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CTO > Cartilage, Bone, and Musklez > Flashcards

Cartilage, Bone, and Musklez Flashcards

0
Q

skeletal muscle also includes (3):

A

tongue, upper esophagus, diaphragm

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1
Q

Which layer of muscle connective tissue is closest to deep fascia?

A

epimysium

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2
Q

five functions of muscle

A

produce body movements, stabilize body positions, regulate organ volume, flow of substances within the body, temperature

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3
Q

properties of muscle tissue (5)

A

excitability, elasticity, extensibility, conductivity, contractility

(EEECC)

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4
Q

Method of regeneration skeletal muscle?

A

limited regeneration via satelite cells

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5
Q

Where would you find T Tubules in relation to sarcomere?

A

at boundary of I/M lines

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6
Q

what is sarcolemma made of?

A

plasma membrane of the cell and external lamina

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7
Q

what layer is the epimysium adjacent to?

A

deep fascia

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8
Q

Cell types in cartilage?

A

chondrocytes/chondroblasts

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9
Q

Cartilage ground substance is made of:

A

glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins

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10
Q

cartilage glycosaminoglycans include:

A

hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfate

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11
Q

cartilage glycoproteins include:

A

chondronectin

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12
Q

types of fibers in cartilage include:

A

elastic and collagen

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13
Q

three cartilage types

A

hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage

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14
Q

collagen type in hyaline cartilage

A

Type II

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15
Q

What cartilage forms temporary skeleton in embryo?

A

hyaline

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16
Q

epiphyseal plates are made up of ____ cartilage

A

hyaline

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17
Q

articular surfaces of moveable joints are made of

A

hyaline cartilage

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18
Q

ends of ribs = ___ cartilage

A

hyaline

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19
Q

respiratory passages = ____ cartilage type

A

hyaline

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20
Q

Why is elastic cartilage yellow?

A

elastin

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21
Q

Fiber types in elastic cartilage

A

Type II collagen and elastic fibers

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22
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found?

A

Eustachian tube, auricle of the ear, epiglottis

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23
Q

Fibers in fibrocartilage?

A

Type I collagen

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24
Q

fibrocartilage is associated with ____ CT

A

dense

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25
Q

Where to find fibrocartilage?

A

menisci of the knee, intervertebral and articular discs, pubic symphysis

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26
Q

SOX-9

A

induces transition of mesenchymal cells to chondroblasts (transcription factor)

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27
Q

isogenous nest

A

multiple chondrocytes in a single lacunae

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28
Q

Which cartilage types lack perichondrium?

A

articular and fibrocartilage

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29
Q

inner layer of perichondrium contains:

A

chondrogenic cells

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30
Q

what is the periochondrium?

A

dense CT outer layer of cartilage

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31
Q

perichondrium is a source of:

A

nutrition and chondrogenic cells

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32
Q

Why do new chondrocyte cell matrices stain darker after mitosis?

A

increased amount of proteoglycans

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33
Q

What is an implication of cartilage lacking perichondrium?

A

No appositional growth and therefore, weak repair

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34
Q

5 risk factors to osteoarthritis

A

> 45 years of age, female, genetic defects of cartilage, obesity, previous joint damage

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35
Q

Fiber types in bone

A

Type I Collagen

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36
Q

What types of ground substance in bone?

A

proteoglycans, glycoproteins

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37
Q

What types of glycoproteins in bone?

A

osteonectin, osteocalcin

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38
Q

cell types in bones?

A

osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

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39
Q

Bones are organs comprised of (6):

A
  1. bone tissue
  2. hematopoietic tissue
  3. adipose tissue
  4. cartilage
  5. blood vessels
  6. nerves
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40
Q

Periosteum is composed of two layers

A

fibrous outer layer and osteogenic layer

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41
Q

endosteum

A

thin layer inside bone that is source of osteoblasts

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42
Q

bone matrix converts ____ into ____ which are contained in ____

A

osteoblasts –> osteocytes in lacunae

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43
Q

source of osteoclasts

A

hematopoietic cells

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44
Q

Where are osteoprogenitor cells found?

A

periosteum and endosteum

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45
Q

when are osteoprogenitor cells active?

A

bone growth and repair

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46
Q

osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into

A

osteoblasts

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47
Q

where are osteoblasts found?

A

bone surface

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48
Q

what do osteoblasts produce?

A

organic components of the osteoid (bone matrix)

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49
Q

active shape vs. inactive shape of osteoblasts?

A

active = rounded, inactive = flat

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50
Q

When does an osteoblast become an osteocyte?

A

once it is surrounded in matrix…it will never again replicate…

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51
Q

What is Stella’s favorite flower?

A

catnip

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52
Q

What actually becomes calcified in the bones?

A

the osteoid

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53
Q

Describe osteoblast deposition of matrix.

A

It is polar. They deposit on the side towards the existing bone. Osteoblasts behind them will secrete additional matrix to cover them.

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54
Q

What is the function of osteocytes?

A

maintenance of bone matrix

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55
Q

describe osteocyte communication with other cells

A

cytoplasmic connections via canaliculi which have gap junctions

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56
Q

osteoclasts are derived from

A

monocytes

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57
Q

osteoclasts: relative size? mobility? nucleus?

A

large, motile, multinucleated

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58
Q

clear zone

A

area of osteoclasts with a tight seal between cytoplasm and the ruffled border which stains lightly. few organelles are present here.

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59
Q

clear zone surrounds

A

periphery of ruffled border

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60
Q

clear zone is rich in

A

actin filaments

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61
Q

clear zone serves as

A

site of osteoclast adherence to the bone matrix

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62
Q

ruffled border

A

site of bone resorption which contains infoldings of the plasma membrane

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63
Q

Gross organization of bone vs. microscopic

A

compact/spongy (cancellous) vs. immature/mature

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64
Q

what forces do spongy bone resist? compact?

A

compression…bending

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65
Q

immature bone is ____, _____

A

primary, woven

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66
Q

immature bone has ___ osteocytes, ___ mineral content, and _____ array of collagen fibers

A

many osteocytes, low mineral content, irregular array of collagen fibers

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67
Q

mature bone is _____, _____

A

secondary, lamellar

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68
Q

spongy bone contains ____ lamellae, compact bone contains _____ lamellae

A

parallel; circular (osteons)

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69
Q

what are osteons arranged around?

A

Haversian canals

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70
Q

Harversian canals contain

A

artery and vein

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71
Q

fibers in concentric lamellae are organized at ____ to add strength to bone matrix

A

right angles

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72
Q

between layers of the osteon are

A

lacunae containing osteocytes

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73
Q

how are adjacent lacunae connected?

A

canaliculi

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74
Q

Volkman’s canals

A

connect the blood vessels of adjacent Haversian systems

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75
Q

running parallel to the bone surface and adjacent to the periosteum/endosteum are

A

outer and inner circumferential lamellae

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76
Q

what fills the space between osteons?

A

interstitial lamellae

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77
Q

what are interstitial lamellae

A

remnants of prior osteons that were partially removed by osteoclasts during remodeling. they occupy the spaces between osteons.

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78
Q

in both osteogenesis processes, bone is first

A

produced in a trabecular network

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79
Q

flat bones/irregular bones formed by

A

intramembranous ossification

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80
Q

I.O. is the process used by what two layers of bone

A

periosteum/endosteum

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81
Q

fractures heal by a process analogous to

A

IO

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82
Q

how does IO start?

A

condensation of mesenchyme

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83
Q

mesenchyme differentiate into ____ in intramembranous ossification

A

osteoprogrenitor cells –> osteoblasts

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84
Q

what happens to spaces between trabeculae in areas that will remain spongy bone?

A

filled with hematopoietic tissue

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85
Q

what happens to trabeculae in formation of compact bone?

A

compaction - the trabeculae thicken until intervening spaces are obliterated

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86
Q

initial bone that is laid down in the process of bone formation is ____ or ____ bone.

A

woven or immature

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87
Q

when is immature bone converted to mature?

A

during bone remodeling

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88
Q

fontanelles

A

gaps in flat bones that don’t initially meet one another. allows for compressibility of the skull and allows the skull to expand with brain growth.

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89
Q

endochondral ossification is used to form

A

long, short, and some irregular bones

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90
Q

prior to conversion into bone, the bones formed by endochondral ossification are

A

hyaline cartilage models

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91
Q

EO, Step 1: Formation of cartilage model

A

clustering of mesenchymal cells with transformation into chondroblasts which lay down matrix, encase in lacunae, then become chondrocytes

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92
Q

EO, Step 2: Growth of cartilage model

A

appositional and interstitial

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93
Q

EO, Step 3: Formation of the bone collar

A

molecular signals cause perichondrial cells to differentiate into osteoblasts which generate the compact bone collar just below periosteum

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94
Q

EO, Step 4: Chondrocytes hypertrophy

A

chondrocytes beneat the bone collar begin to swell and die because nutrition is no longer diffusing

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95
Q

EO, Step 5: hypertrophic cells secrete:

A

type X collagen, alkaline phosphatase, and VEGF

- promote calcification of cartilage matrix and vascular invasion

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96
Q

EO, Step 6: death of ___ by ____

A

chondrocytes and disintegration of the matrix by matrix metalloproteases

  • begins in shaft of the long bone, later involves epiphyses
  • osteoprogenitor cells also invade with the blood vessels and differentiate into osteoblasts
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97
Q

EO, Step 7: invasion of ____ and ____

A

invasion of periosteal blood vessels and osteoprogenitor cells by ossification

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98
Q

EO, Step 8: osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into:

A

osteoblasts that secrete osteoid.

  • first occurs in areas of calcified cartilage (appears purple)
  • pink areas = osteoid being laid down around spicules.
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99
Q

EO, Step 9: formation of _____ _______ centers

A

secondary ossification centers

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100
Q

primary vs secondary ossification centers

A

shaft = primary, secondary = ends of long bones

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101
Q

what separates ossification centers?

A

cartilage plate

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102
Q

at the end of EO, where does cartilage remain?

A

epiphyseal plate and articular surfaces

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103
Q

a long bone can only increase in length if

A

the epiphyseal cartilage (growth plate) is intact

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104
Q

5 Zones in the cartilage of epiphyseal plate

A

resting zone, zone of proliferation, zone of hypertrophy, zone of calcification, zone of ossification

105
Q

resting zone is made up of

A

hyaline cartilage

106
Q

in zone of proliferation, chondrocytes

A

rapidly mitose and form columns of cells

107
Q

in zone of hypertrophy, cells ____ and secrete ____

A

hypertrophy and secrete Type X collagen, alkaline phopshatase, and VEGF

108
Q

in zone of calcification what happens to cells?

A

matrix calcified, cells die

109
Q

What is happening in zone of ossification?

A

blood vessels invade bringing osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts deposit bone matrix on calcified matrix

110
Q

epiphyseal plate contributes to length or width?

A

both

111
Q

with respect to the epiphyseal plate, where does bone growth occur? bone deposition?

A

proliferation of cartilage on epiphyseal side of the plate, bone deposition on the diaphyseal side

112
Q

what stimulates activity on the epiphyseal plate?

A

growth hormone

113
Q

why can’t bones grow in length during adulthood despite excess GH?

A

no more epiphyseal plates

114
Q

how is the size of the marrow cavity increased?

A

bone resorbed

115
Q

when is bone remodeled?

A

osteogenesis (primary > secondary), growth, repair, and in response to applied forces

116
Q

What is osteopenia? Most common type?

A

too little bone, osteoporosis (bone that exists has a normal appearance but there’s too little of it)

117
Q

peak content of bone tissue occurs

A

during third decade of life

118
Q

when do women start to lose bone most rapidly?

A

after menopause

119
Q

calcitonin is produced by

A

thyroid gland

120
Q

fn of calcitonin

A

reduce osteoclastic activity and result in reduced blood calcium levels

121
Q

PTH produced by

A

parathyroid gland

122
Q

PTH fn

A

increases osteoclastic activity and results in elevated blood calcium.

  • stimulates GI tract to absorb calcium
  • reduces calcium excretion from the kidney
123
Q

skeletal muscle also includes

A

tongue, upper esophagus, and diaphragm

124
Q

diameter of skeletal muscle cells

A

10-100 um

125
Q

syncytium of skeletal muscle?

A

multinucleated

126
Q

mitosis in SkM

A

none, limited regeneration with satellite cells

127
Q

SkM supported by

A

epimysium, perimysium, endomysium (all are CT)

128
Q

sarcolemma includes

A

plasma membrane of the muscle cell + external lamina

129
Q

above epimysium is

A

deep fascia

130
Q

Muscle > > > >

A

muscle > fascicle > fiber > myofibrils > myofilaments (thick/thin)

131
Q

skeletal muscle can be up to ____ long

A

100 cm

132
Q

every individual SkM cell is packed with ____ which contain ____

A

myofibrils, myofilaments

133
Q

every mature muscle cell develops from about ___ _____ that fuse together during _____ development

A

~100 myoblasts that fuse together during fetal development

134
Q

middle of a contractile unit?

A

A band

135
Q

primary reason for the dark A band?

A

presence of heavy, myosin filaments

136
Q

why are some portions of the A band darker than others?

A

overlapping actin filaments

137
Q

three protein types in myofibrils

A

contractile, regulatory proteins, structural proteins

138
Q

two types of contractile proteins in myofibrils

A

myosin II and actin

139
Q

three types of regulatory proteins in myofibrils (and what do they do?)

A

troponin complex, tropomyosin, myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)
- turn contraction on and off

140
Q

5 types of structural proteins in myofibrils

A

titin, myomesin, nebulin, alpha-actinin, dystrophin

141
Q

three classes of intermediate filaments in myofibrils

A

desmin, vimentin, synemin

142
Q

each myosin filament has ___ actin surrounding it each of which is _______ with another myosin

A

6, shared

143
Q

major protein of the A band?

A

myosin II

144
Q

describe the 4+ proteins in the head region of Myosin II

A

2 heavy with globular head, 2 essential light chians, 2 regulatory light chains

145
Q

function of Actin binding protein?

A

binds actin to form cross-bridges

146
Q

mechanoenzyme

A

ATPase that hydrolyzes ATP, detaches crossbridges

147
Q

how do myosin molecules assemble?

A
  • self assemble into long, bipolar aggregates bound at their tails
  • features a bare zone in between

~300-600 molecules of myosin II form a thick filament

149
Q

what meets at Z line?

A

+ ends of actin

150
Q

M line

A

where myosin tails meet (bare area) + myosin-binding structural proteins

151
Q

which area remains the same throughout contraction?

A

A band

152
Q

when calcium binds troponin,

A

configuration changes to pull tropomyosin away from the myosin binding site on actin fibers. this exposes the site to adjacent myosin molecuels which contain sites for interaction with actin. this begins the process of muscle contraction.

153
Q

binding of myosin to the myosin-binding site on actin causes

A
  • ADP release from head of myosin molecule
  • leads to conformational change to pull actin toward minus end of actin filament
    • end is anchored to Z disk which pulls adjacent Z disks closer
  • this contraction process does not expend energy
154
Q

how does myosin head release grip on actin filament?

A

cocked myosin head must bind ATP

- without ATP the muscles can’t relax

155
Q

release of actin filament does not require

A

ATP hydrolysis

156
Q

what is required for recocking of the head of myosin molecule?

A

ATP molecule hydrolysis

157
Q

phosphorous remains attached to myosin until

A

myosin interacts with another free myosin binding site on an adjacent actin filament

158
Q

triad (muscle)

A

T tubules together with term cisternae

159
Q

motor unit

A

all of the muscle fibers innervated by one nerve fiber that tend to contract synchronously

160
Q

synaptic end bulbs

A

swellings of axon terminals with synaptic vesicles that contain ACh

161
Q

one motor end plate membrane contains

A

30 million ACh receptors

162
Q

CM vs. SkM (similarities, dissimilarities)

A

both striated

  • but CM has centrally located nuclei, intercalated discs on CM, and branching
163
Q

CM: striations? length? shape? branching?

A

striated, short, quadrangular, branching fibers

164
Q

how many cells in CM? nucleus?

A

single cells w/ central nucleus

165
Q

how are CM cells connected?

A

intercalated discs with gap junctions

166
Q

transverse vs. vertical portions of CM?

A

transverse have fascia adherens which are like broad desmosomes
- vertical have true desmosomes and many gap junctions

167
Q

T tubules in SkM vs. CM?

A

SkM = triad, CM = dyad

168
Q

growth of CM

A

no mitosis, no regeneration (or very little), hypertrophy in response to demand

169
Q

Smooth Muscle (SM)

  • cells?
  • nucleus?
  • striations?
  • communication?
A
  • single, fusiform cells
  • central nucleus
  • no striations, no clear indication of contractile system
  • no clear indication of communication
170
Q

SM often appears in ____ surrounded by a _____

A

layers, lumen

171
Q

nuclei of SM have an “____” and “___” appearance

A

open, wavy

172
Q

arrector pili muscle (muscle type and function)

A

goosebumps, SM

173
Q

instead of T-tubules, SM has

A

invagination and vesicle-like caveolae

174
Q

in response to demand, what happens to SM?

A

hyperplasia/hypertrophy

175
Q

mitosis/regeneration in SM?

A

both occur in SM

176
Q

indention of nuclei of SM?

