

A

+2
Make referrals to SNFs with a Medicaid pending status.
Mr. Jones’ care needs make him an appropriate SNF candidate.
-2 -NO
Tell Jerry if he leaves on a trip, an Adult Protective Services (APS) report will be filed for abandonment.
Jerry has no legal responsibility for Mr. Jones’ care.
+2
Encourage the legal department to proceed with a guardianship hearing.
Mr. Jones must have a legally appointed decision maker.
-2 NO
Request that durable power of attorney paperwork be completed.
Mr. Jones does not have the capacity to sign this document.

-2 NO
Call the workers compensation case worker and indicate the patient may file suit if benefits are not approved.
This is untrue.

97
Q

Simulation: Which of the following should the case manager evaluate on initial assessment?

A

+1
Electrolyte abnormalities
Dr. Murray’s confusion and agitation could have a metabolic source. Electrolyte abnormalities could also be a major determiner in the criteria assessment for inpatient/outpatient status.
+2
Current mental status
It is vital to assess Dr. Murray’s mental status before beginning a discussion with him to ascertain his current capacity for providing accurate information and understanding communication.
-2
Color of urine
This is not vital to either a discharge planning or utilization management assessment.
+1
Intake and output since admission
Information about intake and output is crucial to the utilization management assessment of Dr. Murray’s situation and may be predictive of his anticipated length of stay.

+2
Current living situation
Dr. Murray’s presentation suggests he has not been receiving adequate hydration and nutrition and may have a medication compliance concern. This information, along with the recent death of Dr. Murray’s wife, should compel the case manager to know more about Dr. Murray’s current living situation.

+2
Medication history and compliance
Dr. Murray’s symptoms could be related either to medication non-compliance or a medication side effect. Understanding what medications he is taking is vital to planning for his care during and after hospitalization.
-2
Current stage of grieving process
This is an inappropriate evaluation goal in an initial meeting. The case manager has not yet met the patient, and no rapport or relationship of trust has been established.

+1
Family and social supports
Just as with assessing Dr. Murray’s current living situation, it is vital to understand what family and social supports are present.
-2
Request a blood and urine toxic substances screen
At this point, there is no evidence of any exposure to toxic substances, and screening for toxins is not indicated.
-1
Monthly income and level of savings
It is known that Dr. Murray is a retired physician with Medicare A/B and a supplement policy. It is not likely that financial problems are the root of his malnutrition and possible medication noncompliance. Probing financial questions from the case manager, at this point, may hamper attempts to build rapport and trust.

98
Q

Simulation: What are the case manager’s next actions?

A

+2
Request a Social Work consult
There is evidence of complex psychosocial concerns that could be better explored with a social work consultation.
+2
Confer with a physician and/or pharmacist on their assessment of the patient’s current medications. Inquire about a possible medication reaction.
This is a crucially important step, as Dr. Murray’s confusion and agitation could be related either to not taking prescribed medications or be a side effect of his medications.

+1
Use the available hospital electronic medical records’ function to determine the status of prescription refills.
Many electronic medical record applications have the ability to report frequency and status of medication refills. This information would be important to understanding the etiology of Dr. Murray’s presentation and post discharge needs.
-2
Call both children and suggest they come visit their father.
The case manager has only received permission to call Dr. Murray’s son and should not contact other family members without permission. Without understanding the full family dynamic, the case manager should not be making recommendations that family members travel to visit. Doing so could jeopardize rapport and trust between Dr. Murray and the case manager.
-2
Request a consult from Adult Protective Services.
There is no information, thus far, to indicate this is warranted.

99
Q

A psychiatric consult was also obtained, finding Dr. Murray is planning harm to himself using a pistol in the family home. The psychiatrist completes the involuntary commitment process and seeks case management assistance in making referrals to psychiatric facilities.
Question:
What are the case manager’s actions?

A

+1
Refer to the hospital’s compliance and information security protocol for any special expectations regarding handling patient information regarding behavioral health issues.
Many hospitals have information security policies surrounding behavioral health information that are more restrictive than federal and state guidelines.

+2
Call local psychiatric facilities to see if they have inpatient adult beds. Send demographics and psychiatry consult notes to those that indicate availability.
Under HIPAA, protected health information necessary to payment, treatment and healthcare operations does not require specific patient permission for transmittal between entities. In this situation, demographic and psychiatry consult notes are essential for a potentially accepting facility to determine whether they can make an offer to accept Dr. Murray in transfer.

-2
Ask Dr. Murray which facilities he would consider transferring to, and obtain his written consent to send referral information to those facilities.
Dr. Murray is under an involuntary commitment order. He does not have the right to refuse appropriate care and treatment.
-1
Issue a Hospital Issued Notice of Non-Coverage (HINN), as the medical criteria for continued stay are no longer met.
Dr. Murray’s hospital stay was entirely on Observation status, and a HINN is not called for in this situation. HINNs are also only issued when there is a safe and appropriate discharge plan in place, which is not the case here.
-1
Disclose to the psychiatric hospitals that make a bed offer that this will be a self-pay transfer, as there is not a three day qualifying stay.
Three day qualifying stays are only required for transfer to a lower level of care, such as a skilled nursing facility (SNF). Dr. Murray’s proposed transfer to an acute psychiatric hospital does not require a three day qualifying stay.

100
Q

Because Dr. Murray is a local retired physician, the psychiatrist is reluctant to force a transfer to a facility Dr. Murray specifically refuses and suggests that Dr. Murray wait in the Observation unit until a bed at his requested facility becomes available. The nurse manager feels the Observation unit is not equipped to provide the level of constant supervision and security that Dr. Murray needs.
Question:
What are the case manager’s actions?

A

-2
Call the local police/sheriff to transport Dr. Murray to an accepting facility.
The case manager cannot order a discharge.
0
Try to convince Dr. Murray to change his mind about which facilities he will go to.
Depending on the level of rapport the case manager has developed with Dr. Murray, he/she may have some success, however it is unlikely.
+1
Consult the Case Management Physician Advisor.
This would be an appropriate escalation to a Physician Advisor to have a physician-physician level discussion of issues and concerns.

+2
Request a meeting of the patient’s care team to discuss concerns.
A care team conference would be appropriate to identify issues and barriers and discuss a way to plan for a safe and appropriate discharge for Dr. Murray.

101
Q

The case manager visits with Mr. and Mrs. Watson in his room. Mrs. Watson immediately requests to know her husband’s bed billing status and indicates a wish that this hospitalization be classified as inpatient.
Question:
What is the case manager’s best response?

A

-2
Explain that Medicare is Mr. Watson’s primary insurance, and a status determination must be made within CMS guidelines.
Medicare is not the primary insurance for Mr. Watson. Under the coordination of benefits rules, the policy of an active working spouse is always primary.

-1
Advise Mrs. Watson that this request will be shared with the attending physician.
While not harmful, this action does not provide helpful information or a resolution to Mrs. Watson’s inquiry, and may create unrealistic expectations.

