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1_Sharper Edge ATPL > CARs > Flashcards

CARs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of “flight crew member on standby?”

A

Crew member must remain at a specified location and be ready to report for duty in one hour or less.

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2
Q

When flying IFR for an airline, when are you not required to provide an alternate?

A
  • If you’re authorized to do so in an air operator certificate; and
  • If you comply with the Commercial Air Service Standards.
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3
Q

When is a ground proximity warning system required?

A
  • Commuter Airline Op.
  • MCTOW > 15,000kg (33,069lbs)
  • Type certificate to transport more than 10 pax
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4
Q

What entries are required on the first page of a new journey logbook?

A

As many entries as are necessary to ensure that an unbroken chronological record is maintained.

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5
Q

Along off-airways tracks, the distance of airspace to be protected is ___ nm on each side of the portion of track which is beyond nav and signal coverage range.

A

45 nm

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6
Q

What is the maximum speed while climbing in a holding pattern in a turbojet?

A

310 KIAS

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7
Q

What are the max hold speed for:

  • Prop and Turboprop
  • Turbojet up to 14,000’
  • Turbojet above 14,000’
A
  • Prop and Turboprop - 175 KIAS
  • Turbojet up to 14,000’ - 230 KIAS
  • Turbojet above 14,000’ - 265 KIAS
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8
Q

If SOPs are required in a commuter or airline operation then copies of the SOPs must be _____

A

Carried on board each aircraft.

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9
Q

A pax oxygen briefing must be completed prior to ___ in a pressurized aircraft.

A

FL 250

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10
Q

RVSM Airspace is from FL___ to FL___

A

FL290 to FL410 inclusive

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11
Q

For how many days can an aircraft operate with an unserviceable Flight Data Recorder but serviceable Cockpit Voice Recorder?

A

90 days

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12
Q

During flight the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting of the nearest station along the route of flight or, where such stations are separated by more than ___nm, the nearest station to the route of flight.

A

150nm

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13
Q

Max flight time for single-pilot IFR ops?

A

8 hours

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14
Q

What’s the max speed for a shuttle climb in a turbojet?

A shuttle procedure is defined as a maneuver involving a descent or climb in a pattern resembling a holding pattern. Shuttles are generally prescribed on instrument procedure charts located in mountainous areas. In the approach phase, it is normally prescribed where a descent of more than 2 000 ft is required during the initial or intermediate approach segments. It can also be required when flying a missed approach or departure procedure from certain airports. A shuttle procedure shall be executed in the pattern as published unless instructions contained in an ATC clearance direct otherwise.

A

200 KIAS

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15
Q

When are SOPs required?

A

For all multi-crew ops.

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16
Q

What is the max speed for a turboprop to climb in a holding pattern?

A

Normal climb speed.

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17
Q

Speeds in an IFR flight plan must be respected within ___% and ___ Mach.

A

5% TAS and 0.01 Mach

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18
Q

What the definition of “movement area”

A

Aprons, Taxiways and Runways

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19
Q

An LF airway increases in width ___nm from the station?

A

49.66nm

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20
Q

Who is responsible for the safe movement of passengers to and from the airplane?

A

The Air Operator

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21
Q

What are the squawk codes for:

  • Hijacking (unlawful interference)
  • Com failure
  • Emergency
A

Hijacking - 7500

Com failure - 7600

Emergency - 7700

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22
Q

What is required for a flight into the ADIZ?

A

A Defense Flight Plan or Defense Flight Itinerary must be filed.

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23
Q

What type of aircraft require a Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR)?

A
  • Multi-engine turbine
  • If required by aircraft type certificate
  • Configured for 6 or more pax
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24
Q

What are the vertical dimensions of the Northern Control Area?

A

Northern Control Area = FL230 and above.

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25
Q

North Atlantic (NAT) Region Airspace

  • At and above ___ = Class ___
  • Below ___ = Class ___
A
  • At and above FL550 = Class A
  • Below FL550 = Class G
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26
Q

What is a reportable incident?

A

A reportable incident means any incident resulting from the operation of an aircraft with a MCTOW greater than 5,700kg, including but not limited to when a major system failure occurs.