A

nuceli of SM cells may be indented when cells contract since there ar emultiple fibers bridging across the cell.

177
Q

SM cells are surrounded by a network of

A

network of reticular fibers

178
Q

how much SR in SM? what junction types? what type of endocytosis?

A

modest, gap, pinocytotic vesicles

179
Q

SM actin and myosin attach to

A

dense bodies along plasma membrane

180
Q

dense bodies contain ____ which allows for _______ contraction

A

alpha-actinin +, allows for corkscrew contraction

181
Q

SM movement is dependent upon

A

interaction between myosin heads and actin

182
Q

initiation of SM contraction requires increase of ________ which binds to _______. this activates ___________ which ________. this changes the configuration of ______ to allow it to bind to _______.

A

requires increase of EC calcium to bind calmodulin. MLCK is then activated and phosphorylates myosin light chains. this changes ocnfiguration of inactive myosin and allows it to bind with actin.

183
Q

what terminates contraction of SM?

A

phosphatases

184
Q

what causes uterine contraction?

A

oxytocin

185
Q

____ and ____ are required for the initiation of contraction.

A

CA2+ and calmodulinf

186
Q

myosin light chain is phosphorylated at ______ by ______

A

serine 19 by MLCK

187
Q

hhow do neurotransmitters reach SM?

A

caricosisties with vesicles of neurotransmitters at various points along axon terminals

188
Q

two types of smooth muscle units?

A

visceral type and multiunit type

189
Q 
visceral type SM unit
sheets of SM working in \_\_\_\_ to do \_\_\_\_\_
found where? (2)
innervation?
junctions?
A

working in coordination for peristalsis
gut, uterus
sparse innervation
extensive gap junctions

190
Q

multiunit type of SM unit

  • contraction is ___ and ____
  • found where? (2)
  • innervation?
A

fast, rapid

  • SM of eye, arrector pili
  • heavily innervated
191
Q

myoepithelial cells

  • derive from
  • located near ____
  • help with _____
  • are they SM? contractile?
A

derive from epithelium

  • located near glands
  • help with secretion movement
  • not SM, they reside inside basement membrane of epithelium
  • no actin/myosin, are contractile
192
Q

what is in the H band?

A

myosin only, no actin overlap, part of A band

193
Q

four functions of cartilage

A
  1. structural support of soft tissues
  2. shcok absorption in joints
  3. reduce friction
  4. role in growth/development of bones
194
Q

hyaline ECM is primarily

A

Type II collagen

195
Q

what forms epiphyseal plates of growing long bone?

A

hyaline

196
Q

what is diff between articular cartilage and hyaline?

A

articular has no perichondrium

197
Q

fibrocartilage is a cross between

A

hyaline cartilage and dense CT

198
Q

resists what two force types?

A

shearing/compression

199
Q

in fibrocartilage, the chondrocytes are arranged

A

in rows

200
Q

perichondrium of fibrocartilage

A

not present

201
Q

all supportive tissue derived from

A

mesenchymal cells

202
Q

most cartilage is surrounded by a layer of

A

dense CT called the perichondrium

203
Q

medullary cavity =

A

marrow

204
Q

where is the periosteum not found?

A

areas with articular cartilage for articulation with other bones

205
Q

how does the periosteum attach to bone?

A

via collagen fibers from the periosteum penetrating the bone itself (aka Sharpey’s fibers)

206
Q

how many layers of cells in the endosteum?

A

single layer

207
Q

what is found in the endosteum?

A

osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

208
Q

periosteal cells vs. osteoprogenitor cells?

A

same cell but periosteal are found on the outside. endosteal are on the inside.

209
Q

how do osteoblasts initiate calcification?

A

by secreting vesicles with alkaline phosphatase

210
Q

bone matrix fibers are primarily

A

type I collagen

211
Q

collagen fibers within a given lamellae are typically ___ but in adjacent they are ___

A

parallel, perpendicular

212
Q

lucanae containing osteocytes vs. lamellae

A

found in between and occasionally within

213
Q

when does bone formation begin?

A

embryo

214
Q

growth factors involved in transition from mesenchyme to osteoblasts to osteocytes (2)

A

TGF-beta (transforming growth factor - beta), bone morphogenic protein (BMP)

215
Q

Ihh

A

indian hedgehog involved with differentation and hypertrophy of chondrocytes in endochondral bone formation

216
Q

calvaria

A

roof of the skull

217
Q

clavicle is formed by

A

I.O.

218
Q

mandible is formed by

A

I.O.