-1
Explain that a patient with Medicare must be in the hospital at least two midnights to be classified as inpatient.
This statement is not completely correct, as there may be appropriate inpatient hospitalizations of one day. Medicare is also not Mr. Watson’s primary insurer.
+2
Advise that the commercial health plan is Mr. Watson’s primary insurance, and the insurance case manager has advised the plan will only approve observation status.

Mrs. Watson’s commercial insurance policy is Mr. Watson’s primary policy, under the “Working Spouse Rule.” The payer has made a determination that they will only approve observation status, and there is no reason for the case manager to advocate for a change.

102
Q

MD wants to know if Mr. Watson can be enrolled in cardiac rehabilitation.

Question:
What information is important to developing Mr. Watson’s discharge plan?

A

+2
Confirming that Mr. Watson did not have an acute coronary event.
Cardiac rehabilitation is generally not available for a patient who has not had a coronary event. It is important to know what Mr. Watson’s diagnosis and coronary status are before making an inquiry.

+1
Mr. Watson’s understanding of his cardiac status and risk factors.
Assessing Mr. Watson’s awareness of the nature of this event, and the potential for another one, may be key to his post-discharge compliance.

+2
Mr. Watson’s level of interest in modifying his risk factors.
Mr. Watson is likely being counseled by his physicians and nurses about smoking cessation and exercise. Exploring his responses to this information may identify points for reinforcement or opportunities to discuss ways Mr. Watson may choose to address these risks.
-2
Determine if Mr. Watson if is depressed, since this often happens to retired males with working wives.
There is no indication in the information the case manager has that this may be the case and no indication that rapport has been built to a level to explore this.

103
Q

The attending physician confirms Mr. Watson will be discharged later today and has been scheduled for a cardiac catheterization as an outpatient day after tomorrow. The case manager plans to finalize Mr. Watson’s discharge arrangements.
Question:
What are the most appropriate actions for the case manager? (\

A

-1
Advise Mr. Watson to let his wife know about any symptoms he may have, as she is a nurse and can determine if 911 should be called.
Mr. Watson should be given the same instructions as any patient. The fact that his wife is a nurse does not lessen the obligation to provide Mr. Watson with patient discharge instructions.

+2
Confirm that Mr. Watson knows where and when he is to report for his cardiac cath and that he has transportation available.
Confirming these instructions and available transportation supports Mr. and Mrs. Watson making plans for the catheterization.
-2
Suggest that Mr. Watson look into gym memberships to become more active.
The case manager is not aware of Mr. Watson’s activity instructions or limitations, particularly in advance of his cardiac cath. (This information was not presented, so the ACM candidate should not assume it).

+2
Contact the commercial insurer to inquire if Mr. Watson can be approved for cardiac rehab or if any disease management programs to manage cardiac risk factors are available.
It is likely that the commercial insurer requires prior authorization for cardiac rehab services, and since Mr. Watson has not had an acute coronary event, he may not be eligible for cardiac rehab. However, the care team and the insurer would like to prevent an acute coronary event, and support for managing risk factors, such as smoking, may be available.

104
Q

a 15-year old with leukemia, lethargic and in distress, has been admitted to the emergency department. Mom is by his side in the exam room. He is oriented, able to describe his condition, and tells the case manager that he is stopping cancer treatment.
What should the case manager’s initial assessment include?

A

-2
Discussion with the ED attending about discharge home with hospice since the patient’s clinical symptoms are borderline and he no longer wishes to continue aggressive treatment.
The patient’s clinical presentation does not indicate criteria met for discharge.

+2
Proceed with the patient/family assessment after full review of the patient’s medical record.
This is a necessary first step before conducting the full assessment. The case manager needs to understand the clinical and patient demographic information in the medical record, any related healthcare team notes and documentation regarding presenting problems and initial steps in the plan of care.
0
Request an ethics consult to help evaluate the patient’s decisional capacity.
There is no indication that this situation requires an ethics consultation to evaluate patient decisional capacity. As a minor, this patient will require an adult parent/guardian to serve as the healthcare decision maker; however, this patient demonstrates knowledge of his illness, and its impact on his life, and there does not appear to be conflict between him and his mother at this time.

+1
Evaluate the patient’s and mother’s knowledge of the treatment plan, level of adherence and understanding of risks, benefits and options related to continued treatment.
This is an appropriate choice in the assessment process and required before proceeding with the development of an initial plan of care or additional assessment questions.

+1
Review the patient’s health insurance regarding coverage for potential admission and begin a discussion of plan of care options with the attending.
This is an appropriate choice in the assessment process and is also required before proceeding with the development of an initial plan of care or additional assessment questions.

-1
Refer the case for psychiatry consultation to evaluate the patient for clinical depression.
While this patient’s condition may likely impact his emotional well-being, and potentially prompt a referral for mental health consultation, this is not the first step needed by the case manager. There is insufficient evidence to indicate clinical depression or a need for psychiatry at this time.

105
Q

Both parents (the father is now also present at bedside) are supportive of Mr. Clemons’ wish to discontinue treatment. They do not want to see their son continue to suffer and do not believe the doctors can help him.
Question:
In developing the next steps for planning this patient’s plan of care, what should the case manager do?

A

-2
Contact the physician advisor – the patient is ready for discharge from the ED (both the patient and family are requesting this), and the ED attending is not cooperating.
This patient is not ready for discharge. Facilitating a discharge via the physician advisor would be inappropriate, especially before further communication and counseling is provided to parents/patient regarding hospitalization needs and treatment options.

-2
Recommend observation status as an intermediate step since there is not agreement among the ED attending, patient and family.
The use of observation services are to rule in/rule out specific medical conditions that may require the intensity of acute care hospital intervention, or to provide brief intervention for immediate remediation/treatment of a serious condition. Observation is not a “holding” area or status to be used as a default when there is conflict or disagreement between clinical team and patient/family.
-2
Immediately make a referral to child protective services.
This is not a good option at this point. The case manager is still talking with the family and patient, and they are still engaged in the discussion. As long as the case manager and team are able to communicate, and progress is possible, there is not yet a need to contact child protective services.

+2
Discuss the plan with the patient and parents to treat the febrile part of illness now, through a hospital admission. During the admission, the case manager should let the patient and parents know he or she will help them to explore other options including continued treatment, phase 1 treatment protocols and/or hospice/palliative care.
This is the best next step for the case manager at this phase in the patient’s hospital/ED visit. It compartmentalizes the treatment plan into something tangible and understandable and allows the patient/family to retain a sense of control over future steps in the development of the plan of care.

+1
Confer with the pediatric palliative care team regarding options to support the patient’s and family’s quality of life, care, treatment and care decisions.
This is an appropriate option. Even though the patient may continue with active treatment, understanding all options (of which palliative care is an important one), is necessary to make a fully informed decision. This will support the patient and family in their current decision, as well as inform them for decision-making in the days and months ahead.

106
Q

Given the final disposition, which is home with outpatient services and continuance of the clinical trial, how will the case manager ensure the patient has continuity in care and that his parents will be able to set aside their differences to provide consistency with the treatment regime, keep the patient comfortable and supported and not let the situation erode into another readmission crisis?

