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CARS > CARS > Flashcards

CARS Flashcards

1
Q

Min number of instrument hours for ATPL applicant:

A

75hrs (25hrs may be in sim)

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2
Q

What flying privileges may be exercised by an ATPL pilot whose CAT 1 medical expired?

A

PPL

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3
Q

When the group 1 inst rating of an ATPL pilot expires, what license privileges may then be exercised?

A

CPL; no PIC for aircraft that have min 2 crew requiremnt

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4
Q

A LARGE aircraft is a term used to describe what weights?

A

Max T/O weight of more then 5,700kg or 12,566lbs

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5
Q

What incident would require the PIC to file a mandatory reportable incident with TSB?

A

•Shortage of fuel requiring approach and landing priority at dest
•engine fails or shut down
•smoke detected/fire occurs
•controllability issues (mechanical,Wx, wake turb)
•AC leaves runway, drags tip/eng pod
•incapacitated crew member which poses threat to safety
•depressurization requiring emerg descent
•refueled with incorrect or contaminated fuel
•collision/risk of
•declaration of emergency requiring priority
•dangerous goods released in or from aircraft

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6
Q

Transponder codes to use if not assigned for IFR low/high level, and VFR low/high level

A

IFR 1000 below 18k, 2000 above 18k
VFR 1200 at and below 12.5k, 1400 above 12.5k

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7
Q

VHF/UHF airway basic width, degree splay and distance they intersect

A

8nm, 4.5degrees, 50.8nm from the nav facility

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8
Q

All high level controlled airspace above FL600 within cdn dom airspace is class:

A

E

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9
Q

Airspace within Victor airways at 12,500 and below is designated:

A

Class E

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10
Q

Airspace class on a low level air route that extends above 12,500 up to but not including 18k is:

A

Class G

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11
Q

Tolerances for ETA’s within the ADIZ and projected ADIZ boundary entry points and track centreline deviation limits:

A

+/-5mins and 20nm

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12
Q

For wake turb, heavy means:

A

Max t/o of 300,000lbs or more

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13
Q

For wake turb, medium means:

A

Max t/o of more then 15,500 to less than 300,000lbs

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14
Q

An uncontrolled aerodrome has no MF or ATF. What common freq do you use?

A

123.2

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15
Q

Each person on board the AC shall be wearing an O2 mask and using supplemental O2 for the duration of that portion of any flight which takes place at cabin pressure altitude above:

A

13,000ft

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16
Q

What AC are req to have a standby attitude indicator?

A

Any transport category aircraft in commercial air service

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17
Q

A third attitude indicator that is powered from a source independent of the aircraft’s electrical generating system must be aboard:

A

Any large turbo-jet-powered aeroplane or any turbine-powered transport category aeroplane operated by an air carrier

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18
Q

The req to have a functioning GPWS aboard a turbo-jet powered aeroplane that is involved either commuter or airline ops commenced at what MCTOW and authorized pax config?

A

More then 15,000kg (33,069lbs); 10 or more pax

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19
Q

Cat 1 medical timelines

A

Every 12 months to age 60 (every 6 months for single pilot ops carrying (pax) aged 40 or over

Every 6 months over age 60

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20
Q

Cat 1 medical ECG timelines

A

-on initial exam
-every 2 years between 30-40
-every 12months over age 40

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21
Q

Cat 1 medical audio gram

A

-For initial medical exam

-first medical exam after age 55

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22
Q

How many night time hours req for ATPL?

A

100 PIC or co-pilot (30 must be in aeroplanes)

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23
Q

When alt setting is greater then 31.00, what are the procedures for app/alt wx mins?

A

-Add 100’ and 1/4sm for every .10 inches over
-below 18,000’ all aircraft will set 31.00
-if able aircraft will set actual on final app segment (ie 31.12)

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24
Q

Transport category aircraft definition

A

Plane certified pursuant to Ch 525 of airworthiness manual or equivalent foreign airworthiness.

Generally means large multi-engine aircraft with more than 19 seats operated under airline ops or 705 ops.

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25
Q

Aircraft accident definition

A

1) person is killed or sustains a serious injury
2) A/C sustains structural failure or damage that adversely affects structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics (expect for eng failure)
3) A/C is missing or inaccessible

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26
Q

In RVSM altimeters should agree within:

A

Primary altimeters within 200ft (checked every hour)Checked within 75ft of each other on the ground

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27
Q

VHF/UHF and LF/MF airway dimensions

A

4.34nm each side of centreline and 5degree splay to 49.66nm

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28
Q

T-Routes dimensions

A

4nm each side of centreline primary obstacle protection.
Plus 2nm each side of secondary.
Airspace associated with t-routes are 10nm.

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29
Q

Radar departures - min radar separation between IFR/VFR aircraft and aircraft vectored behind it less then 1000’ below.

