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new sgt. tct > Carlitos Deck > Flashcards

Carlitos Deck Flashcards

1
Q

Step one of the employee grievance: employee believing they have a grievance may contact their supervisor alone or with a representative. If after the discussion the employee doesnt feel the grievance has been properly adjusted the grievance may be reduced to writing. How many days does the Office Chief have to respond to the grievance after receiving it?

A

A-5 standard working days

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2
Q

After ___ garnishments are served (for separate debts) shall be subject to disciplinary action up to and including termination.

A

A-3

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3
Q

Garnishment notices are sent to ____ and logged.

A

A-IA

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4
Q

______ shell pick up the wage garnishment and have _____ meet with the employee to sign the form.

A

A-Employees Cpt. / supervisor

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5
Q

Transfer to a lower classification can occur when:

A

A- mutually beneficial not to retain under unacceptable employees.

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6
Q

Can a candidate review his background investigation folder? Y/N

A

A-N

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7
Q

How long shall interviewer notes be maintained by PSD pursuant to government code 34090?

A

A-2 Years

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8
Q

Hiring process/Promotional process:

A

A- Officer level by the appointed authority and confer w/ COP-SGT & LT appointed by COP- unclassified by the City Manager

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9
Q

Retirement/Resignation form to be submitted __ weeks before effective date.

A

A-2

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10
Q

How long do you have to withdraw resignation?

A

A-48 hours (excluding weekend and recognized city holidays)

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11
Q

Employees having resigned (if left in good standing) may petition for re-employment within __ years of resignation.

A

A-3

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12
Q

Non-career employees have recall rights to the classification from which the were laid of for a period of __ years

A

A-2

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13
Q

Retired officer within the first year may become level 1 reserve. T/F

A

A-T

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14
Q

Officers with medical retirement may be considered for Reserve if cleared by _____.

A

A-City Workers Comp Unit

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15
Q

Unless approved by COP modified duty shall not be longer that ____.

A

A-1 year

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16
Q

Prior to beginning on modified dut employee shall contact ____ and submit a ____.

A

A-Personnel Service Division / Duty Status Report

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17
Q

Eligible officers from OOO shall be assigned to a call expeditor duty. T/F

A

A-T

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18
Q

Modified assignment duties for officer other than OOO shall be made by _____ in Personal Service Division.

A

A-Captain

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19
Q

How often are Duty Status Reports required while employee is on modified duty?

A

A-Every 30 days

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20
Q

When does a background investigation need to be done?

A

A-When they will have access to police information.

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21
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that background investigations are done?

A

A-Division Managers

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22
Q

How often are you required to update Employee Information Notification Card?

A

A-Annually- ASAP upon change in phone number or address

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23
Q

Can you use an address other than you own residence as your primary address?

A

A-No

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24
Q

When are Department Location Roster delivered to respective representatives?

A

A-February and August

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25
Q

How long does the confidentiality last for Officers?

A

A-indefinitely

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26
Q

Who processes the confidentiality for SPD?

A

A-PSD

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27
Q

Watch File contains the following:

A

D.C. s Letters and Awards-Certificates- evals- injury rpts- transfer requests- employees DMV record (not included).

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28
Q

Bicycling to and from work a permitted work out?

A

A-N

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29
Q

Workout schedules may be adjusted at the discretion of _______?

A

A-Division manager

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30
Q

Can workout time be rolled into the next week?

A

A-N

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31
Q

T&T request shell be turned in ASAP at least ___ days prior to departure.

A

A-20

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32
Q

Receipts shall be turned into the Travel Coordinator within ___ days of completion of the trip.

A

A-5

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33
Q

Amounts under ____ dollars shall be reimbursed through the petty cash fund through the travel coordinator.

A

A-$100

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34
Q

How many qualifications are required per year?

A

A-2

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35
Q

Captain of PSD shall determine retraining for the following:

A

A-(1) injuries that would hinder gun use safety - A-(2) not having been on regular duty over 6 months

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36
Q

How many opportunities do you get on the day of the qual to complete the qualification?

A

A-2

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37
Q

Training amounts per handler are ___ and ____ ?

A

A-1 gram and 6 grams

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38
Q

What is the ratio for first aid kits per student?

A

A-1 for every 20 students

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39
Q

Expenditures approval amount?

A

> 400 need section/watch commander approval ->1000 need captain approval -2000 need Office Chief

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40
Q

PSIT shall provide additional access or remove access when authorized by ______

A

A-Lieutenant or above

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41
Q

Individual arrest and crime reports (are or are not) considered CORI?

A

A-are not

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42
Q

Who does the internal inspections for the department?

A

A-PSU or designee of the COP

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43
Q

After how many days of informing the respective office chief and division commander shall an inspection be performed?

A

A-30 days

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44
Q

Adult releasable information?

A

A-arrestees name age and residence

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45
Q

Non-releasable to include?

A

A-juvenile suspects or victims names and residence

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46
Q

Can you release police reports involving juveniles to a third party?

A

A-no

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47
Q

Victim information: can a suicide note and its content be released to media?

A

A-no on the content yes on the fact that there was a note left

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48
Q

All one day permits shall be approved by ____?

A

A-Area Captain

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49
Q

What Office handles permits for the city?

A

A-Office of Specialized Services (OSS) and designated Program Analyst (PA)

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50
Q

Who approves permits related to adult services massage escort/model ABC and guns?

A

A-OSS D. COP or designee

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51
Q

Who approves CCWs?

A

A-COP

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52
Q

What unit processes CCWs?

A

CIU

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53
Q

Legal ability to obtain prints?

A

A-consent- court order- warrant- parole/probation

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54
Q

Without consent juvenile prints need assessment (839 form) of ability to make conscious decision for consent and approval from______?

A

A-Supervisor

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55
Q

Can medical personnel sign the 839 form for a person cannot give knowledgeable consent for the purpose of identification?

A

A-Yes

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56
Q

Pocket name plates can be used except for identification purposes or the following _____ ______?

A

A-crime scenes- during investigations- etc.

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57
Q

Employees not in uniform shall comply with at least one of the following while at a department facility?

A

A-Name tag on outermost garment visible

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58
Q

Who maintains the records for retirees CCWs?

A

A-CIU

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59
Q

How often do retirees have to qualify?

A

A-every 12 months

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60
Q

are PASs calibrated?

A

A-weekly

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61
Q

How long do you have to maintain observation of the suspect/not allowing him to place anything in his mouth prior to administering the PAS?

A

A-15 minutes

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62
Q

How much time do you have between test samples?

A

A-2 mintues

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63
Q

How often do you have to check the packaging for any visible damage?

A

A-monthly

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64
Q

When leaving a city vehicle unattended the driver shall:

A

A-Place it in park- E brake- roll windows up- remove keys- lock all doors

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65
Q

Fleet / Supply review fuel card usage on a _____ basis

A

A-Monthly

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66
Q

Body markings shall be covered while in an official capacity representing the department except while participation in off-duty athletic events. T/F

A

A-T

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67
Q

Who is authorized to approve exemptions to this GO?

A

A-COP

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68
Q

How many years of service do you need before you can by your badge or hat piece?

A

A-10 years

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69
Q

Who handles officer by purchases of their duty weapon?

A

A-Governmental Affairs Unit

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70
Q

Supervisors shall take corrective action upon identifying equipment and/or supplies needing repair. T/F

A

A-T

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71
Q

What does the Card Key record?

A

A-Date-time-and person entering or leaving the city building

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72
Q

FCC monitors the departments radio transmissions for violations such as but not limited to?

A

A-transmission of obscene language-failure to ID transmission with assigned radio designator

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73
Q

In the event of radio communication loss lasting longer than _____ or loss during an emergency Field Personnel shall:

A

A-immediately call the Supervisor via CP- Provide location-contact number-SB for further Cont.

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74
Q

Field Supervisors shall: (Sgt becomes middle liaison for dispatch and officers)

A

Contact Dispatch and provide Units status / Dispatch will provide Sgt with info on calls pending-Make assignments on calls and advise dispatch

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75
Q

CORI information shall not be requested nor provided except when needed to perform a specific enforcement task or during emergency requiring immediate dissemination. T/F

A

A-T

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76
Q

How many officers are assigned to an in progress or silent alarm call?

A

A-2

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77
Q

How many officers respond to an officers incomplete call for help?

A

A-2 Officers and a supervisor- unless otherwise specified by the officer

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78
Q

When can an officer refer a Felony that just occurred to Report Writers?

A

A-it is known that the suspect has left-the victim has not been injured- and there are not multiple victims

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79
Q

After rollcall the supervisor needs to advise Radio Coordinator ASAP of any changes to roster. T/F

A

A-T

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80
Q

Platform maintained by SPD for the purpose of sending emergency messages to a ________ _____ as well as specific registered persons during critical incident.

A

A-Geographical area

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81
Q

What is a SAC-ALERT?

A

A-A message sent via Community Emergency Notification System

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82
Q

Inappropriate use of the system include:

A

A-meetings/public event- political - minor incidents or MPs where there is not threat of death Inj.

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83
Q

Who can authorize a Sac-Alert?

A

A-Watch commander and above.

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84
Q

Priorities are as follows:

A

A-1 pursuits and cover calls -2 emergency response to preserve life -3 crimes against person w/in 15- property crimes in progress -4 non-life threatening in progress- time element -5 Service calls (901-alarms-non-violent)- Report calls (crime against person rpt) -6 service calls (errands-found property)- report calls (property crimes) -7 CSI 8 Game Plans -9 BO5

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85
Q

Officers have ___ minutes to be in service and must stay in their assigned area until ____ minutes prior to EO and cant arrive to the station sooner than ____ minutes unless authorized by SGT.

A

A-30 30 and 15

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86
Q

How long is shot spotter information retained?

A

A-7 years

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87
Q

Police shall be in command of criminal incidents and fire primary in traffic collisions (regarding first aid efforts)? T/F

A

A-T

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88
Q

Neighbors family children friends or volunteers should not be used unless ___?

A

A-exigent circumstances apprehension/evidence

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89
Q

Unless otherwise approved by ____ priority calls __ ___ ____ shall be voiced?

A

A-Watch Commander 1-2-3

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90
Q

Retention period shall for Hazard Files shall not exceed _____ days?

A

A-365

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91
Q

Situations you dont need to request CSI?

A

A-vacant business or house- garage-outbuilding or shed- attempt burglaries-known suspect w/previous permission-suspect wearing gloves

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92
Q

Misdemeanor battery photographs shall be taken at the _____ after the victim has signed the private persons arrest.

A

A-Public safety center security desk

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93
Q

Point to Point messages should be audited on a _______ basis or at the request of the division captain.

A

A-quarterly

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94
Q

Who is responsible for proper use of unit identifiers?

A

A-Watch Commander

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95
Q

When can officer use the CU command?

A

A-Priority 1 or on a pre-scheduled GP

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96
Q

Who shall monitor the use of CU by officers?

A

A-Sergeants

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97
Q

Who authorizes activation of a tip line?

A

A-Watch Commander- LT in major crimes-investigating supervisor

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98
Q

PIT requires what forms to be completed by Supervisor?

A

A-Blue Border Form

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99
Q

Is a Blue Team required if there is no PIT or Spike Strip use?

A

A-Yes

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100
Q

<p>Authorized reasons for C3 driving.</p>

A

<p> A-violent crime in progress-preservation of Life-prevent a crime of violence-asts to conduct a felony vehicle stop-serious hazard-request for cover / dire emergency </p>

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101
Q

Can flex cuffs be used to detain mentally ill persons?

A

A-No

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102
Q

When should a medic be requested for transport of a 5150?

A

A-Need to physically restrain or medical asts needed

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103
Q

Does an officer have authority to force a non-arrested injured person of sound mind to medical treatment?

A

A-No

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104
Q

What happens if a person of sound mind refuses medical what document needs to be completed?

A

A-An I rpt

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105
Q

Appropriate locations for specimen drop-off?

A

A-UCD/SMC

106
Q

Within ____ hours form the time the DUI suspect was driving is a reasonable time to obtain blood.

A

A-3

107
Q

Can an officer require hospital staff to complete a blood draw?

A

A-No

108
Q

Do need to video record a non-consensual blood draw?

A

A-Yes

109
Q

Ways you can be infected?

A

A-Open sores-mouth to mouth-cut/puncture

110
Q

If administered officers must notify supervisor and completed the following reports?

A

A-crime/casualty or incident report and a SCEMSA form

111
Q

Felony arrest packets need to be forwarded to the DAs office within ___hours?

A

A-48

112
Q

Felony arrest reports need to be completed and approved no later than _____ the following day.

A

A-2300hrs

113
Q

Sergeant shall immediately notify proper authority by phone and writing when a school employee is arrested for HS violations? T/F

A

A-T

114
Q

Can a transport unit bring a prisoner through the front doors of a station?

A

A-No- unless it becomes necessary for officer or prisoner safety

115
Q

Upon request juvenile prisoners are allowed ___ snack if they have not eaten within the past ___ hours.

A

A-1 / 4

116
Q

Can an adult prisoner and juvenile prisoner be placed in the same room?

A

A-yes- investigative purpose- constant observation-and with supervisor consent

117
Q

Intoxicated Juvenile prisoners shall be check on every ____ minutes.

A

A-15

118
Q

Juvenile prisoners shall not be held in department custody longer than ___hours.

A

A-6

119
Q

Juvenile prisoners shall only be held in secure detention if the juvenile.

A

A-is in custody on 602WI offenses-at least 14 years old-presents a security risk.

120
Q

Detained Juveniles shall be in constant verbal/auditory to staff and checked on every ___ minutes.

A

A-30

121
Q

Misdemeanor reports need to have two things.

A

A-reason of non-release and procedure to identify the offender

122
Q

Supervisors shall complete audits of ECD equipment on a ____

A

A-Annual basis

123
Q

ECD shall be used for

A

A-traffic-misdemeanor-infraction- warnings

124
Q

You may issue a Private Persons Arrest from the ECD. T/F

A

A-T

125
Q

What should be included in street check when a detained person is released?

A

A-reason that warranted detention-was the person handcuffed-and force or control holds used

126
Q

Do you need an 849b Form (SPD138) if the arrestee is no longer custody?

A

A-No have to submit a supl and expedite rpt / personal or phone call to DA (if arrest packet already sent)

127
Q

Determine the Foreign Nationals country within ___ hours of being arrested or detained.

A

A-2

128
Q

Where do you find the level of diplomatic immunity?

A

A-On the back of a US Department of State ID card

129
Q

How much of advanced notice does Jail/Hall need for physical line-up?

A

24hrs/1week

130
Q

Do you need CSI at your line-up?

A

A-Yes for photographs of participants

131
Q

Multi-arrest shall be videotaped?

A

A-Yes by CSI whenever possible

132
Q

When doing a multi-arrest you file all charges as ___ complaint.

A

A-one

133
Q

When officers are unable to handcuff shackle or flex-cuff a suspect they shall _____

A

A-Notify their supervisor

134
Q

Who can restrict prisoner visitations?

A

A-Watch Commander

135
Q

Can you deny a prisoner access to his attorney? If summoned by a relative?

A

A-No

136
Q

Can you search for weapons and/or contraband an attorney visiting prisoner at a hospital?

A

A-yes- consistent with safety regulations at a secure facility

137
Q

Should you request photo ID of the prisoners attorney?

A

A-Yes you SHALL request ID and verify at www.calbar.ca.gov

138
Q

Founded in 1927 by the legislature

A

The State Bar of California is an administrative arm of the California Supreme Court. Protection of the public is the highest priority of the State Bar. All lawyers practicing in California must be members.

139
Q

____ officer(s) shall escort a prisoner from the hospital to a patrol vehicle.

A

A-2

140
Q

Arrest reports need to be delivered to records within ____ hours.

A

A-24

141
Q

Juvenile hall has ____ hours after the arrest to file a petition with the courts.

A

A-48

142
Q

What type of check(s) do you need to have done for a ride along applicant

A

A-Criminal History and a Warrant Check

143
Q

Who needs to call communications with dispatch in order to have the appropriate entity to secure or eliminate the hazard?

A

A-Supervisor

144
Q

What form needs to be completed for liability purposes when securing buildings?

A

A-Red border form

145
Q

Approved by _____ and managed by _____

A

A-Office Chief / CIU

146
Q

_________ handles processing of petition and _______ approves it

A

A-Records / OOI Captain

147
Q

Who manages and installs RAMS?

A

A-NCU

148
Q

Ringers and silent ringers are dispatched as priority ___ unless otherwise indicated.

A

A-4

149
Q

Silent Burglary alarm received by the alarm company is considered a burglary in progress and dispatched as a priority ___

A

A-2

150
Q

Silent Robbery alarms are priority ___

A

A-1

151
Q

Who needs to be notified prior to any narcotic related events?

A

A-WISN

152
Q

WISN Watch Center will cancel critical incident events after ___ hours

A

24 hours

153
Q

How long are the critical event maintained by WISN

A

6 Months

154
Q

Unusual or major events include

A

A-potential for media-gov. official executive-on city property or city employee

155
Q

Sgt shall make themselves familiar with the call and monitor and direct searches?

A

A-True

156
Q

Commercial explosives (should or should not) be handled by Officers and must make a perimeter of _____ feet

A

A-should NOT / 1000

157
Q

How many levels of hazardous materials are there?

A

A-3. I-minor containment and may require evacuations-II-will require SFD and evacuations-III-SFD special equipment and two or more HAZMATs

158
Q

When the SPD MCU is deployed it will go to the vicinity of SFDs IC and be a _____.

A

A- Unified Command Post

159
Q

SID responds to the scene for the investigation and HAZMAT for the hazard. If there is no prosecutable case what happens to the scene?

A

A-Surrender responsibility to the Fire Dept.

160
Q

How many days do you have to send the letter to Sacramento County Environmental Health Division?

A

A-3

161
Q

What is an IAP?

A

Incident Action Plan- it is intended for Planned events or incidents- not for rapidly evolving or special emergencies

162
Q

IAP for Special Operations i.e. raids warrant service surveillance involving ___ or more officers from one or more offices

A

A-4

163
Q

Major Police Operations include

A

A-labor disputes-civil protest-public events-parades-fairs-rallies etc.

164
Q

What are the 5 major functional areas of ICS (Incident Command System)

A

A-Command-Operation- Planning-Logistics-Finance/Admin

165
Q

Things to consider regarding ICP

A

-location-ingress/egress-radio channel- IC

166
Q

CNT/HNT assignments

A

A-Team Leader/liaison-primary negotiator-back-up negotiator-intelligence negotiator

167
Q

How many officers are dispatched to a Robbery

A

A-3 and Sgt notified

168
Q

The supervisor shall in form the station commander of all bias motivated crimes and incidents?

A

A-T

169
Q

Who is responsible for the follow-up on bais crimes?

A

A-Felony Assaults A-CIU will be liaison in the investigation

170
Q

No report required when booking items booked are _____ _____ or ______.

A

A-Safekeeping-found-or disposal

171
Q

Exception to the no report rule are narcotics firearms contraband and unusual circumstances.

A

A-Yes

172
Q

Where do you book expended shell casings homicide evidence and/or over 3k cash?

A

A-Sequoia Pacific

173
Q

Should you empty out the magazine and book the ammo and magazine separate?

A

A-No-leave the magazine origina but do book it separate from the firearm

174
Q

1/2 ounce or more need to be booked at ____ ?

A

A-Sequoia Pacific

175
Q

1 / 2 a pound or more needs notification of ______?

A

A-Watch Commander

176
Q

Marijuana more than 2ounces and less than 2 pounds needs how many random samples.

A

A-5

177
Q

Money tally sheets shall be completed for amount in excess of _____.

A

A-200

178
Q

Money of 1K or more shall require

A

A-Sup notify-2 sworn or FIS employees

179
Q

Items that shall not be released in the field are

A

A-Firearms-money-contraband-evidence-items from a search warrant-seized for allied agency

180
Q

Found property is held for ___days

A

A-90

181
Q

If the owner is known EPS will call them and give them ___ days to claim the property

A

A-15

182
Q

Safekeeping property is held for ____ days

A

A-60

183
Q

Can a photograph of a detained subject be taken

A

A-yes-in the field for investigative purpose includes juveniles

184
Q

All photographs shall be taken using the highest quality compression ____ setting.

A

A-JPEG

185
Q

Who approves request for recordings from the CCTV system

A

A-Program manager

186
Q

Who approves where the cameras go

A

A-Deputy Chief of Operations

187
Q

Grabem device is to be used when

A

A-Arrest-consent-PC to search for ID-ID 926

188
Q

POD videos not considered evidence shall be retained for a minimum of ___days

A

A-90

189
Q

HOT list will be downloaded automatically into the ALPR system a minimum of ___a day

A

A-Twice

190
Q

HOT list expiration dates not to exceed

A

A 30 days 24hours if in MUPS SFRS and others

191
Q

Who manages the Ride along program

A

A Area Captain or designee

192
Q

What unit is responsible or liaison with FBI regarding bank robberies

A

A-NCU

193
Q

Who is authorized to make the call for a on-call detective to respond?

A

A-Field supervisor calls the OOI unit supervisor

194
Q

After Action Debriefs are done for what type of incidents?

A

A-Major incident (ICP is made for critical incident-SWAT deployment-OIS- mutual aid) or Major Operations (any operation where a GP was prepared except Narcotic entries)

195
Q

Debriefs shall be held within ____ days after the incident

A

20

196
Q

Who makes the decision for a Debrief?

A

A-Office Chief

197
Q

Attachments for the Debrief i.e. dispatch audio com call history video tapes diagrams etc. need to be submitted within ___ days.

A

A-10

198
Q

How long does the Lt. of Homicide have to submit a Death in Custody form to Attorney General?

A

A-within 10 days

199
Q

Who is responsible for the Investigation?

A

A-Homicide

200
Q

If natural who is responsible for the investigation and report

A

A-Patrol Officer

201
Q

If not natural who makes the call regarding call out?

A

A-Supervisor responds and updates WC with circumstances

202
Q

Suicide Notes shall

A

A-be copied verbatim in RPT or summarized if lengthy

203
Q

Should you escort either party identified in an R/O to the location to facilitate a 414?

A

A-no unless specifically authorized in the R/O

204
Q

On a domestic violence call officers should look for the ____ to arrest rather than the _____

A

A-most significant / first arressor

205
Q

Where are sexual assault victims take for evidentiary exams?

A

A-Sutter Medical center BEAR Exam Office

206
Q

Sexual assault examinations may be of little use after __ days

A

A-7

207
Q

Reasons to notify SACA Sergeant regarding sexual assault calls

A

A-Complicated scene-crime is part of a series-vics emotional condition indicates SACA should do initial interview

208
Q

What is the minimum amount of money needed to prosecute a Kidnapping/Ransom Extortion?

A

A-1 dollar

209
Q

Who is primary investigatory unit if there is no verified hostage location?

A

A-OOI Homicide

210
Q

Who is responsible for kidnappings when a hostage location has been identified?

A

A-Watch Commander

211
Q

Who is responsible for Extortion when no kidnapping has taken place?

A

A-NCU

212
Q

Steps to protect the hostage ascertain number of victims and location

A

A-surveillance- secure area- affect the release of any hostages- make arrest- and provide any other necessary assistance

213
Q

De-escalation techniques include?

A

A-info gathering-assessing risks-resources- time/place/cover- crisis intervention-coordinated response

214
Q

A ___ border form needs to be completed with every UOF report.

A

A-Red

215
Q

Brief resistance to the application of departmentally approved control holds ____ require a report.

A

A-does not

216
Q

Supervisors responsibility in UOF.

A

A-respond to scene-review incident w/ ofcs-review recordings- assess appropriateness/charges-arrange transport

217
Q

UOF response

A

A-Notify Lt. immediately and review UOF>if not good> Captain review> still not good >IA

218
Q

BLUE team needed when.

A

A-UOF results in medical clearance- discharge of firearm-canine bite-impact weapon-OC-carotid-CED-or injury that deviates from Dept techniques or equipment (can use BT for any type of UOF if needed)

219
Q

Content of a BT.

A

A-Summary of incident-info not relevant to crime or report (admin actions)-opinion re consistency of UOF w/Dept policy

220
Q

BT for UOF resulting in death in custody or discharge of firearm shall be done by

A

A-IA/PSU

221
Q

Supervisor responsibilities during an OIS

A

A-respond-take charge-notify Lt- stabilize-scene protection-recorder- brief of incident from non-inv or inv> public safety statement-central point of contact for inv statement- (admin order ofc PSS)- peer support

222
Q

Department rifles and shotguns shall not be taken home without ____

A

A-sworn management approval (exception-home retention vehicles w/locking device secured)

223
Q

Proper transportation of loaded seized firearms?

A

A-Safe position and after informing supervisor

224
Q

All department purchased firearms shall be inspected by armorer on a

A

A-annually basis

225
Q

Can tactical firearm lights be used for general illumination?

A

A-No

226
Q

Exception to not wearing a Flexible Body Armor

A

A-undercover operations and formal ceremony or funeral

227
Q

Amount covered by SPD for vest

A

A-729 dollars

228
Q

Reason for replacement of vest

A

A-Work related damage- 5 year lifespan-new employee-no longer provides adequate protection for user

229
Q

What do you do with old vest?

A

A-return them to department armor

230
Q

When can you use the CED on a handcuffed suspect

A

A-actively resisting or exhibiting aggression- and/or prevent suspect from hurting self or others

231
Q

Appropriate use of the CED

A

A-Violent or physically resistive subject- (or potentially) e.g. indicated or demonstrated intent to resist-non-compliant after verbal warning-other options appear ineffective or would pose a danger to officers or subject- fleeing subject after considering severity of the offense- subject threat level to others-risk of serious injury to others

232
Q

When not to use CED (unless exigent circumstances)

A

A-pregnant-elderly-children-visibly frail-presence of combustibles-collateral damage to suspect (height-drowning-driver of vehicle)-limited effectiveness of drive stun.

233
Q

Use of the CED arc to prevent a potential dangerous or injurious situation need what documentation

A

A-general offense report

234
Q

Duties after deployment of CED

A

A-Officer remains with suspect monitoring vitals-C3 medics-collect probes and AFIDs- CED cartridge serial number and location of probe contact docd on rpt-photos of probe impact and other injuries-jail staff info and advise of CED used

235
Q

IF discharged who uploads CED data?