A

+1
Plan to initiate a post-discharge follow-up call within 48-hours of discharge.
This is an appropriate step for patient reassessment post-discharge, to ensure services are in place as planned, and to assess for any signs/symptoms or new problems. Discharge follow-up calls have been shown to be effective in reducing readmission.

+2
Complete a comprehensive hand-off to next care provider/level of care.
This is an appropriate step. A comprehensive hand-off communication is a critical step in care continuity and reducing readmission.
-2
Arrange for hospice services.
Hospice services not indicated at this time.
-1
Arrange for transportation.
Transportation needs have not been identified at this time.
-2
Provide a HINN to the parents no later than 4 hours from discharge.
This family is not appealing their discharge. There is no need to deliver a HINN (Hospital Issued Notice of Non-coverage).

+1
Consult the pharmacy to provide medication management for the patient and family.
Given the new plan of care and medication regime, a pharmacy consult could be beneficial.
+2
Request that the palliative care team provide comprehensive, teachback education regarding signs/symptom management for cancer treatment and outpatient follow-up, as available.
This is an appropriate step for current needs of the patient and offers a resource/source of support to the patient and family in the days/months ahead, especially if the patient’s clinical condition does not improve.

107
Q

Mr. Samuels does not appear enthusiastic to participate in a discussion.
Question:
As the case manager begins an assessment, what questions would be appropriate to ask?

A

+2
“How does the breakfast you were served compare to the breakfast you were asking for? Let’s look at how they are alike and different.”
This would be a good question to both assess the patient’s understanding of the dietary instructions he has received and act as an “ice-breaker” of sorts. Wording the question in this manner would also be more conversational, and not seem instructional or harshly judgmental.

+1
“May I ask you some questions to confirm the information in your record about what brought you here?”
This question conveys respect for the patient and identifies the objective for the line of questioning.

+3
“How often have you been checking your blood sugar and taking your insulin shots?”
This question seeks information from the patient and is more likely to result in truthful information than asking, “Have you been checking your blood sugar the way you are supposed to?”
-2
“Did you take the time to fill your prescriptions the last time you were discharged?”
While inquiring about whether prescriptions from the last discharge were filled is a worthy objective, the wording of this question, “did you take the time,” is judgmental and thus is not appropriate.
-3
“Do you realize if you keep this behavior up you are going to end up on dialysis?”
While this may be a real possibility, this is certainly not the way to start an assessment and is probably not a productive question to ask at any point. While the conversation may need to happen when describing the sequelae of his disease, tying it to his current behavior so directly would most likely result in the patient tuning the case manager out.

108
Q

The case manager is concerned that the complexity of the prescribed regimen may be a barrier to effective blood sugar management.
Question:
What would be the appropriate case manager actions?

A

+3
During interdisciplinary team rounds, propose that a more realistic regimen be considered.
Interdisciplinary rounds with the care team would be an appropriate forum to introduce the concept of a more successful insulin regimen for Mr. Samuels. All members of the care team will need to be on board to teach and reinforce a new plan.

+2
Enlist the care nurse’s assistance in assessing Mr. Samuels’ ability to draw up insulin accurately and correctly.
Since Mr. Samuels is legally blind, it is important to assess his ability to accurately administer his medications.

-2
Refer to Social Work to arrange a cognitive assessment of the patient for possible guardianship.
The patient does not seem to be able to adhere to a very complicated insulin regimen and makes food choices that are not recommended, but there is no evidence that he lacks capacity for decision making.

+2
Advise the patient that a referral to a social worker will be arranged to help him address his living situation and availability of food.
The patient would definitely benefit from services in the community to assist him with housing and food.
-3
Inform the patient that he has to do four insulin shots a day because that is what will give him the best possible outcome in the treatment of his disease.
This is the least helpful answer – if he was capable and willing to manage his diabetes this tightly that would be ideal. However, this young man is either not cognitively able, or not willing to adhere to, this regimen.
-2
Advise the patient that he needs to find one place to stay because it’s clear that moving from place to place is making it harder for him to adhere to his care plan.
While this is obviously true, telling the patient to fix it without offering help in finding solutions is not at all helpful.

109
Q

Nephrology is consulted, and a dialysis catheter is put in place for urgent dialysis.

The hospital case manager comes to assess Mr. Martinez on the med/surg unit, 10 hours after admission to complete initial discharge planning assessment.
Question:
Which of the following should the case manager evaluate on initial assessment?

A

+2
Current living situation.
Mr. Martinez’s presentation suggests he has not been receiving ongoing medical management for his diabetes and hypertension. Assessment of his current living situation will help the case manager with discharge planning needs.

+2
Ability to afford medications.
When a patient with a limited income must choose between paying bill, buying groceries or filling a prescription, the prescription is likely to go unfilled. The case manager can identify patient assistance programs (PAPs) or other forms of prescription assistance.

-2
Financial savings and ability to pay for hospital stay.
Mr. Martinez does not have health insurance through his employer and has yet to meet with a financial counselor. Financial questions from the case manager, at this point, may hamper attempts to build rapport and trust.
-1
Color of urine.
No indication that color of urine indicates renal failure improvement or worsening.
+1
Electrolyte abnormalities.
Electrolyte abnormalities and the initiation of emergent dialysis may indicate need for post discharge community dialysis arrangement.
+1
Intake and output since admission.
Information about intake and output is important to the utilization management assessment of Mr. Martinez. He presented with 2+ edema and required emergent dialysis. Imbalance in I&O may be predictive of his anticipated length of stay.

+2
Medication history and compliance.
Mr. Martinez reported a longstanding history of hypertension and diabetes, that he states has been controlled both with diet and exercise, although blood pressure elevation and HbA1c at >9% are noted at admission. The case manager assessment of history and compliance may provide additional information that will assist in discharge planning needs.

+1
Family and social supports.
A crucial part of assessment, especially as Mr. Martinez has a sudden illness and new diagnosis, is to understand what family and social supports are present.

+2
Plan for post discharge care.
Mr. Martinez has a new diagnosis of renal failure with a dialysis catheter placed for urgent dialysis in facility. Discussion of post discharge plan, location of local dialysis centers and transportation needs are important to consider early in stay.

110
Q

She has a daughter who visits regularly. You find Mrs. Long’s daughter’s name/phone number in the documentation from the Assisted Living Community.
Question:
What would the case manager’s first steps be

A

+3
Look through the paperwork from the Assisted Living Facility to see if it identifies a Healthcare Power of Attorney or if there is an Advance Directive.
The documentation could be available indicating the patient’s wishes and that should be consulted first.

+2
Identify the next of kin.
Identifying the NOK will point to the person who can make decisions on the patient’s behalf.
-2
Call the Assisted Living Facility to ask them if they have ever heard the patient talk about her wishes related to code status.
The ALF ‘s representative does not have decision-making ability for the patient and no providers would accept anecdotal statements as guidance in an emergency situation
-3
Do nothing until the patient is stabilized.
The ED CM has a responsibility to help clarify the patient’s wishes and/or code status now.

+2
Confirm with ED Physician current condition of the patient and let him/her know you are calling the patient’s daughter.
The daughter is in the appropriate next of kin category because the patient has been her own decision maker (so no guardian) and there is no documentation of a HCPOA in the record from the Assisted Living or in the Hospital EMR.
-2
Hold off on calling the patient’s daughter until the HCPOA is confirmed.
Absent evidence of a HCPOA, the daughter is the only identified NOK at this point so it is appropriate to call her.

+3
Call the patient’s daughter and let her know her mother is in the hospital and ask if she has a HCPOA or Advance Directive.
In the case that the patient has more than one child and there is disagreement among the siblings, having a written document would provide evidence of the patient’s own wishes

111
Q

The patient’s daughter arrives in the ED. She is highly distraught and weeping. The Emergency Department case manager is called to the room by the nurse.
Question:
What are the next steps for the ED case manager?

A

Confirm the patient’s current condition and contact patient’s son, the HCPOA. Inform the patient’s son of the current situation and ask him what the patient’s wishes are related to resuscitation
If there was no HCPOA, the patient’s children would most likely have equal say in the decisions.

+2
Facilitate a conversation between patient’s son and the ED physician to get the code status determined.
In an ED, the physician is always going to go with aggressive treatment in the absence of a documented Advance Directive or HCPOA. In this case, the son states (and the daughter has agreed) that he has HCPOA and she will abide by his decision. This would be a witnessed conversation.

+2
As Mrs. Long’s daughter is quite distraught and tearful, provide emotional support.
As a nurse or a social worker, a case manager should have the skill set to provide crisis support at least until backup support arrives.
-2
Talks with the patient’s daughter about Hospice in case the patient lingers.
Daughter is unlikely to retain anything at this point.
-3
Ask the patient’s daughter why she is not the HCPOA
The patient made the decision to name her son HCPOA – inappropriate to ask the daughter why.

112
Q

Mrs. Taylor (Part I)
Mrs. Taylor is a 78 year old African American female whose adult daughter, LaVonne, has brought her to the community hospital emergency department because of increasing lethargy, mild confusion and somnolence. Mrs. Taylor has Stage IV metastatic breast cancer.
Question:
As the emergency department case manager, what information below would be part of your initial assessment?

A

+2
Current medications
Need to determine if Mrs. Taylor’s condition is related to her medications.

+3
Living will or advance directive for healthcare.
Since Mrs. Taylor is somnolent, a legal decision-maker needs to be identified.
+2
Laboratory results
Mrs. Taylor’s lethargy may be related to an electrolyte imbalance.

+1
Social history
Need to establish if Mrs. Taylor is in a safe environment with a responsible caregiver.
0
Dietary supplements
Not relevant at this time.
-1
Current pain score
Patient’s confusion and somnolence makes this a non-relevant part of information gathering at this time.

+2
Payer information
Need to know payer status for admission status and discharge planning purposes.

113
Q

Based on the information gathered, which of the following would be your priorities?
Question:
Select as many as apply

A

+2
Review Mrs. Taylor’s current cancer treatment.
Important to know the extent of Mrs. Taylor’s cancer for treatment and discharge planning.

+2
Ask LaVonne the frequency of pain medication Mrs. Taylor has been receiving.
Need to rule out over-sedation from pain medication as a potential contributing factor to somnolence and confusion.

-2
Ask LaVonne if she would consider hospice care for her mother.
The extent and severity of Mrs. Taylor’s condition have not yet been established.
-3
Recommend vigorous intravenous hydration, then discharge the patient to home.
Patient’s condition requires management in an acute care setting.
+2
Recommend hospitalization.
This is appropriate for addressing Mrs. Taylor’s condition.

114
Q

Cancer patient in pain - what are next steps

A

-2
Suggest Mrs. Taylor take acetaminophen or ibuprofen for her pain.
Mrs. Taylor should avoid acetaminophen pain medication due to her liver metastases. Given her extensive bone metastases and terminal condition, Mrs. Taylor will require a more effective pain medication than over-the-counter pain relievers.

+2
Suggest a palliative care consult.
Mrs. Taylor’s cancer is advancing and goals of care should be discussed. Palliative care could also provide suggestions for pain management.
-1
Arrange transportation home.
Transportation home is not needed. Mrs. Taylor was ambulatory prior to hospitalization and can be transported home by her daughter.

+1
Request a dietary consult.
Mrs. Taylor has progressive cancer and could benefit from improved nutrition.

-2
Request a physical therapy evaluation.
Mrs. Taylor is still lethargic and in pain. She may not require physical therapy and her pain should be controlled first.

115
Q

Mrs. Taylor (Part V)
Mrs. Taylors’ physician contacts her oncologist who verifies that no additional radiation therapy can be administered to control the pain from her bone metastases. After consulting with palliative care, the physician orders intravenous low-dose hydromorphone for pain management.
Question:
What additional information should be gathered at this point?

A

-3
Does Mrs. Taylor wish to designate someone else for durable power of attorney for healthcare?
There is no apparent reason to pursue this and distrust could develop between the case manager and the patient.
-2
Should Mrs. Taylor pursue aggressive cancer treatment with a different oncologist?
Mrs. Taylor has advanced disease, is already receiving palliative treatment, and will not likely benefit from aggressive treatment.
+3
How is Mrs. Taylor responding to her current treatment?
This is required to assess readiness for discharge.

+3
What are Mrs. Taylor’s goals of care?
Mrs. Taylor’s goals and preferences must be taken into consideration when planning for her post-discharge care.

116
Q

Her pain is a 2-3 on a 0-10 scale and Mrs. Taylor states “I can live with that”. She is ambulating but slightly weak and unsteady. Her physician anticipates she can be discharged home that afternoon.
Question:
What steps would you take to successfully complete Mrs. Taylor’s hospital stay?

A

-2
Request that physical therapy evaluate Mrs. Taylor in her home after discharge.
Mrs. Taylor’s safety with ambulation should be established prior to leaving the hospital.

+3
Discuss discharge options and preferences with Mrs. Taylor.
It is essential to include Mrs. Taylor in planning for her post-hospital care and to document her preferences.
+2
Arrange to receive her bisphosphonate for hypercalcemia at the outpatient oncology clinic.
Mrs. Taylor will need ongoing bisphosphonate infusions to control her serum calcium levels.

+3
Arrange home health services.
Home health services will help support Mrs. Taylor and her daughter and decrease the chances of a readmission.
-2
Obtain a prescription for oral hydromorphone at the same dosage strength that was being given intravenously.
Mrs. Taylor needs to transition from intravenous to oral pain medication.
Intravenous and oral narcotic dosages are not equivalent.
-3
Arrange a transfer to an acute rehabilitation hospital.
The intensity of services in an acute rehab hospital does not correspond to Mrs. Taylor’s condition.
-2
Inform Mrs. Taylor that she does not need to follow up with palliative care.
Mrs. Taylor would benefit from pain and symptom management, and palliative care will provide support for her disease progression.
-3
Schedule a radiation therapy consultation.
Further radiation would be costly, ineffective and potentially harmful.

+3
Ask the physician to document that Mrs. Taylor recovered quicker than anticipated.
Mrs. Taylor was admitted as an inpatient with an anticipated stay of greater than two midnights. Since she is being discharged earlier than planned, her physician needs to document that she recovered quicker than anticipated or convert her to an observation status prior to discharge.

117
Q

left-sided upper extremity weakness and left lower extremity paralysis. His parents are at his bedside. The patient has commercial insurance through his employer.
Question:
You are the case manager working with Mr. Smith today and need to complete a reassessment. Based on the information provided, which of the following would the case manager want to gather at this time

A

+3
Patient understanding of hospitalization and post-hospitalization needs
Patient understanding and active participation in hospitalization and discharge planning is extremely important in providing individualized and patient-centered care.
-2
If he attended college.
This information is not necessary in order to plan for his transition needs.
-3
Contact information for his current employer so they can be notified
This is not an appropriate action since Mr. Smith has not requested you contact them.

+3
Current therapy progress note and recommendations
Based on Mr. Smith’s functional impairment and needs, reviewing relevant therapy progress notes and recommendations is appropriate and necessary in planning for discharge needs.

-1
Mr. Smith’s preference among local long-term acute care hospitals
No indication that long term acute care is the appropriate level of care.

+2
Available family or friend support.
Establishing eventual discharge disposition and available family support will be an important component when planning for the transition to an acute rehabilitation hospital.

118
Q

CVA due to cocaine- what are next steps

A

-2
Initiate referral to substance abuse program
More information would be needed and at this time this action is not indicated

-3
Discuss dangers of and risks associated with cocaine use with Mr. Smith and his parents
It is inappropriate to discuss this with the patient’s family unless given permission

+3
Provide an overview of the rehabilitation needs upon discharge and ask Mr. Smith to repeat that information in his own words.
Patient education with the implementation of teach-back is important in ensuring the patient is informed and is an active partner in his care.

+2
Educate Mr. Smith on the resources such as the website for Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility Compare when discussing acute rehabilitation hospitals
This is a resource to help the patient make informed decisions based on quality reporting data across facilities

+3
Initiate referral to available acute rehabilitation facilities.
This is appropriate to prevent delays in discharge.

119
Q

rehabilitation facility is currently full and cannot accept any patients at this time- they anticipate beds opening in 1-2 weeks. The only other facility is out of network. You discuss the issue with the patient who indicates he is fine going to either facility.
Question:
Which is the single best action to take

A

-3
Contact the employer to see if they will authorize using an out of network provider.
The insurance provider, not the employer would be the party to talk to regarding this matter.

+3
Coordinate patient and family meeting to discuss options and potential financial implications of in-network vs out of network provider.
Communication with the patient and family is important regarding anticipated barriers or financial implications or constraints. This is also an opportunity to discuss any available contingency plans.
-3
Tell Mr. Smith he can stay in the current hospital for the duration of his therapy and until he feels strong enough to return home independently.
This is a potential misuse of resources, a lower level of care is indicated.
-3
Encourage the patient to switch insurance providers as soon as possible
This is not appropriate.
-3
Deliver the Important Message from Medicare to the patient
The patient does not have Medicare, this is not appropriate.

120
Q

New to the area patient.
Based on the information gathered, which of the following would you do first?

A

+3
Facilitate/Ensure request of Mr. Mozart’s previous PCP records
Prior records needed to review patient’s baseline and confirm medication regimen and treatment plan
-3
Make an Adult Protective Services referral because the Mozarts are overwhelmed and unable to cope.
There is no evidence of a need for APS referral
-3
Call the Mozarts’ son to inquire on what he is doing to provide support to his parents.
Mr. Mozart has not given permission for this
+2
Provide Mr. Mozart with a map and listing of the area locations of the chain pharmacy he uses. Offer to call and have his address updated.
Supports medication continuity and compliance.
-3
Advise the ED Physician Mr. Mozart needs to be a social admission until a more stable living situation can be established
This would be an inappropriate admission.
-2
Counsel the Mozarts on their inappropriate use of the ED for a non-emergency condition.

The Mozarts are new in town and overwhelmed, so the use of the ED is understandable in this circumstance.

+3
Ask Mr. Mozart what he believes would be the most helpful thing to get him back to his health baseline
Incorporates respect for patient goals and preferences.

121
Q

You learn he will be ready for discharge from the ED in 4-6 hours.
Question:
Which of the following pieces of information are most important to you?

A

-2
Is there documentation that Mr. Mozart is competent to make his own decisions?
There is no evidence that Mr. Mozart is not competent.

+3
Are there any expected medication changes?
Mr. Mozart is not yet established with a local pharmacy, will need assistance
-2
Is Mr. Mozart eligible for a SNF waiver for short term placement?
SNF placement is not indicated.

+3
What are Mr. Mozart’s care needs for the next few days?
Immediate post-discharge care needs drive the discharge plan

122
Q

new to the area: Based on the information gathered, which of the following are your priorities?

A

+3
Request a hospital dietitian consult in the ED to help the Mozarts strategize for appropriate food choices until their new kitchen is set up.
The meets both the care team and the patient’s goals
-3
Propose short term SNF placement to ensure management of his CHF while his home is unpacked and a local PCP is found.
Not an appropriate action
+2
Request an order for a home health visit tomorrow to monitor CHF status and medication management.
Reinforcement of teaching is needed, and a home assessment will be helpful to future PCP.

+2
Seek Mr. Mozart’s consent to reach out to his son to suggest increased emotional support and assistance getting the kitchen unpacked.
Supports patient goals and care plan.
-3
Insist Mr. Mozart choose a new PCP from the Hospital’s ACO panel and explain the advantages of affiliation with an ACO.
The patient has the right to choice and already admits to being confused by healthcare jargon
+1
Propose a Meals on Wheels referral to the Mozarts.
This might be a useful bridge, but getting the new kitchen up and running would be more helpful.

+3
Offer to make an appointment for follow up in two days in a hospital-based clinic and provide a list of area PCPs with new patient availability for Mr. Mozart’s consideration.

123
Q

This is her 3rd hospitalization in 6 months. You are the case manager assigned to Ms. Davis.
Question:
You are going in to see Ms. Davis for the initial case management assessment. Which of the following information would be a priority to gather as the case manager at this time

A

-1
When her last cardiac stress test was
This is not a priority at this time

+3
What previous discharge plan(s) consisted of.
Reviewing previous plans to assess what worked well and what could be done differently is important to make sure an appropriate and individualized plan is prepared.
0
Vaccination history
While vaccination and patient education around the pneumococcal vaccination when in a susceptible category (>65 years of age) is important, this is not a priority at this time.
+2
Current insurance coverage.
Understanding insurance coverage is instrumental in understanding resources and benefits available for planning purposes, including regulatory guidelines (i.e. SNF days or DME) .
-1
Transportation to the hospital.
While transportation will be important to address at some point to prepare for discharge, transportation to the hospital for this hospitalization is not a key piece of information to attain at this point.

+1
Functional status
Understanding the patient’s baseline functional status compared to current status is important in planning for post-hospitalization needs and goals.
+2
Where she lives
Since this patient arrived from a skilled nursing facility, it is important to establish her living situation and if she is residing there for short-term or long-term care. This information is also important when considering her Medicare benefits.
-1
Preferred pharmacy
This is not a priority at this time. It is also likely that she is using the pharmacy at the skilled nursing facility.
+2
Family or friends in her life
Understanding the support system for the patient and their involvement in her life will be helpful for discharge planning purposes.
+3
Patient priorities for this hospitalization and post-hospitalization
Establishing what the patient’s goals, preferences, and priorities are for hospitalization and post-hospitalization needs is key for patient-centered care.
-2
Employment status
This would not be a priority at this time.

+3
Patient’s understanding of hospitalization.
Patient understanding of hospitalization is a key factor in patient-centered care and engagement.

124
Q

A referral was made to the SNF of the patient’s choice near her sister and they accepted her for short-term therapy as well as a long-term resident.
Question:
Which of the following actions should you take at this time?

A

+3
Discuss the possibility of transitioning to oral antibiotics with the attending physician
As a steward of resources, the case manager must make sure the patient is receiving the appropriate services based on their needs. If the patient can be transitioned to a lower intensity of service that is appropriate and safe (IV to PO) this should be arranged.
-2
Request a referral for respiratory therapy and chest percussion therapy
Information provided indicated an improvement in respiratory status with no indication this is necessary.

+2
Update the accepting SNF with the most recent clinical information relevant to patient post-hospitalization needs
The case manager must make sure that the accepting facility is appropriately notified and prepared for patient’s needs in order to prevent delays in discharge
-2
Encourage Ms. Davis to acquire a Medicare Supplemental Plan.
The patient has Medicare A, B, and D and Medicaid, no indication for this.
-2
File a report with adult protective services
No indication for this based on information presented.

+3
Provide patient education around post-hospitalization needs
The patient’s understanding of the discharge plan is key to set her up for success in the management of the health or disease process. This ensures the patient is an active participant in her care.

125
Q

A patient elects to appeal discharge after IMM (Important Message from Medicare) delivery. The case manager must do the following:

A

Deliver a Detailed Notice of Discharge to the beneficiary and to the Quality Review Organization (QRO) by noon the day after QRO notification.

126
Q

A patient’s right to choice for post-acute home care services means:

A

The case manager must use reasonable due diligence to honor the patient’s right to choice, but if providers of choice are not available, the case manager may arrange services with other providers.

127
Q

A patient was highly functional in activities of daily living (ADLs) and independent activities of daily living (IADLs) prior to admission. How will this influence transition from acute hospital care to an acute rehabilitation setting?

A

Higher pre-admission ADL and IADL scores increase the likelihood that a patient will qualify for acute rehab.

128
Q

An IMM (Important Message from Medicare notice) is given to Mrs. J. who has been an inpatient in the hospital for 3 days. She is being discharged today. How many hours prior to discharge must the form be delivered?

A

4 hours and patient must not be pressured to leave during that time

129
Q

Under Medicare, coverage for skilled nursing facility (SNF) services for patients being discharged from the hospital involves the following timeline:

A

Must follow at least 3 consecutive medically necessary inpatient days, not counting the day of discharge, in the hospital.

(WRONG choice: ED and observation time counts toward 3 day stay)

130
Q

which is NOT true of CMS Conditions of Participation for discharge planning:

A

A) A discharge plan must be implemented before discharge.
B) NOT TRUE-Only Medicare patient fall under these guidelines.
C) Inpatients should be screened for their risk of not having proper discharge planning.
D) Plans should be developed for high-risk patients or as requested by the patient or physician.

131
Q

CMS Condition Code 44 does not require which of the following to be true:

A

A) The treating physician must agree with the change to Observation in writing.
B) The proposed conversion from inpatient to observation must be evaluated and approved by physician members of the hospital UM Committee.
C) NOT TRUE-The patient has a right to appeal the decision and to delay the conversion until an appeal ruling has been made.
D) The patient must be informed of the conversion from inpatient to observation prior to discharge.

132
Q

required component of a hospital’s Utilization Management (UM) plan?

A

A process to manage denials from Medicare and Medicaid.

132
Q

Under the CMS Conditions of Participation for Discharge Planning for Hospitals, the hospital must provide a discharge planning evaluation to the patients identified as high risk, as well as:

A

If requested by the patient or person acting on the patient’s behalf.

133
Q

Observation status is used to:

A

Determine if inpatient admission is needed.

133
Q

When it is determined that a Medicare patient does not meet admission criteria for acute hospital level of care, the case manager’s next step should be:

A

Refer for secondary physician review.

133
Q

Under the Conditions for Participation, CMS sets clear requirements for assessment and discharge planning for those patients who may suffer an adverse outcome if the assessment is not completed. The need for a discharge planning consult may be identified by which of the following?

A

Physician consult, Patient and/or Caregiver request, and medical record review

(NOT admission status or payor)

133
Q

Medicare SNF requirements

A

hospital inpatient for a medically necessary stay of at least 3 consecutive calendar days (COUNT OVERNIGHTS)
Time spent in observation or in an emergency room doesn’t count toward a medically necessary 3-day qualifying inpatient hospital stay

can be transferred to Medicare-certified SNF within 30 days after hospital discharge

134
Q

Exhausted Medicare Part A Benefit for SNF

A

For each benefit period, Part A covers up to 20 full days of care
After that, Part A covers up to an additional 80 days, with the patient paying coinsurance for each day
After 100 days, the SNF coverage available during that benefit period exhausts, and the patient pays for all care, except certain Medicare Part B services

135
Q

SNF benefit period.

A

Benefit Period
We measure SNF coverage in benefit periods (sometimes called spells of illness), beginning the day a patient admits to a hospital or SNF as an inpatient
A benefit period ends after a patient discharges from a hospital or has had 60 consecutive days of SNF skilled care
Once a benefit period ends, a new benefit period begins when patient admits to a hospital or SNF
New benefit periods don’t begin with a change in diagnosis, condition, or calendar year

136
Q

Condition of participation: Discharge planning.

A

Standard: Discharge planning process. The hospital’s discharge planning process must identify, at an early stage of hospitalization, those patients who are likely to suffer adverse health consequences upon discharge in the absence of adequate discharge planning and must provide a discharge planning evaluation for those patients so identified as well as for other patients upon the request of the patient, patient’s representative, or patient’s physician.

137
Q

When a Medicare patient is not cooperating with the discharge planning process, i.e., refuses to provide SNF or agency choices, the case manager should:

A

Document in the medical record the refusal of the patient or the patient’s legally responsible representative to participate in discharge planning or comply with a discharge plan.

138
Q

A case manager needs to send a referral, including demographics, history and physical, and therapy notes to a home health agency. Which of the following statements is true?

A

No specific patient consent is required for releasing information related to treatment, payment, or healthcare operations

139
Q

Upon the case manager’s admission assessment of a patient, he/she discovers that the patient does not have insurance. The case manager should:

A

Inform the physician that the patient is uninsured, as this may be an important factor in determining the discharge medication regimen.

140
Q

Which elements would be a part of a pre-admission case management assessment?

A

YES-Identification of primary caregivers and assessment of the discharge needs and barriers.

NO- Discussion of expected length of stay and current insurance plan deductuctible.
NO -Assessment of pet-sitting and barriers to discharge.
NO -Patient’s level of education and discussion of expected length of stay.

