Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Ob Gyn > Case Files Notes > Flashcards

Case Files Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Hormone changes in menopause

A

Inhibin decreases
Leads to increased FSH and LH

Lastly estradiol levels fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sides effects of decreased estradiol (after menopause)

A

Vaginal atrophy
Bone loss
Vasomotor symptoms (hot flashes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should be added to post menopause estrogen therapy and why?

A

Progestin (if still has uterus)

To prevent endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Premature ovarian failure, define

A

Cessation of ovarian function due to atresia of follicles prior to age 40 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Effect of oxytocin on labor

A

Enhances contraction strength and/or frequency

Does not affect cervical dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Protracted active phase of labor, define

A

Def: during active phase, some progress in cervical dilations, but less than expected. Abnormally slow dilation or fetal head descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Arrest of active phase of labor

A

No progress at all in cervical dilation during active phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Threatened abortion

A

Pregnancy with vaginal spotting during first half of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Discriminatory level hCG for transvaginal US to detect intrauterine pregnancy

A

1500-2000 mIU/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HCG level for ectopic pregnancy.

What other exam finding indicates ectopic?

A

HCG in or above discriminatory zone but…

Finding: no intrauterine pregnancy on ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Indications for laparoscopy or laparotomy early in pregnancy

A
  • hypotension or volume depleted

- severe abdominal/ pelvic pain or adnexal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Myomectomy

A

Surgical removal of fibroids from the uterus. Leaving the uterus intact, treatment for women who want to become pregnant and have fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment for placenta accreta

A

Most often results in total abdominal hysterectomy

Often leave placenta in place to prevent massive hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Accreta:
Increta:
Precreta:

A

Accreta: issue with decidua basalis layer, placenta attached to myometrium
Increta: into myometrium
Precreta: thru myometrium, sometimes into bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Risks for placenta accreta

A

Multiple uterine surgeries (including c-sections)

  • placenta in low lying or anterior position
  • placenta previa
  • implantation over lower uterine segment
  • uterine cutterage
  • fetal down syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes conjunctivitis or blindness in a fetus?

A

Gonorrhea or chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Treatment for gonorrhea and chlamydia

A

Ceftriaxone (gonorrhea)

Doxycycline (chlamydia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common cause or first trimester spontaneous abortion

A

Chromosomal abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Distinguish btw incompetent cervix and inevitable abortion

A

Incompetent cervix= painless dilation of cervix with absence of uterine contractions (tx with ligature at level of internal os, called cerclage)

Inevitable abortion = open cervix with presence of contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bleeding

A

Think of a type of spontaneous abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Antepartum bleeding time frame

A

Bleeding that happens > 20 wks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Frothy yellow-green discharge,
Strawberry cervicitis
Motile ovoid protozoa with flagella

A

Trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cervical motion tenderness

A

Peritoneal sign

Classical assoc with PID or ectopic preg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Medical management of ectopic pregnancy