A

Lt or designee (IA and Homicide also has the authority)

236
Q

Classification should be done accordingly for any of the following.

A

A-Robbery-MP-Bomb threat/device-Fatal Collision-Death investigation-kidnapping-sex assault-homicide

237
Q

Average time for a person to lose consciousness corotid

A

A-5-15 seconds

238
Q

Average time for person to regain consciousness corotid

A

A-20-30 seconds

239
Q

Without normal flow of oxygenated blood brain damage or death can occur within

A

A-4-6 minutes / Brain damage can occur within 1 minute

240
Q

High risk individuals when applying the carotid

A

A-older with cardiac abnormalities-younger than 14years old-on psychosis drugs-psychotic behavior

241
Q

A search occurs when

A

a government officer infringes upon an expectation of privacy that society considers reasonable.

242
Q

A seizure of property occurs when

A

there is some meaningful interference with an individuals possessory interest in that property.

243
Q

A seizure of a person occurs.

A

(1) a peace officer physically applies force or (2) when a person voluntarily submits to a peace officers authority.

244
Q

Violation of 4th Amendment

A

must be by a government agent and must be intentional.

245
Q

Standing requirements.?

A

-property or possessory interest -right to exclude others for location/place -exhibit subjective expectation from governmental invasion -took normal precautions to maintain privacy -legitimacy on the premise

246
Q

A person who has rented a room with a stolen credit card?

A

lacks standing to contest entry by police including compliance with knock and notice.

247
Q

Partial payment with a 20 dollar counterfeit bill?

A

did not terminate continued motel room rental or extinguish patrons expectation of privacy in the room.

248
Q

A person may even lack a reasonable expectation of privacy in his own home if

A

it consists of no more than a make-shift shelter located on public property that the person is occupying without permission and in violation of the law.

249
Q

A thief does not have standing to object to a seizure or search of

A

stolen goods.

250
Q

Person who shipped suitcase 3000 miles under someone elses name lacked

A

standing to object to a consensual search.

251
Q

Officers arrest of minor at 5.45 a.m. was

A

illegal because officer thought curfew ordinance covered hours of 10 p.m. to 6 a.m. but actual hours were 10 p.m. to 5 a.m.

252
Q

It was only a consensual encounter not a detention when the officer

A

asked Can I talk to you for a moment? and the individual said yes and then agreed to wait in the back of a police car while the officer ran a warrants check when everything was spoken in a polite conversational tone without physical or verbal force.

253
Q

A peace officer may approach an individual in a public place identify herself as a law enforcement officer and in a non-coercive manner ask the individual a few questions without reasonable suspicion

A

Legal consensual contact no detention

254
Q

What are the specs for less lethal?

A

A-Flexible baton round. 0-75ft - A-Pepper ball. 0-164-40mm exact impound sponge/ 5-131ft -A-40mm impact OC (orange tip). 5-120

255
Q

What are Areas to avoid are in less lethal

A

-Face-Eyes-Throat- Groin

256
Q

In case of malfunction of less lethal weapon who do is the equipment turned into?

A

A-Watch Commander

257
Q

Considerations prior to deploying K9

A

A-age or estimate age-offense-potential danger if k9 not used- degree of resistance-potential escape if k9 not used-potential risk of injury officers or public if k9 not used

258
Q

Who makes the SWAT call out?

A

A-IC or Watch Commander

259
Q

How long are diversionary devices supposed to cause physical/psychological deprivation?

A

A-6-8 seconds

260
Q

Can Diversionary Devices be used to prevent destruction of evidence?

A

A-No

261
Q

<p>Who is authorized to handle/deploy diversionary devices?</p>

A

<p>A-SWAT and K-9 </p>

new sgt. tct (8 decks)

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