141
Q

The Uniform Health Care Decisions Act (2000) clearly defines who can act on behalf of an adult individual who lacks capacity and does not have a legally executed advance directive or healthcare power of attorney. Which is the correct order of priority in these situations?

A

Spouse, adult child, parent, sibling

142
Q

The tool used most often by case managers to establish an expected length of stay for a patient is:

A

The geometric mean for the working DRG

143
Q

Which HINN should be used in association with the Hospital Discharge Appeal Notices to inform beneficiaries of their potential liability for a non-covered continued stay

A

HINN 12

144
Q

The process for a Medicare patient signing onto the Medicare Hospice Benefit but remaining in a facility under general inpatient care (GIP) for pain control or symptom management includes which of the following?

A

The patient elects the Hospice benefit and identifies choice for hospice agency to provide services.

145
Q

CMS Conditions of Participation require the discharge plan must identify any home health agency or SNF to which the patient is referred whereby the hospital has a disclosable financial interest, and any home health agency or SNF that has a disclosable financial interest in a hospital. This requirement is met by:

A

The inclusion of this information on the Home Health agency/SNF choice list.

The answer is NOT “Providing patient choice.”

146
Q

Changes in CMS models of reimbursement impact case management in which of the following ways?

A

Increased emphasis on preadmission screening

147
Q

The implementation of the discharge plan for patients belongs to:

A

The hospital case manager.

(NOT the patient)

148
Q

According to CMS, which of the following required documents governs day-to-day operations within the case management department of every hospital?

A

The Utilization Management Plan

the answer is NOT written hospital policy

149
Q

Preadmission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR) is a federal requirement to help ensure that individuals are not inappropriately placed in nursing homes for long-term care. PASRR requires:

A

All applicants to a Medicaid-certified nursing facility are to be evaluated for mental illness and/or intellectual disability.

150
Q

In order for a traditional Medicare beneficiary to qualify for SNF coverage, he or she must have a 3-day hospital stay meeting which of the following conditions?

A

Consecutive inpatient hospital stay

151
Q

Medicare patient, will be ready for discharge home with homecare tomorrow. Suddenly she refuses the plan for discharge and wants to stay the weekend until her daughter gets into town. Despite the case manager’s efforts to arrange for additional in-home attendant care, she adamantly refuses to leave. Which of the following does the case manager proceed with first?

A

Ensure she has received her Important Message from Medicare.

152
Q

Which of the following statements is true about a patient’s bed billing status?

A

Patients in a licensed inpatient bed on Observation status are considered outpatients.

153
Q

In addition to hospitals, what other regulatory organizational tool is used for oversight of outcomes metrics to be monitored and measured?

A

Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems Project Team

154
Q

The case manager has identified appropriate post-acute care services for a patient. The patient’s payer has refused to provide authorization and instead has offered that they would consider authorization at a lower level of care. The case manager’s next step should be:

A

Ask the payer for the appeals process and the name of their medical director for MD to MD review.

155
Q

Ownership of the inpatient medical record belongs to which of the following?

A

the hospital

156
Q

When should Condition Code 44 be used?

A

When the utilization review committee determines and documents inpatient care is not required, the physician concurs, and the change in patient status occurs prior to discharge or release of patient.

157
Q

A traditional Medicare patient is projected to need 14 days of IV antibiotic infusion after discharge. In discussing how to plan for this need with the patient and family, the case manager advises:

A

Medicare does not cover this service in the home setting, and recommends consideration of short term skilled nursing facility placement.

158
Q

The case manager is part of a team gathered to discuss discharge delays on the weekends. They decide to use a “fishbone diagram” to better understand the important causes of the problem. They should start the process by listing the areas of concern and dividing them into the following categories:

A

People, environment, systems and equipment

The answer is NOT - Physician issues, staff issues, administrative issues

159
Q

Capturing potential preventable occurrences or events during a patient’s hospital stay that can increase the patient’s length of stay is an example of which of the following?

A

Avoidable Day/Avoidable Delay

The answer is NOT Risk management

160
Q

In most cases, the appropriate frequency for ongoing chart documentation for inpatients is:

A

Every 3 days, or more often when an update is indicated by change in patient condition or change in discharge planning.

NOT daily

161
Q

Components of a comprehensive case management assessment include:

A

Current living situation and health insurance coverage

162
Q

Which statement is true about commercial medical necessity criteria products for Utilization Review?

A

These products are written by clinical professionals based on reviews of best practices and regulatory expectations.

163
Q

Which of the following tool(s) are best used for assessing the risk of a patient for readmission?

A

Evidence-based risk stratification tools such as BOOST, LACE, Project Red

164
Q

Mrs. Hamilton is ready for discharge to a SNF. The patient’s family is refusing an available bed, stating that it is too far away. The case manager’s next step would be:

A

Issue the Important Message from Medicare to the patient and family, reinforce that the patient is medically stable for discharge.

165
Q

Which is the most important to facilitate in case management preadmission screening and assessment prior to elective surgery?

A

Obtaining prior authorization

The answer is NOT developing discharge plan

166
Q

Medicare’s payment structure for most hospitals is currently:

A

Prospective Payment System/Diagnosis-Related Groups (PPS/DRG)

167
Q

The Important Message from Medicare (IMM) is to be delivered to all Medicare Eligible Inpatients:

A

At inpatient admission or status change to Inpatient, and again if discharge occurs more than two days after delivery of the initial notice.

168
Q

Evaluation of the medical necessity, appropriateness, and efficiency of the use of healthcare services, procedures, and facilities under the provisions of the applicable health benefits plan is referred to as:

A

Utilization Management

169
Q

Use of Condition Code 44 is dependent upon meeting which of the following requirements?

A

Change from inpatient to observation is made before the patient is discharged and the patient has been informed.

170
Q

Harry Crowe has been placed on the case manager’s unit with a chronic Arterio-Venous Malformation. He needs frequent blood transfusions for this problem. He has an order for 3 units of blood. What should be his patient status?

A

Inpatient

171
Q

What is the first step needed in planning to determine transition of care interventions, sometimes called “plan for day”:

A

Review the clinical condition and medical necessity criteria to determine the appropriate level of care.

172
Q

All of the following are true regarding the discharge of a Medicare patient

A

A) A patient can appeal the doctor’s decision to discharge.
.
C) A patient has until midnight on the discharge day to appeal his or her discharge.
D) The request may be in writing or by telephone and must be before the patient leaves the hospital.

NOT- B) The patient’s financial liability begins on the day he or she appeals a discharge

173
Q

Components of a case management assessment include which of the following?

A

Response to illness, functional status, and health behaviors

The answer is NOT-level of education, psychosocial history

174
Q

according to ACMA, Care coordination has 5 bullets under it:

A

Screening/ Identification
Assessment
Plan of Care
Sequencing
Communication

175
Q

according to ACMA, Compliance has 5 bullets:

A

transition Management
Transition coordination- identification
community partnerships
transition coordination
Follow up

176
Q

according to ACMA, Utilization Management has 4 bullets

A

medical necessity
payer interface
avoidable delays/ days
denials/ appeals

177
Q

According to ACMA, expectations of case managers are:

A

accountability
professionalism
collaboration
care coordination
advocacy
resource management

178
Q

What does a higher case mix index (CMI) indicate?