219
Q

primary ossification center

A

site where mesenchymal cells migrate to

220
Q

what does osteocalcin do?

A

binds calcium

221
Q

osteonectin

A

glycoprotein which binds matrix components such as collagen to the minerals (Ca2+ + phosphate in the form of hydroxyapatite crystals

222
Q

how do spicules grow?

A

osteoblasts congregate on the edges of the psicules and secrete more matrix

223
Q

if dvlping bone will become spongy,

A

reamining mesenchyme becomes bone marrow cells

224
Q

what regulates the initial stages of hyaline cartilage model fromation?

A

mesenchymal-epithelial cell interactions

225
Q

what happens to perichondrial cells during E.O.?

A

stop produceing chondroblasts and switch to osteoblasts

226
Q

what disintegrates the matrix and ocntributes to death of chondrocytes in step 6 of EO?

A

matrix metalloproteases

227
Q

how do they stain? cartilage ______ bone _____

A

cartilage - basophilic, bone - eosinophilic

228
Q

zone of reserve

A

typical hyaline cartilage (chondrocytes in resting state)

229
Q

zone of proliferation

A

chondrocytes dividing rapidly, form columns parallel to long axis

230
Q

zone of hypertrophy

A

large chondrocytes whose cytoplasm has accumulated glycogen, and narrow areas of matrix between lacunae

231
Q

zone of calcification

A

matrix is becoming calcified and chondrocytes die via apoptosis

232
Q

zone of ossification

A

are where osteoprogenitor cells are invading and differentiating into osteoblasts; osteoblasts secrete bone matrix onto the calcified cartilage matrix

233
Q

somatotropin

A

growth hormone

234
Q

when do epiphysis and diaphysis meet?

A

when epiphyseal closure occurs which is dictated by hormones

235
Q

what is the primary source of bone width change?

A

expansion of the marrow cavity (appositional growth) by intramembranous ossification

236
Q

in response to rising Ca2+ levels thyroid gland secretes

A

calcitonin

237
Q

rickets

A

calcium deficiency in chldren

238
Q

role of vitamin D

A

absorption of calcium by the GI tract

239
Q

muscles controlling eye movement are what type?

A

skeletal

240
Q

muscles supporting pelvic contents?

A

skeletal

241
Q

tongue is what muscle type?

A

skeletal

242
Q

skeletal muscle fibers result from the fusion of

A

multiple myoblasts

243
Q

barbed end of actin

A

+ end which is anchored to the Z line and are associated with the scaffolding protein nebulin

244
Q

titin

A

molecular spring to prevent overstretching of the sarcomere; holds myosin II thick filaments together

245
Q

what stabilizes the sarcolemma?

A

the membrane cytoskeleton composed of actin, dystrophin, and other proteins

246
Q

defects in dystrophin

A

muscular dystrophy

247
Q

myotendinous junction

A

utilizes integrins to establish the connection between actin filaments of hte terminal sarcomere and the ECM

248
Q

3 things required for contraction of a skeletal muscle cell

A

Ca2++, ATP, and motor axon innervation

249
Q

what is a motor unit

A

single axon with all the muscle fibers it innervates

250
Q

what triggers depolarization of the sarcolemma?

A

release of acetylcholine

251
Q

what provides a structural framework for SM?

A

intermediate filaments

252
Q

in SM, actin filaments are anchored at

A

membrane associated and cytoplasmic dense plaques

253
Q

where are myosin thick filaments in SM?

A

interdigitated with actin filaments in a 3D network with leittle resemblance to sarcomeres

254
Q

calcium regulated tronponin/tropomyosin system in SM?

A

not present, instead they use myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) to trigger actin-myosin contraction occuring through either calcium-calmodulin or other ways (cAMP activation)

255
Q

contracted smooth muscle resembles

A

corkscrews

256
Q

neuromuscular junctions in cardiac cells

A

not present, although autonomic snerves do release neuotransmitter in the vicinity to the cells

257
Q

intercalated discs are made up of

A

desmosomes, fascia adherens, and gap junctions

258
Q

mitochondria in cardiac vs SkM

A

more in cardiac

259
Q

energy dependent calcium channels in SkM

A

pump Ca2+ back into SR

260
Q

epimysium

A

deep fascia,

261
Q

how is muscle fiber separated from the endomysium?

A

external lamina which is part of hte sarcolemma

262
Q

what kind of CT are tendons?

A

dense regular CT

CTO (1 decks)

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