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27
Q

How many feet of obstacle clearance do Area Minimum Altitudes (AMA) published on IFR enroute charts provide in Designated Mountainous Regions (DMR) areas 2, 3 and 4?

A

1,500’ obstacle clearance

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28
Q

What are the 703, 704 and 705 designations?

A
  • 703 - Air Taxi
  • 704 - Commuter
  • 705 - Airline
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29
Q

What is the airspace type and altitude of Low Level Airways?

A
  • Controlled airspace
  • Airspace extends from 2,200’ AGL up tp 17,999’
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30
Q

What squawk code should you select for an IFR flight at FL210 if you’re not given one by ATC?

A

2000

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31
Q

When flying a multi-engine aircraft which can sustain flight with one engine out over water, life preservers must be carried when the aircraft ___.

A

is going to be operated greater or equal to 50nm from shore.

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32
Q

What are the horizontal and vertical obstacle clearance minimums while flying VFR for an airline?

A

Minimum 1000’ vertically and 1000’ horizontally from the obstacle

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33
Q

No person shall conduct a take-off in a turbojet aircraft unless it’s equipped with ____.

A

An altitude alerting system.

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34
Q

How many flight attendants are required for an Airline flight with 155 passenger seats?

A

4 flight attendants are required for 155 passenger seats.

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35
Q

True or False, both standalone and overlay GNSS approaches are approved at the alternate airport.

A

TRUE

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36
Q

What are the criteria for a high-performance aircraft, which requires a type rating?

A

Either Vne greater than 250 KIAS or, Vso greater than 80 KIAS

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37
Q

An airline is not allowed to operate an aircraft at a weight that would not allow it to maintain ___feet above all terrain within ___NM on either side of the intended track with one engine inop.

A
  • 1,000 feet
  • 5nm
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38
Q

Define Class B Airspace

A

All low level controlled airspace above 12,500 ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is higher, up to 17,999 ASL.

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39
Q

What is the minimum license to qualify as a Second Officer?

A

CPL only

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40
Q

You’re being vectored for an ILS and receive a comm failure. What altitude should you maintain?

A

Highest altitude of the following:

  • Minimum IFR altitude
  • Alt. you’re being vectored at
  • Alt you have been advised to expect in a further clearance
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41
Q

What are 3 circumstances where crew pairing restrictions apply in an Airline?

A
  1. Initial appointment as SIC
  2. First upgrade from SIC to PIC
  3. Transition from turboprop to turbojet
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42
Q

AIM RAC 2.7.1 - An LF/MF airway has a width of ___ either side of centerline up to ___ from the navigation aid and then widens with a splay angle of ___ beyond the point where the splay intersects the basic width.

A

LF/MF Airway.

  • Width: 4.34nm either side of centreline
  • Coverage 49.66nm from nav aid
  • 5° spay angle
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43
Q

When is a Pilot Competency Check (PCC) acceptable?

A

A PCC is only acceptable for FO’s with a 703 Air Taxi Operation.

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44
Q

What are the normal responsibilities of the chief pilot?

A

Developing the SOPs

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45
Q

When planning a flight for a turbojet for an Airline Operator, how much do you need to increase the calculated landing distance if there is no info in the flight manual concerning the landing on a wet runway?

A

Increase calculated landing distance by 15%

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46
Q

A controlled rest on the flight deck is allowed as long as all crew are awake ___ minutes prior to descent for landing.

A

30 minutes.

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47
Q

The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) is designed to record communication during what period of aircraft operation?

A

From when electrical power is turned on to when it’s turned off.

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48
Q

In order to dispatch a 705 Commuter Aircraft into a wet runway, the Landing Distance Available (LDA) must be ___% longer than the dry LDA requirement.

A

15%

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49
Q

What does a flight crew member in a commuter operation have to do to regain qualifications if his PPC has been expired between 6 and 24 months?

A
  • A technical ground training course consisting of an aircraft review
  • 3 takeoffs and 3 landings
  • Recurrent training, including a PPC
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50
Q

A ___ minute supply of portable oxygen from portable oxygen units or spare outlets must be available for each flight attendant on ___.