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
of days to follow B-hCG levels s/p methotrexate to tx ectopic pregnancy How far should it fall?
Day 3 and 7 s/p methotrexate Should see 15% decrease in bHCG
26
Timing to repeat bHCG for concern of ectopic pregnancy
48 hrs and look for 66% increase
27
Most common cause of sepsis in pregnancy?
Acute pyelonephritis
28
Triad of congenital toxoplasmosis
Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
29
Why should we not give nifedipine and magnesium sulfate together?
Both block calcium channels (nifedipine = CCB, Mag = membrane stabilizer/competotive inhibition of calcium), therefore risk of HYPOTENSION
30
amniotic fluid index and cut-off calues
estimate of amount of amniotic fluid and index for fetal well being normal AFI = 8-18 oligohydramnios = 20-24 Low AFI can mean ROM, placenta problems, birth defects, or maternal complications
31
PROM
premature ROM
32
PPROM
preterm premature ROM
33
prolonged ROM
ROM >18 hrs before onset of labor
34
Things associated with breech presentation
Prematurity, multiple gestation, genetic disorders, polyhydramnios, hydrocephaly, anencephaly, placenta previa, uterine anomalies and uterine fibroids
35
Asthma worsens during pregnancy for 40% of women, what do you use to treat them?
corticosteroids or cromolyn sodium
36
treatment of syphilis during pregnancy?
Penicillin G -if allergic, make sure to desensitize pt to PCN first
37
Bacterial vaginosis - diagnosis - treatment
+ whiff test clue cells -Tx: metronidazole
38
which ureter is most likely to be compressed by uterus during pregnancy? right or left? why?
Right ureter (and right ovarian vein) - left is cushioned by the sigmoid colon
39
what metabolic derrangement to women get in pregnancy? and why?
respiratory alkalosis, due to increased minute ventilation (leads to hypoventilation)
40
how does plasma osmolality change in pregnancy? what does this make ladies more susceptible to?
plasma osmolality decreases - inc susceptibility to pulm edema
41
Most effective screening test for down syndrome
Cell free DNA
42
dosage of Folic acid for women w/ h/o pregnancy w/ neural tube defect
4mg | regular proph dose is 0.6mg
43
most common reason for elevated MSAFP?
under-estimation of gestational age
44
late decels =
uteroplacental insufficiency
45
early decels =
head compression
46
variable decels =
cord compression
47
Mothers with gestational DMhave infants at increased risk for...
hypoglycemia, polycythemia, hyperbilirubinemia, hypocalcemia and respiratory distress
48
Which ones have small babies, DM1 or DM2? | What type of glycemia do babies of DM1 and DM2 have?
Small babies = DM1 Large babies = DM2 Both have hypoglycemia
49
what characteristics do infants with chorio have at birth?
Lethargic, pale with high temperature.
50
Mastitis tx
Antibiotics (to cover strep flora from infants mouth and staph from mom's skin) - want to prevent abscess formation
51
PP endometritis - causative organism type? - initial treatment?
- Infxn with normal vaginal floral, both anaerobes and aerobic bact = polymicrobial - Tx: gent and clinda (covers both aerobes and anaerobes) * gent + amp can also be used, but covers mostly aerobes only
52
best way to suppress lactation in a PP patient
Breast-binding, ice packs, analgesia
53
Mastitis tx
Antibiotics | to cover strep flora from infants mouth and staph from mom's skin
54
hormone for milk let down
oxytocin -stimulated by baby suckling the nipple
55
hormone for milk production
prolactin
56
MSAFP levels in pregnancy - increase =? - decrease =?
Increased MSAFP = neural tube defects, ventral wall defects, multiple gestations (will also have larger uterus) Decreased MSAFP= aneuplodies (trisomies)
57
Method for diagnosing cervical incompetence
TVUS | - assess for funneling of cervix or shortening
58
Tx: septic abortion
D&C (uterine evacuation) and antibiotics
59
First line treatment for Endometriosis
NSAIDs, OCP's *definitive treatment is Diagnostic Laparotomy.
60
Contraindication to OCP's
>35 yo and a smoker
61
Interstitial cystitis. - def - signs/symptoms
Suprapubic pain, urinary frequency, painful coitus, waking up from sleep to urinate
62
Postmenopausal bleeding... Think this until proven otherwise
In women taking hormonal replacement therapy, think endometrial cancer until proven otherwise
63
Painless vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy
Placenta previa Often first sign is postcoital spotting
64
Painful vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy
Placental abruption Complication= coagulopathy
65
Post partum amenorrhea in the setting of PP hemorrhage
Sheehan syndrome (anterior pituitary hemorrhagic necrosis)
66
Hormone ratio in PCOS
LH:FSH 2:1 Estrogen excess (from adipose tissue) without progesterone
67
Pseudocyesis
Disorder where women have signs of pregnancy and believe they are pregnant, but really are not pregnant. It is a form of conversion disorder
68
What is HCG hormonal action?
Maintain corpus luteum
69
What are the hormonal actions of progesterone early in pregnancy?
Inhibit uterine contractions | Prepare endometrium for implantation of fertilized egg
70
Ruptured ovarian cyst
Severe pelvic pain after sex or strenuous activity | Ultrasound shows free fluid around ovary
71
Associations with DES (diethylstilbestrol)
Clear cell adenocarcinoma Structural anomalies of reproductive tract Infertility Birth anomalies
72
during pregnancy/labor intense abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, loss of fetal station; h/o cesarean section
uterine rupture
73
most common indication for hysterectomy in USA
symptomatic leiomyomas (fibroids)
74
irregular midline, firm, nontender mass that moves contiguously with the cervix; indicates what?
uterine leiomyoma
75
Fibroadenoma definition
benign, smooth muscle tumor of the breast, usually in young women
76
What type of breast disease?: | 34 yo F complains of unilateral serosanguineous nipple discharge from breast, expressed form 1 duct. no mass palpated
Intraductal papilloma (small benign tumors that grow in lactation ducts)
77
What type of breast disease? | 27 yo F comlpains of breast pain, which increases with menses. Breast has lumpy-bumpy sensation.
Fibrocystic changes (premenopausal, cyclic, painful, engorged breast, more pronounced during menstruation)
78
What type of breast disease? | 47 yo F has 1.5 cm right breast mass with nipple retraction and skin dimpling over the mass.
Breast Cancer
79
What type of breast disease? | 18 yo F has asymptomatic, 1 cm, non-tender, mobile right breast mass
Fibroadenoma (most common cause of dominant breast mass in adolescents = firm, rubbery, mobile, and solid bump) -US to image since tissue is dense in young women
80
5 etiologies of infertility
1. ovulatory 2. uterine 3. tubal 4. male factor 5. endometriosis
81
Oral contraceptives decrease risk of ______ cancer and increase risk of ________ cancer.
- Decrease risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers | - Increase risk of breast cancer

Ob Gyn (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions