Care of surgical patients Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of pyrexia post-op?

A

Infection: 1-2d resp, 3-5d UTI, 5-7d surgical site/abscess, any day consider infected IV/central line
Iatrogenic: malignant hyper-pyrexia, transfusion reactions
VTE: may cause low fever
PUO: recurrent fever >38 for >3w without obvious cause despite >1w inpatient investigation

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2
Q

Causes of tachycardia post op?

A

Pain, anxiety, infection, thyrotoxicosis, hypovolaemic shock, recent onset AF/flutter, anastomotic leak

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3
Q

Cause of sudden collapse/deterioration post op?

A

CVS-MI, PE, stroke
Resp-failure of reversal of anaesthesia, hypoxia
Surgical-hypovolaemia, bowel obstruction, sepsis
Metabolic-electrolytes, hypoglycaemia, adrenal insufficiency
Anaphylaxis

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4
Q

Cause of N&V post op?

A

Drugs: opiates, erythromycin, metronidazole
Immediately post-op: vestibular, oropharyngeal stimulation from NGT, hypotension, pain, anxiety
Bowel obstruction: mechanical, dynamic bowel or faecal impaction
Systemic disorders like uraemia, RICP
Haematemesis

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5
Q

Cause of bowel dysfunction post op?

A

Diarrhoea: common transient post-ado surgery, C diff
Constipation: common due to restricted fluids + fibre, reluctancy using bed pan, slow recovery of peristalsis, opiates, lack of mobility. Hydration, fibre, mobilise, osmotic laxatives e.g. lactulose, stimulants e.g. senna, bulk-forming e.g. ispaghula husk, glycerine suppositories, phosphate enemas

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6
Q

Cause of poor urine output post op? (<0.5ml/kg/hour)

A

Pre-existing bladder outlet obstruction, embarrassment, overfilling bladder during operation, neurological disturbance from GA/spinal, pain from abdo wound, constipation, hypovolaemia, reduced CO, AKI

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7
Q

Post-op delirium - causes + workup

A

Acute confusional state, disturbed consciousness + reduced cognitive function. Short term + fluctuating, commonly get hallucinations/delusions, hypoactive > hyperactive

Causes: Hypoxia, infection, drugs (BZDs, diuretics, opioids, steroids), dehydration, pain, constipation, urinary retention, endocrine issues

Workup: collateral hx, AMT, CAM, review obs + drugs + signs of infection, neuro examination to r/o stroke/SDH, bloods (FBC, U+E, Ca, TFT, glucose, poss haematinics/blood culture/wound swabs), urinalysis, CXR, CT head if indicated

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8
Q

Cause of respiratory problems post op?

A

ARDS: severe hypoxaemia from inflammatory damage to alveoli - pulmonary oedema - damaged T2 pneumocytes so less surfactants. Direct (pneumonia, smoke, aspiration, fat embolism) + indirect (sepsis, pancreatitis) causes. High mortality + progression to pulmonary fibrosis. Causes sob, cyanosis, hypoxia, tachycardia/pnoea, inspiratory crackles, CXR shows diffuse b/l infiltrates (like pulmonary oedema). M is supportive (ventilation), treat cause, need ITU

Atelectasis: partial collapse of small airways, occurs in most post-op to some extent within 24h. Less expansion - pulmonary secretions accumulate - hypoxaemia, reduced compliance, increased infection. RF include smoking, GA, longer operations, underlying lung/NM disease, poor pain control. M: deep breathing, physio, analgesia

Pneumonia: HAP >48h post-admission. Due to reduced ventilation or change in commensals e.g. E coli/S aureus etc. P/w pneumonia CF inc impaired cognition, cannot use CURB65

Aspiration pneumonia: of gastric contents – chemical pneumonitis and poss infection depending on if bacteria get in, usually RML/RLL. RF: reduced GCS, NGT, prolonged vomiting, neuro problems, and post-abdo surgery. M: SALT, supportive, Abx if infection