A
  • 15 minute supply
  • on pressurized aircraft in airline ops above FL250
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51
Q

When a PPC has lapsed for more than ___ months then the initial requirements of the PPC must be complied with.

A

24 months

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52
Q

When climbing into the Standard Pressure Region, the change to 29.92” Hg will be made?

A

Always within the Standard pressure Region.

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53
Q

The MEL is designed in reference to what manual?

A

The Master Minimum Equipment List Policy and Procedures Manual for the aircraft.

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54
Q

After how many nm must life preservers be carried, regardless of glide range?

A

50nm

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55
Q

ATC clears you to “land and hold short” of an intersecting runway. However, you’re not sure you can land and hold short in the distance available. What should you do?

A
  • Advise ATC immediately of non-acceptance of the clearance.
  • It’s the pilot’s responsibility to ensure there is sufficient runway to stop 200ft short of the intersecting runway.
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56
Q

What’s the normal duty day for any 24 consecutive hours?

A

14 hours

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57
Q

You are flying in the Standard Pressure Region at FL 310. Your descent for landing within the Standard Pressure Region requires you to descent to 10,000’ and hold at the IAF. When should your altimeter be set to the current altimeter settings of the aerodrome?

A

Just before starting the descent from 10,000’

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58
Q

Control zone dimensions?

A
  • 7nm radius
  • up to 3000’ AAE
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59
Q

Min alt. and dist. to overfly an active forest fire?

A

3000’ AGL and 5nm

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60
Q

What is the airspace type and altitude of Low Level Air Routes?

A
  • Glass G (uncontrolled)
  • Airspace extends from the ground up to 17,999’
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61
Q

In order to act as PIC for an Airline on a specific route and into a specific airport, the pilot needs to have flown as ___ within the last ___.

A

A flight crew member on the flight deck or as an observer with the last 12 months.

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62
Q

Max altitude for a commercial aircraft that is pressurized but doesn’t have drop down O2 masks?

A

FL 250

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63
Q

What is the required notice time for “Flight crew member on reserve?”

A

Flight crew member on reserve, require more than 1 hour notice

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64
Q

What is the rule concerning alcohol?

A

You may not act as a crew member of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol nor within 8hrs of consuming alcohol.

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65
Q

Where can you find the dimensions and boundaries of the Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ)?

A

Designated Airspace Handbook

66
Q

For 705 Airline ops, what is the normal flight attendant to pax ratio?

A

1:40

67
Q

What is the responsibility of the pilot when operating a pressurized aircraft without quick donning O2 masks?

A

O2 masks must be work above FL 250 if quick donning masks are not available.

68
Q

What is the standard flight duty time, without special authorization or a rest period?

A

14 consecutive hours in any 24 hour period

69
Q

When planning a flight for an Airline Operator, you’re allowed to account for a maximum of ___% of the headwind and no less than ___ % of the tailwind when calculating the required landing distance.

A

You can use the following when calculating landing distance:

  • Maximum 50% of the headwind component
  • Minimum 150% of the tailwind component
70
Q

How many hours rest per week (7-days) is required for an airline pilot?

A

1 rest period of at least 36hrs is required every 7 days.

71
Q

In a 704 commuter operation, when flying a multi-engine aircraft which can sustain flight with one engine out, for an IFR flight over water life jackets must be carried in the following conditions

A

200nm or 1hr flying at the cruise speed filed in the flight plan from a suitable landing site, whichever is the lesser.

72
Q

In what conditions is the pilot at the controls required to wear an oxygen mask?

A
  • At all times while operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 13,000 feet.
  • If the aircraft is not equipped with quick donning masks and is operated at or above FL250
  • If the aircraft is operated at or above FL410, even if the aircraft has quick donning masks.
73
Q

Flight time limitations for 703 Air Taxi:

  • 1 month ___
  • 3 months ___
  • 1 year ___
A
  • 1 month - 120 hrs
  • 3 months - 300 hrs
  • 1 year - 1200 hrs
74
Q

When shall the air operator notify the minister of “Unforeseen Operational Circumstances”?