Preceding - Super

A

Succeeding:
Super - 4nm
Heavy - 6nm
Medium - 7nm
Light - 8nm

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30
Q

Radar departures - min radar separation between IFR/VFR aircraft and aircraft vectored behind it less then 1000’ below

Preceding - heavy

A

Succeeding:
Heavy - 4nm
Medium - 5nm
Light - 6nm

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31
Q

Radar departures - min radar separation between IFR/VFR aircraft and aircraft vectored behind it less then 1000’ below

Preceding - Medium

A

Succeeding -
Light - 4nm

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32
Q

Non radar departure - 2min separation rules

A

-applied behind heavy if aircraft starts t/o from same threshold or threshold of a parallel less then 2500’ away
-applied to a heavy or super following a super

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33
Q

Non radar departures - 3min separation

A

-applied behind heavy (or L behind M) if takeoff starts from an intersection or point further along runway then preceding AC and controller believes that the following AC will require more TO roll then the first.
-also applied for L or M following a super
-up to 3 mins when projected flight paths of any aircraft will cross a heavy

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34
Q

Holding altitudes/airspeeds/times

A

-At or below 6000 - 200kts, 1min
-Above 6k up to and including 14, 230kts, 1min
-above 14, 265kts, 1 1/2min

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35
Q

NOTAMS with approx (EST) require what

A

A replacing or cancelling NOTAM

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36
Q

Resumption of flight duties after specific activities:
Drinking alcohol
Scuba diving
Local/dental anaesthetics
Blood donation
General anaesthetic

A

12,
24,
24,
48,
Consult doctor prior to flying

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37
Q

Maneuvering area definition

A

Parts of aerodrome intended for takeoff, landing, and aircraft movements associated with takeoff and landings (ie taxiways, run up bays)
Does not include apron

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38
Q

Movement area definition

A

Any part of aerodrome used for surface movement of aircraft including both maneuvering area and apron

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39
Q

RVR conversions for
1mile
3/4 mile
1/2 mile
1/4 mile

A

5000RVR
4000RVR
2600RVR
1200RVR

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40
Q

What distance/time can a transport category aircraft travel over water without life rafts on board?

A

400nm or 120mins of flight at speed on flight plan whichever is less from suitable emergency landing site

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41
Q

Is a min fuel advisory an emergency?

A

No, and it does not imply ATC traffic priority

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42
Q

Reduced vis ops definition

A

Below RVR2600 (1/2sm) down to and including RVR1200 (1/4sm)

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43
Q

Low vis ops definition

A

Below RVR1200(1/4sm) down to and including RVR600

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44
Q

Aerodrome operating visibility hierarchy at sites with an active ATC tower

A
  1. RVR for runway of intended use
  2. METAR (aerodrome vis)
  3. Pilot visibility
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45
Q

Aerodrome operating vis at sites without active ATC tower for arrivals

A
  1. RVR
  2. METAR
  3. Pilot vis
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46
Q

Aerodrome operating vis at sites without active ATC tower for departures

A

Lowest of the following visibilities:
METAR,
Any reported RVR,
Pilot visibility

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47
Q

MEL CAT timelines after day of discovery

A

CAT A - as specified
CAT B - 3 Days
CAT C - 10 Days
CAT D - 120 Days

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48
Q

Flight time limitations:

A

1000hrs - 365 consecutive days
300 hrs - 90 consecutive days
112hrs - 28 consecutive days
8hrs - 24hrs for single pilot ops

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49
Q

Flight time definition:

A

Moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for purpose of taking off until moment it comes to rest at end of flight

50
Q

Flight duty day definition

A

Period that starts when crew member reports for a flight, or reports as a crew member on standby and finishes at “engines off” at end of final flight

51
Q

Minimum rest period definition

A

Period during which a crew member is free from all duties, not interrupted by the air carrier and provided opportunity to obtain not less then 9hrs of sleep in suitable accommodations.

52
Q

Max flight duty time

A

14 consecutive hrs in any 24 consecutive hrs

53
Q

In commuter and airline ops a crew member shall receive at least __ consecutive hrs free from duty following __ consecutive duty time assignments that exceed __ consecutive hrs unless the crew member has received at least __ consecutive hrs free from duty between each flight duty time.

A

24,
3,
12,
24.

54
Q

One period of at least __ consecutive hrs within each __ consecutive days or one period of at least __ consecutive calendar days within each __ consecutive days from commuter and airline ops.

A

36,
7,
3,
17.

55
Q

For flight members on call, one period of at least __ consecutive hrs within each __ days or one period of at least __ consecutive calendar days within each __ consecutive days

A

36,
7,
3,
17.

56
Q

Crew member on reserve definition

A

Designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty on notice of more then one hour.

57
Q

Crew member on call definition

A

Designated by an air operator to be available to report on notice of one hour or less.