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9
Q

Post-op bowel complications

A

Anastomotic leaks: leak of luminal contents from surgical join between two hollow viscera, causes signs of peritonism + sepsis + prolonged ileus, check wound drain for faeculent/purulent/bilious matter. RF include emergency/big ops, peritoneal contamination, rectal anastomosis, meds, smoking, alcohol, DM, obesity. M: NBM, brand spec Abx, catheterise, minor leaks bowel rest + percutaneous drainage, major need laparotomy

Bowel adhesions: fibrous bands that cause SBO, most conservative (tube decompression, NBM, fluids, analgesia), surgery if >48h or perforation or ischaemia

Incisional herniae: as have made a weakness, common, can strangulate etc. RF: emergency surgery, wound type, raised BMI, midline incisions, wound infection, pre-op chemo, intra-op blood transfusion, older pt, pregnant pt

Constipation: most often from paralytic ileus but can be cos of low fluid/low fibre, drugs e.g. opioids, functional (e.g. painful defecation), pathological (e.g. bowel obstruction, hypercalcaemia, hypothyroidism). Risk increased with intra-op bowel handling, low mobility. DRE may show faecal impaction. M: hydration, fibre, mobilising, osmotic laxatives (increase fluid to soften it so lactulose/movicol), stimulant laxatives (cause contraction so senna, picosulfate), bulk-forming laxatives (retain water like ispaghula husk), rectal stimulants (phosphate enema, glycerine suppository). Stimulant used for ileus/opioid/soft stool, stool softener + suppositories for hard stool

Post-op ileus: intestinal motility stops causing functional obstruction, common and usually goes away (tho can be because of anastomotic leaks). RF include pt age/electrolytes/meds, surgical opioids/bowel handling/intestinal resections), causes absolute constipation, distention, N&V/high NG output, absent BS (whereas mechanical obstruction=tinkling bowel sounds). If not improving do CT. M-daily bloods, mobilise, reduce opiates.

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10
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities + ECG changes

A

Hyperkalaemia - causes include AKI, K+ sparing diuretics, ACEi/ARB, repeated blood transfusions, excess K+. ECG may show tall T waves, long PR, flattened P, prolonged QRS, widened QRS, axial deviation + BBBs, sine wave pattern, VF, asystole. High levels may cause paraesthesia, muscle weakness, N+V, palps. M: stabilise myocardium (IV calcium chloride/gluconate), reduce serum K+ (VRII + dextrose), salbutamol nebs, reverse cause

Hypokalaemia: causes include TD/LD/steroids/excess insulin/salbuamol/D+V/hyperaldosteronism/burns/inadequate replacement in fluids/malnutrition/Cushing’s/low magnesium.. ECG may show long PR, T flat/inverted, prominent U wave, ST depression, VT/VF. Most asymptomatic but may cause muscle weakness, paraesthesia, constipation, hypotonia, hyporeflexia, cramps, tetany

Hypernatraemia: quite rare tbh, no ECG, sx when v high levels, may be hypovolaemic (diuretics/dehydration/acute tubular necrosis/HHS), euvolaemic from diabetes insipidus, or hypervolaemic from excess hypertonic saline/steroid excess. Can cause weakness, lethargy, irritable, confusion, ataxia, seizures, tremor, coma. M=replace fluid deficit, lower sodium by 10mmol/day (to reduce risk of cerebral oedema).

Hyponatraema: v common, no ECG changes. Hypovolaemic due to D+V or diuretics, euvolaemic due to fluid overload or SIADH or hypervolaemic due to HF/cirrhosis/acute tubular necrosis. Usually no sx but severe causes neuro signs as low plasma osmolality means fluid moves to ICF, in brain this causes RICP. Do not correct too rapidly as can cause central pontine myelinolysis (rapid change in ECG osmolarity damages myelin sheaths - balance issues, confusion, pseudobulbar palsy, quadriplegia). M: fluid balance, IV fluids with Hartmann’s/normal saline

Hypoglycaemia: due to iatrogenic, gastric dumping syndrome, decompensated liver disease, adrenal insufficiency. Causes sweating, tingling extremities/lips, tremor, dizziness, slurred speech, pallor, confusion, high HR/RR, focal neurology, reduced GCS. May not have signs with BB. M: if conscious give oral glucose rapid acting + complex carbs, if not IV glucose or IM glucagon if no access

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11
Q

Skin complications

A

Keloid scars -tissue projects beyond wound margins without regression, common after burns, recurrence common so don’t usually excise, can try intralesional steroids + silicone gel. (Ddx hypertrophic scar which is within confines of wound margin).