A

The air operator shall notify the minister of “Unforeseen Operational Circumstances” as soon a practical.

75
Q

When should you squawk 1200 (Mode A)?

A

VFR ops at or below 12 500 ASL

76
Q

Is it legal to operate a commuter aircraft, single pilot, IFR with passengers?

A

NO!

77
Q

705 Airline Ops require recurrent flight training every ___, and emergency procedure training and line checks every ___.

A
  • Recurrent training every 6 months
  • Emergency procedure training and line checks every 12 months
78
Q

When taking off from an aerodrome located in the Standard Pressure Region and climbing to cruising altitude within the Standard Pressure Region, the altimeter should be.

A

Set to the airport altimeter setting and left at this value until just before leveling off at the target altitude.

79
Q

What type of aircraft require a Flight Data Recorder?

A
  • Multi-engine turbine
  • Configured for 10 or more pax
  • Manufactured after Oct 11, 1991
80
Q

When on a defense flight plan, the appropriate ATCU must be notified if the position of entry/exit to or from the ADIZ changes by more than ___ nm or more than ___ minutes.

A
  • +/- 20nm
  • +/- 5 minutes
81
Q

When an aircraft is on a defense flight plan, the PIC is required to revise the estimated time and point of entry into the ADIZ if it will change by ____

A

+- 5mins or 20miles

82
Q

While en-route on an IFR flight plan, ATC is to be notified as soon as possible if your TAS changes by more than ___%.

A

5%

83
Q

What happens when a flight crew member is required to travel for the purpose of repositioning after the completion of a flight?

A

If the positioning time goes over the crew’s max duty time, then an additional rest period of at least half of the time spent traveling is required.

Eg. if you’re traveling 2hrs to reposition at the end of a work day and it will bring your over your max duty time, you get at least 1hr additional rest.

84
Q

What are the takeoff and landing recency requirements to be working as a pilot in a commercial air service?

A
  • 3 takeoffs, 3 landings
  • In the last 90 days
85
Q

When are you required to do a RAIM check for your alternate?

A

Before getting to half way to your destination airport.

86
Q

What’s the purpose of the MEL?

A

List of equipment and instruments that may be inop on a specific type of aircraft that still allows operation of the aircraft as long as all restrictions are complied with.

87
Q

How long does an air operator have to keep a pilot training record?

A

3 years

88
Q

If you’re cleared en-route at a specified Mach number and the clearance is accepted, then ATC approval must be obtained to change your en-route Mach number by more than ___?

A

0.01 Mach

89
Q

Wake Turbulence Classifications

A
  • Group 1: Heavy - MCTO is 300,000lbs or more
  • Group 2: Medium - MCTO between 15,500lbs and 300,000lbs
  • Group 3: Light - MCTO up to and including 15,500lbs
90
Q

If you’re on an IFR flight plan and your ETA for a reporting point changes by more than ___, you need to advise the appropriate ATSU asap.

A

3 minutes

91
Q

What is the range of Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (CMNPSA) within the Canadian Domestic Airspace?

“All operators are to ensure that aircraft used to conduct flights within the North Atlantic (NAT) minimum navigation performance specification airspace (MNPSA) have the minimum navigation equipment.”

A

FL 330 to FL410

92
Q

AIM SAR 4.7 - If intercepted by a military aircraft, you should.

A
  • Follow instructions
  • Respond to signals
  • If possible notify the appropriate ATSU
  • Attempt to establish radio communication on 121.5
  • Squak Mode A 7700
93
Q

You’re flying an open RNAV STAR to intercept an ILS and you experience a comm failure, you should…

A

Fly to the downwind termination waypoint (DTW) and then turn to intercept the final approach course for a straight in approach.

94
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation required for:

  • Heavy behind a Heavy
A

Heavy behind a Heavy - 4 miles

95
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation required for:

  • Light behind a Heavy
  • Light behind a Medium
A
  • Light behind a Heavy - 6 miles
  • Light behind a Medium - 4 miles
96
Q

How far are you required to stay away from forest fire activity?

