Care of the Newborn Flashcards

1
Q

Name 6 functions of the placenta

A

1) Site of 02 transfer
2) Provides nutrition
3) Provides growth hormones
4) Controls fluid and electrolyte balance
5) Undertakes waste removal
6) Allows IgG to pass into the fetus

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2
Q

Name 6 functions of the placenta

A

1) Site of 02 transfer
2) Provides nutrition
3) Provides growth hormones
4) Controls fluid and electrolyte balance
5) Undertakes waste removal
6) Allows IgG to pass into the fetus

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3
Q

How do 2,3-DPG levels differ in pregnant and non-pregnant women and what effect does this have?

A

Pregnant women have 30% higher 2,3-DPG levels. 2,3-DPG binds to β-chains of Hb and reduces affinity of Hb for 02 and increases release. This shifts the 02 dissociation curve to the right.

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4
Q

How does 2,3-DPG affect the fetus?

A

The fetal Hb contains γ chains rather than β chains. γ chains have a much lower affinity for 2, 3-DPG therefore the 02 dissociation curve of the fetus is further left

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5
Q

What three factors allow effective oxygen donation to, and use, by the fetus?

A

1) Lower PaO2 in umbilical arteries than the maternal circulation creates an O2 gradient
2) The fetal haemoglobin (HbF) has a higher affinity for 02 than maternal haemoglobin (HbA) which facilitates uptake of released O2
3) Higher Hb in fetus allows effective carriage and release of oxygen despite increased affinity

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6
Q

What vessel carries blood from the placenta to the fetus?

A

The umbilical vein which carries oxygenated blood at low pressure

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7
Q

What vessels carry blood from fetus to placenta?

A

Umbilical arteries (x2) which carry deoxygenated blood at high pressure

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8
Q

What vessels carry blood from fetus to placenta?

A

Umbilical arteries (x2) which carry deoxygenated blood at high pressure

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9
Q

What three structures make the fetal circulation different to our own?

A

1) Foramen ovale
2) Ductus arteriosus
3) Ductus venosus

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10
Q

Describe the location and purpose of the foramen ovale

A

The foramen ovale is a hole between the right and left atrium, which allows blood to be shunted from the right atrium to the left atrium thus bypassing the lungs.

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11
Q

Describe the location and purpose of the ductus arteriosus

A

The ductus arteriosus is a small blood vessel connecting the pulmonary artery to the aorta. It allows the remaining blood in the right ventricle to bypass the lungs (RV only pumps 2/3 of cardiac output)

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12
Q

Describe the location and purpose of the ductus arteriosus

A

The ductus arteriosus is a small blood vessel connecting the pulmonary artery to the aorta. It allows the remaining blood in the right ventricle to bypass the lungs (RV only pumps 2/3 of cardiac output)

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13
Q

Describe the location and purpose of the ductus venosus

A

The ductus venosus is a small blood vessel connecting the umbilical vein to the fetal IVC. It allows a proportion of the oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver.

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14
Q

What does the ductus arteriosus become after closure?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

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15
Q

What does the ductus venosus become after closure?

A

Ligamentum venosum

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16
Q

What is ligamentum teres (also known as the round ligament of the liver)?

A

The remnant of the umbilical vein. The mesentery become the falciform ligament.

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17
Q

Define functional residual capacity

A

The volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration

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18
Q

What causes closure of the ductus arteriosus?

A

The ductus arteriosus is closed by increased partial pressure of oxygen. The effect is mediated by inhibition of prostaglandins.

19
Q

What happens to the umbilical arteries?

A

They constrict but some parts remain patent supplying the urinary bladder

20
Q

What are the nutrient requirements of a neonate?

A
Water - 150ml/kg/day
Calories - 110 kcal/kg/day
Protein - 1-2g/kg/day
Fat - including essential fatty acids
Minerals, vitamins and trace elements
21
Q

What is the predominant immunoglobulin found in breast milk?

A

IgA (the colostrum has particularly high levels of IgA)

22
Q

What is the predominant immunoglobulin found in breast milk?

A

IgA (the colostrum has particularly high levels of IgA)

23
Q

What two types of cancer does breast feeding reduce the risk of in the mother?

A

Breast cancer and ovarian cancer

24
Q

What two types of cancer does breastfeeding reduce the risk of in the mother?

A

Breast cancer and ovarian cancer

25
Q

Define preterm birth

A

Less than 37 weeks gestation

26
Q

Define:

1) Low birth weight (LBW)
2) Very low birth weight (VLBW)
3) Extremely low birth weight (ELBW)

A

1)

27
Q

Define still birth mortality rate

A

Fetus born with no signs of life at greater than or equal to 24 weeks old

28
Q

Define perinatal mortality rate

A

Stillbirths + deaths within the first 7 days of life per 1000 live births

29
Q

What is the stage of lung development at 7 weeks?

A

Pseudoglandular stage

30
Q

What is the stage of lung development at 18 weeks?

A

Canalicular stage

31
Q

What is the stage of lung development at 24 weeks?

A

Saccular stage, type II pneumocytes

32
Q

What is the stage of lung development at 32 weeks?

A

Alveolar stage

33
Q

Ventilation = ?

A

Ventilation = tidal volume x respiratory rate

34
Q

What is perinatal asphyxia? What is the resulting condition called in neonates?

A

Perinatal asphyxia is when gas exchange, either pulmonary or placental, is compromised or ceases altogether. The resulting neonatal condition is called hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy.

35
Q

What may cause failure of gas exchange across the placenta?

A

Excessive or prolonged uterine contractions, placental abruption or a ruptured uterus

36
Q

What may cause interruption of umbilical blood flow?

A

Cord compression, including shoulder dystocia; and cord prolapse.

37
Q

What can cause inadequate maternal placental perfusion?

A

Maternal hypotension or hypertension - often with IUGR

38
Q

When do the clinical manifestations of hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy start? And how are they graded?

A

Immediately or up to 48 hours post asphyxia. They are graded as mild, moderate or severe.

39
Q

Describe mild clinical manifestations of hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

A

The infant is irritable, responds excessively to stimulation, may have staring of the eyes & hyperventilation and has impaired feeding.

40
Q

Describe moderate clinical manifestations of hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

A

The infant shows marked abnormalities of tone and movement, cannot feed and may have seizures.

41
Q

Describe severe clinical manifestations of hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

A

There are no normal spontaneous movements or response to pain; tone in the limbs may fluctuate between hypotonia and hypertonia; seizures are prolonged and often refractory to treatment; multi organ failure is present.

42
Q

Neuronal damage may be primary from neuronal death or may be delayed from…

A

Reperfusion injury, causing secondary neuronal death

43
Q

What treatment may offer neuroprotection from reperfusion injury?

A

Mild hypothermia (33 to 34 degrees for 72 hours by wrapping in a cooling blanket)

44
Q

What does aEEG stand for? and what does it monitor?

A

Amplitude-integrated electroencephalogram. It monitors cerebral function and can detect abnormal background activity to confirm early encephalopathy or identify seizures.