Surgical site infections - usually 3-7d after op, tho prosthetic infections up to several months. Most superficial. RF: age extremes, malnutrition, DM, CKD, smoking, other infection, immune suppressed, long hospital stay, operation length, foreign material, drains, poor closure, post-op hypothermia/haematoma/lymphatic leak. Remove sutures/clips to allow drainage, drain off pus, ABX, monitor for sepsis. Prevent by not routinely removing hair (only immediately before incision), preparing skin intra-op, ABX

Wound dehiscence - failure of wound to close properly. Simple (skin wound, often cos of infection/DM) vs burst (protrusion of abdo contents, often technique failure/raised abdo pressure). Commonest cause is infection, often need return to theatre for debridement + Abx. avoid heavy lifting, improve nutrition.

Abscess - mass of necrotic tissue, needs drainage + Abx

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12
Q

What is gastric dumping syndrome?

A

Post-gastrectomy at risk
Early after eating intraluminal fluid shift + intestine dilatation causes N, V, D
1-3h after eating surge in insulin following ‘dumping’ of food – hypoglycaemia
Manage by frequent small meals and E + D separately to avoid heavy loads

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13
Q

What general management would you apply pre-op?

A

Reassurance
Advice - stop eating 6h before, stop clear fluids 2h before
Prescriptions - various changes may be needed
Referral - consider if they will need HDU/ITU
Investigations
Observations
Patient understanding + follow up

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14
Q

What changes to medication may be needed pre-op?

A

Stop: clopidogrel (7d before [aspirin etc usually fine to continue]), hypoglycaemics (24h before), metformin on day of, COCP/HRT (4w before due to DVT), warfarin (5d before, INR needs to be <1.5)

Alter: SC insulin (sliding scale infusion), long term steroids (must be continued and probably increased due to the stress)

Start: LMWH (most except neck + endocrine), TED stockings (all except vascular + severe skin issues), AB prophylaxis (ortho, vascular, GI), bowel preparations

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15
Q

What bowel preparations may be needed for colorectal surgery?

A

Phosphate enema morning of surgery - left heme-colectomy, sigmoid colectomy or ado-perineal resection
Picolax the day before-anterior resection

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16
Q

Decreased in both serum + urine osmolality?

A

Overhydration, hyponatraemia, adrenocortical insufficiency

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17
Q

Decreased serum osmolality, increased urine osmolality?

A

SIADH

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18
Q

Normal/increased serum osmolality, decreased urine osmolality?

A

Diabetes insipidus

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19
Q

Normal/increased serum osmolality, increased urine osmolality?

A

Dehydration, renal issues, HF, Addison’s, hypercalcaemia, DM, hypernatraemia, alcohol

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20
Q

Outline the body fluid compartments in an average 70kg man

A

42L TBW
ICF 28L
ECF 14L – 3L intravascular, 11L extravascular (split to 10.5L interstitial + 0.5L transcellular)

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21
Q

What is the normal fluid output + input from?

A

Input - 60% from enteric route, rest food + metabolism

Output - urine and insensible losses (respiration, sweat and faeces - these rise during illness)

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22
Q

What are the clinical features of fluid overload?

A

Raised JVP, peripheral/sacral/pulmonary oedema

Orthopnoea, PND

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23
Q

What are the clinical features of fluid depletion?

A

Dry mucus membranes, reduced skin turgor, reduced UO (<0.5ml/kg/hr), orthostatic hypotension; more severe-increased CRT, hypotension, tachycardia, cold peripheries, tachypnoea, NEWS of 5 or more, dry axillae

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24
Q

How can you assess fluid status?