A
  • 3000’ vertically AGL
  • 5nm
97
Q

What is the width and splay angle f a VHF airway between 2 VORs?

A

VHF Airway between 2 VORs

  • Width of 4nm either side of centerline
  • 4.5° splay angle beyond 50.8nm
98
Q

What is the MCTOW for an aircraft that is classified as “LARGE”?

A

Greater than 12,566 lbs

99
Q

The following 4 items must be in place when fueling with pax.

A
  1. 2-way com between aircraft crew and ground crew refueling.
  2. Engines off, unless you have a prop brake and it’s set.
  3. GPU’s are not being connected or disconnected while refueling.
  4. Qualified crew must monitor the cabin at all times.
100
Q

Within the Arctic Control Area (ACA), High-Level Class G Airspace is found between what altitudes?

A

FL180 - FL270

101
Q

What are the duty reporting times for the following?

On call

On standby

On reserve

A
  • On call - Notice of 1hr or less
  • On standby - Notice of 1hr or less and must remain at a specified location
  • On reserve - notice of more than 1hr
102
Q

What is the minimum visibility for flying SVFR in a control zone?

A

1sm

103
Q

What are the characteristics of Class B airspace?

A
  • Controlled
  • Extends from 12,501 (or MEA) up to 17,999 feet.
  • May include a control zone (CZ) and Terminal Control Area (TCA).
  • IFR and VFR traffic separation are provided.
104
Q

What is a reportable accident?

A

An accident resulting directly from the operation of an aircraft where.

  1. A person is killed or injured as a result of being on board
  2. Aircraft damage affecting structural strength
  3. Aircraft is missing or inaccessible.
105
Q

What is the definition of a quick donning O2 mask?

A

An O2 mask that is accessible with single hand operation in under 5 seconds.

106
Q

What licenses qualify you to fly as a First Officer on a certified two crew aircraft?

A
  • CPL with IATRA
  • CPL with SARON/SAMRA
  • ATPL
107
Q

When is a standby attitude indicator required when operating a turbojet or turbofan aircraft which has a MCTOW grater than or equal to 12,566lbs (5,700kg) in a commuter operation?

A

A standby, or 3rd attitude indicator is required at all times in this situation.

108
Q

Extended Range Twin Engine Operations

An operator is not allowed to fly a twin-engine aircraft greater than ___ mins at the one-engine-inop cruise speed from a suitable airport unless the flight is conducted wholly within Canadian Domestic Airspace.

A

60 mins

109
Q

If you’re in an accident, when can you move the aircraft or components of the aircraft?

A

Only to extricate a person and prevent damage by fire.

110
Q

Who is responsible in a commercial air service operation to make sure flight duty times are not exceeded?

A
  • The flight crew member
  • The Ops Manager
  • The Air Operator
111
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation required for:

  • Medium behind a Heavy
A
  • Medium behind a Heavy - 5 miles
112
Q

What is the minimum vertical separation ATC will give to same direction traffic operating up to FL290?

How about same direction traffic in RVSM airspace, from FL290 to FL410?

A

2000’ up to FL290 and 1000’ above FL290

113
Q

When flying in a commuter operation, a PPC is valid (without extension) for ____ and can be extended by ____ months if it is renewed within the last 90 days on its validity.

A

To the first day of the 13th month following the month in which the PPC was completed, 12 months.

114
Q

What is the max consecutive hours in 30-days for a flight crew member on call?

A

Max 100hrs in any consecutive 30 days

115
Q

705 - Airline

A
  • Any aircraft with a MCTOW of more than 8,618 kg (19,000 pounds).
  • Type certificate authorizing 20 or more pax
116
Q

In northern domestic airspace, cruising altitude is with reference to ___ pressure setting and is selected based on the ___ track

A
  • Standard pressure setting
  • True track
117
Q

704 - Commuter Operations

A

Air transport service or aerial work involving sightseeing operations, of any of the following aircraft:

  • multi-engined with MCTOW of 8,618 kg (19,000 pounds) or less
  • 10-19 seats
  • A turbojet with maximum zero fuel weight of 22,680 kg (50,000 pounds) or less.
  • Type certificate for up to 19 pax.
118
Q

703 - Air Taxi

A

Air transport service or aerial work involving sightseeing operations, of any of the following aircraft:

  • Single-engined aircraft or
  • Multi-engine with MCTOW of 8,618 kg (19,000 pounds.
  • Max 9 pax
  • No turbojets
119
Q

What is the maximum holding speed in a turbojet or turbofan above 14,000 feet?