58
Q

An air operator shall provide flight crew on reserve a rest period within each __ hour period which is not interrupted by the air carrier.

A

24

59
Q

Max allowable flight duty if notified between 2200-0600?

A

10hrs, and subsequent min rest period shall be increased by at least one-half the length of the preceding flight duty time

60
Q

Who can extend duty times?

A

The PIC, after consulting all other crew members on their level of fatigue.

61
Q

Max hours of work

A

2200 in 365 days
192 in 28 days
60/70 in 7 days depending on:
Reserve - 33% of time
Standby - 100% of time

62
Q

What is the difference between an ATC clearance and instruction?

A

An ATC clearance must be accepted

63
Q

When does an aircraft operated in a commuter operation require a functioning CVR?

A

It is required by any multi-engined turbine powered aircraft seating 6 or more pax and requiring 2 pilots

64
Q

A mandatory reportable incident pertains to what aircraft?

A
  • aircraft with a MCTOW greater then 2250kg
  • all aircraft operating under an air operator certificate issued under part VII of the CARs
65
Q

IFR app minima - non airline

A
  • If RVR A and B then, A must be greater then 1200, and B greater then 600
  • if only one RVR (A or B) then must be greater then 1200

-no RVR, 1/4nm vis

66
Q

IFR app minima rules - non airline
(When can you continue app)

A

Can’t continue app unless:
• passed FAF when RVR goes below mins
• training flt and missed is planned
• RVR is fluctuating above and below
• RVR is less then mins but ground vis is at least 1/4sm
• flying CAT III

67
Q

O2 req for civi -non airline or commuter

A

•O2 after 30mins above 10k
•O2 above 13K for all
•if quick don not available one pilot shall be on O2 above FL250
•if quick don is available, one pilot shall be on O2 above FL410

68
Q

Can non-rvsm aircraft transit through rvsm without levelling?

A

Yes

69
Q

You receive an atc clearance to climb, when should you commence the climb?

A

Promptly at aircraft’s best rate of climb

70
Q

Comm fail in VMC procedures

A

Maintain VFR, clear of class C, land as soon as practicable (airspace protected for 30 mins)

71
Q

Experience req for trg other pilots for holder of ATPL

A

Sea plane - 50 hrs
Multi engine - 50hr
Instrument rating - 500hrs PIC, 100hrs on group, no less then 10 hrs on type used to train

72
Q

Control area extension based at

A

2200agl

73
Q

Transition area based at

A

700agl

74
Q

Terminal control areas dimensions

A

45, 35, 12, 7(control zone)

Altitudes 9500, 2200, 1200agl

75
Q

Class C

A

•IFR/VFR flights
•VFr needs clearance to enter
•separation to IFR and VFR if an IFR aircraft involved.
•mode C

76
Q

Class D

A

-IFR/VFR
-VFR needs two way comms to enter
-separation only to IFR

77
Q

Class E

A

-Low level airways
-IFR/VFR
-separation only to IFR

78
Q

Class F

A

-advisory or restricted
-controlled or uncontrolled
-ATC will not clear an IFR aircraft through unless prior permission granted or cleared for a visual/contact app

79
Q

T/F - A mandatory IFR route starts and ends with a waypoint

A

True

80
Q

When does SAR alerting for a VFR aircraft start?

A

60 mins after proposed arrival time

81
Q

When to report change in speed?

A
  • 5% change in filed TAS
  • 0.01 change in Mach given in an ATC clearance. NOT filed
82
Q

What changes to VFR/IFR flight plan need to be reported to ATC?

A

IFR - alt, speed (when in controlled airspace), route, destination aerodrome

VFR- route, duration of flight, destination

83
Q

If departing a cdn airport which underlies FAA airspace, who is responsible for SAR alerting service?

A

FAA, following FAA procedures (alerting service not activated until the aircraft contacts ATS for IFR clearance)

84
Q

What distance/time can a single eng/multi eng aircraft that cannot maintain alt travel over water without life rafts/life saving equipment on board?

A

Lesser of 100nm or 30 mins from a suitable landing site

85
Q

What distance/time can a multi eng aircraft that can maintain flight (following Eng failure) travel over water without life rafts on board?

A

Lesser of 200nm or 60 mins to a suitable landing site

86
Q

When cleared to fly an app to an uncontrolled field what do you need to tell ATC?

A

What app you plan, rwy, and intended route

87
Q

T/F - pilots under IFR at an uncontrolled airport do not establish any priority over VFR traffic at that aerodrome

A

True

88
Q

RVR will give lowest expected vis where?

A

Touchdown zone

89
Q

What power source is the airfield using during CATII/III ops?

A

Standby power as primary. It’s a quicker switch but to ‘government’ power if standby fails then the other way around.

90
Q

Min lighting req at night

A

-illumination of flight instruments
-position lights
-anti collision
-landing lights: 1 for air taxi/commuter, 2 for airline

91
Q

When shall the FDR be on?