A

History
Examination
Fluid input-output chart + daily weights
U&E - dehydration, renal issues, hypovolaemia signs (high Na+, Hb, haematocrit), plasma osmolality (2 [Na + K] + urea + glucose), urea:creatinine ratio (raised in hypovolaemia as more urea reabsorbed)

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25
Q

Hypovolaemia + dehydration often occur together but what is the difference?

A

Hypovolaemia - loss of sodium + water, patient haemodynamically unstable, needs rapid fluid resus
Dehydration - loss of water but not sodium, can lead to hypovolaemia, patient hypernatraemic, needs oral rehydration/slow IV fluids

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26
Q

Why does bowel obstruction cause dehydration?

A

Fluids that are secreted accumulate but aren’t reabsorbed - isotonic contraction of ECF - dehydration + raised haematocrit
When vomiting lose ECF into gut lumen (also leads to metabolic alkalosis with low blood volume, Cl- and K+)

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27
Q

From where may excess fluid losses occur?

A
Vomiting/NGT - hypocholaraemic hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Biliary drainage
Diarrhoea/colostomy
High or lower volume ileal losses
Pure water loss e.g. fever, dehydration, hyperventilation (potential for hypernatraemia)
Pancreatic drain
Jejunal loss
Inappropriate urinary loss
Ongoing blood loss
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28
Q

What are the daily fluid + electrolyte requirements NICE recommend?

A

Water 25-30 ml/kg/d
Na+, K+, Cl- 1mmol/kg/d
Glucose 50-100g/day

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29
Q

Why are crystalloids preferred over colloids?

A

Colloids: no role in maintenance, risk of anaphylaxis, coagulopathy and higher cost
Crystalloids lower risk and distribute throughout ECF as electrolytes go through membrane (whereas colloids larger proteins mean more likely to stay IV but this is theoretical)

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30
Q

Why to 0.9% NaCl + Hartmann’s distribute in the whole ECF?

A

Their [Na+] is similar to that of the ECF so only about 1/4 stays in the IV part of this. So e.g. for 100ml blood loss need 400ml 0.9% NaCl

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31
Q

What happens if you give too much NaCl?

A

Hypernatraemic, hypercholeraemic metabolic acidosis

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32
Q

How does 5% dextrose distribute?

A

Isotonic in the bag but the sugar is quickly metabolised so it becomes hypotonic so its the same as giving pure water – distributes throughout all compartments, only about 1/12 is IV so bad for resuscitation but good for dehydration/hypernatraemia replacement

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33
Q

How to prescribe maintenance fluids?

A

When patient can’t meet needs enterally but don’t have complex fluid/electrolyte issues – aim to match normal daily requirements as much as poss
-usually mix of salt + sugar. Hartmann’s v good most similar to normal physiology but only low amount of K+ and can’t give extra.

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34
Q

Correcting fluid deficit

A

Correct dehydration

If reduced UO fluid challenge of 250-500ml over 15-30mins, can give up to 2L then need senior help

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35
Q

Replacing ongoing fluid losses?

A

Check for third space losses, is there diuresis, tachypnoea/fever, high stoma output, diarrhoea, is fluid they are losing rich in electrolytes? So replace these as well as their normal daily requirements

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36
Q

Which electrolytes are lost in fluid losses?

A

Vomiting - Na+, H+, K+
Diarrhoea - Na+, K+, HCO3-
All GI secretions - lots of K+

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37
Q

What happens if you give RhD+ blood to a RhD- male?

A

RhD antigen - 85% have it (RhD+)
They will develop the RhD antibody, but not an issue as they don’t attack their own blood
But obv better to give matched blood

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38
Q

Why is RhD mismatch an issue in women?

A

RhD- mother + RhD+ father
Mother contracts RhD+ blood from foetus - develops antibodies - fine for first pregnancy
In second pregnancy, the mother’s anti-D antibodies cross the placenta and enter the foetus’ RhD+ blood
Antibody binds to RhD+ antigens - foetal immune system attacks + destroys its own RBCs - haemolytic disease of the newborn

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39
Q

How is haemolytic disease of the newborn prevented?