A

265 KIAS

120
Q

If a PPC is not renewed within the last 90 days of its validity, when will it expire?

A

On the first day of the 7th month following the month in which the PPC was completed.

121
Q

What equipment must be carried if you’re flying a single engine aircraft in day VFR over water for an AIR TAXI operation and the route requires you fly 110nm from the closest shore/landing site?

A
  • Life rafts that can carry all pax on board
  • A life preserver for each passenger
122
Q

In order to operate under Special VFR into a control zone, the pilot must do the following.

A
  • Permission from ATC
  • Stay clear of cloud
  • Min 1sm vis
123
Q

A turbojet operated by an Airline may not be dispatched unless the distance required to land at the destination or alternate is at most ___ of the available distance.

A

60%

124
Q

List the correct hold times and their respective altitudes.

A
  • 1min at or below 14,000’ ASL
  • 1.5mins above 14,000’ ASL
125
Q

North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Airspace (NAT MNPSA) has a lower vertical limit of ___ and an upper vertical limit of ___.

A

FL285 to FL420

126
Q

What is the correct content and sequence of an IFR position report?

A
  • Identification
  • Position
  • Time
  • Altitude
  • IFR
  • Next reporting point and ETA
  • Name only of next succeeding reporting point
  • Remarks

C-GLRQ, 50 miles from DIL, 04:00, 9,000 feet, IFR, next report MOBRA at 04:30, TABLO.

127
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for a pressurized aircraft in an air transport service following an emergency descent?

If operating above FL ___, then carry sufficient oxygen to supply the crew for a min of ___hrs.

A

FL250 and 2hrs

128
Q

An IATRA allows for what positions in a 703, 704 and 705 opp?

A
  • Captain/FO for 703
  • FO-only for 704 or 705
129
Q

What are the classes of transponder airspace?

A
  • Class A, B and C airspace
  • Any class D or E airspace specified as transponder airspace in the Designated Airspace Handbook.
130
Q

You can operate at cabin pressures between 10,000’ and 13,000’ for ___ mins without any supplemental O2.

A

30mins.

Above 13,000’ O2 is required for the entire flight.

131
Q

If you receive a speed adjustment while being radar vectored, you are required to maintain a speed within ___ of the specified speed.

A

+/- 10 KIAS

132
Q

What are the vertical dimensions of the Arctic Control Area (ACA)?

A

Arctic Control Area (ACA) = FL270 and above.

133
Q

Commuter (704) regs for min fuel when IFR in a turbojet. You must carry enough fuel to allow for the following 3 things.

A
  1. Taxing, delays, weather, routing and air traffic
  2. Destination + approach + missed + alternate + 30mins.
  3. Descent to single-engine service ceiling or 10,000’ (whatever is lower), then cruise to suitable airport, conduct approach, missed and hold at an altitude of 1500’ above airport for 30mins.
134
Q

What’s required if you’re planning an airline departure from an airport where the weather minimums are above the takeoff minima but below the landing minima?

A

You need to have an alternate that can be flown to in 60mins using the one engine inop cruising speed.

135
Q

A standby attitude indicator must be installed on turbojet aircraft, and operate for ___ minutes in the event of a complete electrical failure.

A

30 minutes

136
Q

How many first aid kits are required for an aircraft with 200 seats operated by an airline?

A

3 first aid kits for a 200 seat aircraft.

137
Q

If a pilot receives a rest period of a minimum 4 consecutive hours, how long can the flight duty time be extended?

A
  • One-half the length of the rest period
  • up to a maximum of 3 hours
138
Q

When shooting an approach at an uncontrolled airport, when must the pilot make his mandatory call with respect to the FAF?

A

When passing the FAF inbound.

139
Q

What are the minimum flight crew rest periods for an airline or commuter operation?