A

From commencement of take off roll through landing roll

92
Q

If there’s no MEL and the FDR (CVR) is U/S, how long can you operate granted that the CVR (FDR) remains serviceable?

A

90 days.

93
Q

Oxygen req for unpressurized aircraft

A

10-13k for more then 30 mins: all crew and 10% of pax, no less then 1 pax

94
Q

Oxygen for pressurized up to FL250

A

Between 10-13k for more then 30mins and Aircraft above 13, oxygen for all crew and 10% of pax

95
Q

How far can an aircraft travel from land without ANY life saving equipment on board?

A

50nm

96
Q

How often does the pitot-static system need to be checked?

A

24 months, prior to flying IFR/VFR in class B, or any time the system is worked on

97
Q

If the altitude alerting system is U/S can you fly?

A

Yes, but not revenue trips. Only training, ferry etc

98
Q

If an airplane requires a standby attitude indicator, what are the req for it?

A

-run for minimum 30min after power failure
-independent power source (battery)
-visible to all pilots
-independent of other attitude indicators

99
Q

When can you test a 121.5 and 406 ELT? And how accurate is the 406

A

-121.5 first 5 mins, of the UTC hour for no more then 5 secs
-406: based off manufacturer recommendations (accurate within 5km, unique signal to gps)

100
Q

When would a TAWS be req for air taxi and what flights could you operate if it was U/S?

A

-6 or more pax
- day VFR only if U/S

101
Q

When can a pilot do elementary maintenance?

A

Pilot must be trained and approved by company. Maint release not required, but must be detailed in technical record, with signature of person

102
Q

Can a pilot change a battery?

A

Yes, if trained and approved by company

103
Q

If an AME completes work that requires a test flight, who must sign the log book, following a successful test flight?

A

PIC

104
Q

Who other then the PIC can give an emergency briefing?

A

Flight attendant in charge, if trained.

105
Q

T/F - The PIC should ensure PAX with special needs are briefed individually

A

True

106
Q

How many fire extinguishers are required for 60 or fewer pax?

A

2 hand held fire extinguishers

107
Q

If a pilots PPC expires, can they act as PIC/SIC?

A

Yes as long as no PAX. (Ferry flights, training, positioning, etc)

108
Q

When are flight attendants req?

A

More then 19 pax

109
Q

Weights for 704 ops:

A

Prop - MCTOW 19,000lbs or less, 10-19 pax
Jet - MZFW 50,000lbs or less, 19 pax or less

110
Q

Define flight watch-

A

Maintaining current info on the progress of a flight and maintain all factors and conditions that might affect the operational flight plan

111
Q

What two pubs are living documents that must be maintained by airlines?

A

FOM, SOP

112
Q

What is a fail safe built into fuel dumping?

A

Shutoffs are installed that automatically shut off fuel dumping with approx 30 mins of fuel remaining

113
Q

What do ECAM/EICAS systems provide?

A

-engine/warning
-system/status
-provides system recovery procedure

114
Q

What is mode awareness?

A

Awareness of aircraft configuration and flight control system modes. Latter includes such as speeds/alt/hog/armed/active/acquire/gold and state of FMS

115
Q

Commuter VFR obstacle clearance day and night

A

Day: 500agl or at least 500ft horizontally from an obstacle.

Night: 1000ft above an obstacle within 3nm

116
Q

Airline VFR obstacle clearance day and night

A

Day- 1000agl or 1000ft horizontally

Night - 1000ft within 5nm

Mountainous - always 2000/5nm no matter what region

117
Q

Commuter Take off minima (Wx above take off limits but below landing limits) prohibited unless:

A

-twin engine
-t/o alternate specified in flt plan which is:

1) <9 pax, within 60min normal cruise
2) >9 pax within 60min single engine

-also permitted if Wx is at or above landing minima for another suitable runway at that aerodrome

118
Q

Airline take off minima (wx above take off limits but below landing limits) prohibited unless:

A

-take off alternate on flt plan
-twin engine: 60mins single engine
-3 or 4 engine or ETOPS: 120 min one engine inop
-permitted if Wx at or above landing limits for another runway at current field

119
Q

Commuter single pilot ops in IMC (3 things)

A

Aircraft req:
- 2 axis auto pilot
- headset with boom mic and transmit on control column
- lighted chart holder placed in an easily readable position

120
Q

Training programs for commuter and airlines (initial and annual)

A

-indoc
-high alt if applicable
-aircraft type
- aircraft servicing and ground handling
-emergencies
-aircraft surface contamination
-Dangerous goods
-CRM

121
Q

Req’s for Operations in icing for commuter and airlines

A

-Aircraft certified for type of icing reported
-at night must have means to illuminate or otherwise detect ice

CARS (2 decks)

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