A

Give RhD specific blood to women when they need transfusions
Test during first pregnancy, if they are RhD - give injection of anti-RhD immunoglobulin around 28w, so foetal RhD+ RBCs get destroyed before mother exposed to + sensitised to them (which happens a bit later in pregnancy) - passive immunity

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40
Q

What is the universal blood donor for RBCs?

A

O-

No AB or Rh antigens on donor RBC surface, so even if recipient has antibodies to all they are unlikely to reject this

41
Q

What is the universal acceptor?

A

AB+

No A, B or Rh antibodies in plasma so can’t mount immune response

42
Q

ABO blood type meaning?

A

A - anti-B antibodies in plasma, A antigen in RBC, compatible with A and O
B - anti-A antibody in plasma, B antigen in RBC, compatible with B and O
AB - no antibodies in plasma, A + B antigens in RBC, compatible with any in emergency
O - anti A and anti B antibodies in plasma, no antigens in RBC, compatible with type O

43
Q

Difference between group and save and cross matching?

A

G&S: determines blood group, screens for atypical red cell antibodies, information saved

XM: mix blood with donor blood to see if immune reaction occurs (may be done electronically), must do G&S first. For high risk procedures

44
Q

How are blood products requested safely?

A
  1. 3 points of identification, consent, labelling bottle at bedside (not pre-labelled!), transfusion request form at bedside
  2. CMV-negative blood to pregnant women, intra-uterine and to neonates up to 28d (congenital CMV infection - sensorineural deafness + cerebral palsy)
  3. Irradiated blood products: reduce risk of G v H disease in risk people e.g. people having blood from family, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, on chemo etc
45
Q

What does NICE recommend for when to give a blood transfusion?

A

70g/L for red cells (excluding haemorrhage and ACS), target 70-90g/L after transfusion

Prescribe each unit individually, do observations before starts, 15m after and at 1h and completion
Give via green or grey cannula otherwise haemolyses, give via blood giving set (not fluid set)

Recommends single RBC transfusion for surgical patient without active bleeding. Normally when lose >500ml.

If anaemia (Hb<100): in active bleeding ensure haemostats, G+S + XM, may transfuse PRC, check for haematinic deficiency

Do observations before transfusion, after 15mins, at 1hr, at completion. Only give via 18G(green) or 16G (grey) cannula, otherwise the cell haemolyse, and only via blood giving set (has a filter)

46
Q

Packed red cells?

A

Acute blood loss, chronic anaemia Hb< 70, Hb<100 in CVS disease, symptomatic anaemia
Given over 2-4h, 1 unit should increase Hb by about 10g/L by increasing oxygen-carrying capacity
Need G&S before any future transfusions - as may produce autoantibodies to other donor surface antigens

47
Q

Platelets?

A

Haemorrhagic shock, profound thrombocytopenia/bleeding in thrombocytopenia, pre-op when platelets <50
Given over 30 mins
Dangerous to give these in TTP and HIT
Have highest risk of bacterial contamination

48
Q

Fresh frozen plasma?

A

Contains clotting factors
Used in DIC, haemorrhages (usually after 2u of PRC), prophylactically pre high risk surgeries
Given over 30m

49
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A

This is FFP enriched in fibrinogen so has lots of fibrinogen, vWF, factor VIII and fibronectin
Used in DIC, emergencies in haemophilia when specific factors not available, massive haemorrhage/prophylaxis when low fibrinogen, von Willebrand’s disease

50
Q

Prothrombin complex concentrate

A

In emergency reversal of anticoagulation in patients with severe bleeding or suspected intracerebral haemorrhage

51
Q

What are the complications of blood transfusion?