  • ___ hrs off every 7 consecutive days or,
  • ___ days off for every ___ consecutive days
A
  • 36hrs off every 7 consecutive days or,
  • 3 days off for every 17 consecutive days
140
Q

What are the minimums required to cancel IFR and land visually at a controlled airport within a control zone?

A

Minimums to cancel IFR and land visually:

  • 3 miles visibility
  • 1 mile horizontally from cloud
  • 500 feet vertically from cloud
141
Q

What are the lowest usable flight levels based on altimeter setting?

A

Lowest usable flight levels based on altimeter setting:

  • 29.92” or higher = FL180
  • 29.91” to 28.92” = FL190
  • 28.91” to 27.92” = FL200
142
Q

What are the consolidation requirements after a PPC for a pilot at an Airline?

A

The pilot is required to meet at least 75hrs in 90 days

143
Q

In a 705 airline op, there may or may not be an MEL for each aircraft. If an MEL has not been established, what equipment is NOT required for night IFR in a 150 seat turbojet?

A

A means to illuminate or detect the formation of ice.

144
Q

What passenger count requires a flight attendant to operate the flight?

A

20 pax or greater.

145
Q

What is the max speed below 10,000’?

A

250 KIAS

146
Q

In order to fly IFR, the altimeter and pitot static system must be calibrated within the last ____.

A

24 months

147
Q

What’s the max duty day if the air operator utilizes split duty time and provides 4 hours of approved rest during the duty period?

A

16 hours duty

148
Q

What are the MOCA requirements for commercial operators when establishing air routes in uncontrolled airspace?

A

For IFR flights:

  • Min alt of 2000’ above the highest obstable located within 10miles from the centreline of the route.
149
Q

What separation should you be given at a radar equipped airport after a heavy aircraft has just departed and you are next to depart from an intersection on the same runway in an aircraft with MCTOW of 6850lbs?

A

You should receive 6miles separation, which you cannot waive.

150
Q

What is the max speed within 10nm of a controlled airport below 3000’

A

200 KIAS within 10nm of a controlled airport below 3000’

151
Q

In an airline, the take-off weight must allow for a net takeoff flight path that clears all obstacles by at least

  • ___ feet vertically
  • ___ feet horizontally within airport boundaries
  • ___ feet horizontally outside airport boundaries
A
  • 35 feet vertically
  • 200 feet horizontally within airport boundaries
  • 300 feet horizontally outside airport boundaries
152
Q

When is high altitude training required in a commercial air carrier operation?

A
  • Before assignment on a pressurized aircraft
  • When operating above 13,000
  • Every 3 years after completing initial training
153
Q

For what phases of flight does the Flight Data Recorder (FDR) record system parameters?

A

From takeoff to landing

154
Q

CAR 602.10 - An airplane may not be left with an engine running unless.

A

A person competent to control the aircraft is seated in the pilot seat.

155
Q

A turboprop in a Commuter Opp can’t be dispatched unless the landing distance required at the destination or alternate is at most ___% of the available runway length.

A

70%

156
Q

What type of aircraft require a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)?

A

Turbo jet only

157
Q

What are the VFR and IFR reporting procedures when flying into an MF airport?

A
  • VFR - Establish communication before entering the MF area, and if able at least 5mins before entering the MF
  • IFR - 5 mins before executing the approach.
158
Q

When should you squawk 1400 (Mode A)?

A

VFR ops above 12 500 ASL

159
Q

Day VFR fuel requirement - ?

Night VFR fuel requirement - ?

A

Day = destination + 30mins cruise

Night = destination + 45mins cruise

160
Q

When does an arrival report need to be filed?

A

An arrival report must be filed with FSS or a community aerodrome radio station as soon as practicable after landing but not later than:

  • the search and rescue action initiation time specified in the flight plan; or
  • one hour after the last reported estimated time of arrival if no search and rescue action initiation time was specified in the flight plan
161
Q

ADIZ Airspace extends from…

A

Air Defence Identification Zone (ADIZ) is airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the surface of the earth.

1_Sharper Edge ATPL (4 decks)

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