A

Patient population that is sicker and requires more resources

179
Q

Original Medicare will cover costs associated with skilled nursing facility care during each benefit period as long as it is medically necessary. A benefit period begins the day someone starts receiving inpatient care. When does a benefit period end?

A

After the individual has been out of the hospital or SNF for 60 days in a row

180
Q

Hybrid, triad, and remote UM are all examples of what?

A

Case management models

181
Q

While going over her discharge instructions, the patient’s daughter informs the physician that the patient is scheduled to have an out-patient MRI of her right shoulder the day after next. The daughter requests to have the imaging completed prior to her discharge, explaining that it is often difficult for her to get time off work to bring the patient to appointments. The physician, not wanting to disgruntle the family member, places an order for an MRI of the right shoulder. What action should the case manager take first?

A

Contact the physician advisor to confer with the ordering physician to discuss the inappropriate use of resources

182
Q

Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF) stays are covered under which part of Medicare?

A

part B

183
Q

An undocumented patient with a medical emergency must be provided care at which of the following?

A

Any Emergency Department

(the answer is NOT any public hospital

184
Q

Pre-Admission Screening and Resident Review (PASRR) is required for nursing home placement when:

A

The nursing home facility is Medicaid certified

185
Q

Any hospital participating in Medicare and Medicaid programs is required by law to provide emergency medical treatment to anyone who presents to their facility, regardless of their ability to pay for the treatment rendered. What is the federal law that governs this activity?

A

EMTALA

186
Q

CMS states in order for Medicare beneficiaries to qualify for Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF) services they must have had a hospital stay of at least three consecutive inpatient days within the last how many days?

A

30 days

187
Q

How often do patients receiving observation services need to be seen by a physician?

A

At least two times within 24 hours

188
Q

During which of the following is physician supervision required?

A

Dialysis

189
Q

Which of the following is an example of a variance?

A

Patient’s transfer to Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF) was delayed due to a lack of available transportation

190
Q

Reimbursement of healthcare providers on the basis of expected costs for clinically-defined episodes of care best defines which of the following?

A

Bundled payments

191
Q

Which of the following is a key area of emphasis for the CMS Conditions of Participation?

A

Patient self-determination

(the answer is NOT utilization review)

192
Q

What is the primary goal of multidisciplinary care conferences?

A

To solve complex multidisciplinary patient care problems

(the answer is NOT to plan and provide for optimal patient outcomes)

193
Q

A case manager meets with a patient and her daughter to review the IMM and discuss the plan to discharge to home tomorrow with home care services. The patient’s daughter, and Power of Attorney, expresses concerns about the patient’s readiness for discharge and reports to the case manager that she plans to file an appeal with the QIO. What is the case manager’s next action:

A

Notify the physician and issue a Detailed Notice of Discharge

194
Q

When does discharge planning ideally begin?

A

During admission

(the answer for this basic question is NOT before admission)

195
Q

The process of meeting with patients and caregivers to set expectations about care needs and identify potential barriers to discharge is part of which case management domain?

A

planning

(the answer is NOT screening and assessment)

196
Q

A patient is on day 52 of their Medicare Part A benefit period. Their last hospital stay happened from September 5th to September 10th. They are admitted again to the hospital from October 1st to October 12th. During this hospital stay, what will happen to their Medicare Part A coverage?

A

They will have to pay a co-pay each day

197
Q

A 79-year-old Medicare beneficiary was admitted from the emergency room last night with weakness. The patient was placed under an observation status. Physical Therapy (PT) evaluated the patient this morning and recommended continued physical rehabilitation. The attending physician has asked the case manager to set up transfer to a Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF) today. What is the appropriate response from the case manager?

A

Remind the physician that Medicare beneficiaries require a 3-day qualifying inpatient hospital stay prior to transfer to SNF

198
Q

Which of the following is a comparative data report that summarizes one provider’s Medicare claims data statistics for services vulnerable to improper Medicare payments?

A

PEPPER report

199
Q

Once a discharge appeal has been filed by the patient, the burden of proof regarding the appropriateness of discharge is on the:

A

hospital

(the answer is NOT case management or QIO)

200
Q

The purpose of the Hospital Consumers Assessment of Health Care Providers and Systems (HCAHCPS) is to:

A

Incentivize hospitals by determining percent increase or decrease in payment in the following year

201
Q

The ED case manager identifies a patient that returned from a skilled nursing facility noting the patient did not obtain his dialysis for the last two weeks since the last discharge. She called the facility to identify why the patient had not had dialysis. Per the facility the patient had his transportation arranged through his Medicaid and they did not transport him. The case manager works with the insurance company to resolve the issue. What would this action be considered?

A

Evaluation

(the answer is NOT care coordination)

202
Q

The Patient Centered Medical Home is one model intended to address what?

A

Population health

203
Q

Which of the following best defines the ethical principle of beneficence?

A

to do what is best for the patient

204
Q

When counting days for length of stay, which of the following would a case manager not count?

A

Day of discharge

205
Q

What is the first step in the Six Sigma Methodology of process improvement?

A

Define project goals

(the answer is NOT define the problem)

206
Q

What best describes the difference between an HMO and other managed care organizations?

A

HMOs set a fee without regard to the amount or kind of services provided

207
Q

Discharge planning activities are required by all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987

208
Q

The Important Message from Medicare (IMM) must be reviewed with Medicare patients:

A

On admission, within 2 days of discharge but no later than 4 hours prior to discharge

209
Q

A Medicare patient is admitted with inpatient status. A case manager conducts a level of care review on day two and finds that the patient does not meet criteria for an inpatient level of care. The case manager contacts the attending physician and he agrees to a status change to observation. The physician documents his agreement and enters a new level of care order. This scenario is known as?

A

Condition Code 44

( answer is NOT MOON)

210
Q

In contrast to traditional fee-for-service models, payment-for-performance reimbursement models are intended to drive hospitals to place an emphasis on which of the following?

A

Quality and safety

211
Q

A hospital’s Case Mix Index (CMI) represents the average diagnosis-related group (DRG) relative weight for that facility. What is this value useful for?

A

Allocation of resources toward a specific patient population

212
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
only unanticipated treatments and procedures that are not included in the advance directive can be made by the legally appointed durable power of attorney for healthcare decisions

A

TRUE

213
Q

Many tools are used for assessing a patient for readmission. The case manager must be cognizant of readmission because:

A

Readmission penalties can be costly to the organization

214
Q

Which is an example of administrative denial?

A

The case manager forgets to call the managed care payor in time and there was a late notification

215
Q

When should Condition Code 44 be used?

A

When the Utilization Review committee determines and documents inpatient care as not required, the physician concurs, and the change in patient status occurs prior to discharge or release of the patient

216
Q

Avoidable days should be recorded for:

A

Patients who appeal discharges

217
Q

Under the coordination of benefits rules, which spouse’s insurance is used?

A

Under the coordination of benefits rules, the policy of an active working spouse is always primary.