A
  • Transfusion reaction - even when XM. Fever, chills, hypotension, tachycardia, pyrexia, flank pain, haemoglobinuria – due to antibodies binding to the antigen on donor - agglutination - complement - intravascular haemolysis
  • Blood group incompatibility - never event but still happens
  • Anaphylaxis or urticaria w/o anaphylaxis - reaction to foreign plasma proteins or antibodies to IgA
  • Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions - temperature rise >1 degree, without other symptoms of transfusion reaction
  • Transfusion-related acute lung injury - due to leucocyte antibodies, causes dyspnoea, hypoxia and non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
  • Transfusion-related fluid overload
  • Bacterial contamination
  • Transfusion graft v host disease - rare, in immunocompromised (why you have to request irradiated blood)
52
Q

What causes malnutrition?

A

Reduced intake - fasting, psych, pain
Malabsorption or excess loss from gut
Altered metabolism - burns sepsis trauma surgery cancer

53
Q

What clinical features indicate malnutrition?

A

Lack intake >5d, clinical appearance, unintentional WL >10% within 6m, BMI <18.5, specific deficiencies
Blood: reduced albumin, transferrin or lymphocytes

Pt should have MUST score calculated (Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool)

54
Q

What are the adverse effects of malnutrition?

A

Protein deficiency - impaired wound healing + low immunity
Skeletal muscle mass loss - extends to resp muscles
Albumin low - oedema
Small bowel mucosal atrophy - less absorption + bacterial translocate into blood
Impaired mental function
higher rate of post op complicaitons

55
Q

What is the effect of simple starvation?

A

I.e. no illness or trauma
BG maintained by lowering insulin secretion + increasing glucagon
Liver glycogen exhausted in a day but gluconeogenesis in liver + kidney increases using AAs from protein + glycerol from lipolysis
Most glucose used by blood, most others use FAs and ketones

56
Q

What are the effects of sepsis and severe trauma/surgery on nutrition?

A

Sepsis: inability at mitochondria to fully oxidise substrates so less O2 consumed, FAs mobilised so high TAGs
Severe trauma: lipids become major fuel as big rise in demands, peripheral glucose utilisation impaired so hyperglycaemia, muscle proteolysis to releases AAs, IL-1 reduces albumin synthesis so more acute phase proteins

57
Q

What are the options for enteral intake?

A

Oral: selective diets e.g. low protein, liquidised normal diet, sip feeds with easily absorbed nutrients, supplements e.g. folic acid, vitamin K for prolonged ABs

Tube feeds: e.g. swallowing difficulties, need more feed than patient can manage.

58
Q

What types of enteral tube feeding are there?

A

NG tube - unable to swallow e.g. unconscious, facial #
NJ tube - as above + need post-pyloric feeding e.g. pancreatitis
Gastrostomy - surgical or PEG. Often in stroke or obstructing lesion, CI in peritonitis, ascites
Jejunostomy

59
Q

Why does parenteral feeding (TPN) need to be through a central vein?

A

High osmolality due to glucose AAs lipids minerals and vitamins, so it is to reduce risk of venous thrombosis

60
Q

What are the indications for TPN?

A

People malnourished with GIT inaccessible/non functional, and is likely to be like this for a long time

61
Q

Complications of TPN?

A
  • Catheter problems - pneumothorax, brachial plexus injury, line infection, blocked/broken catheter, air embolism, central venous thrombosis
  • Metabolic issues - low phosphate or sodium/high sodium or glucose, over nutrition, fatty liver, deficiency of trace elements, deranged LFTs
62
Q

What is referring syndrome?

A

Feed after starvation - sudden reversal from fat to CHO metabolism - insulin rises and so more cell uptake of glucose/phosphate/potassium/water - low phosphate, low K+ and low Mg2+
Main issue is low phosphate

CF: HF, Resp failure, arrhythmias, rhabdomyolysis, white cell dysfunction, seizures, coma, sudden death

M: monitor U+E, correct deficiencies

63
Q

How would you assess pain?

A

Subjective - ask them to grade

Objective - tachycardia, tachypnoea, HTN, sweating, flushing, unwillingness to mobilise, agitation. Assess when mobile, taking deep breath and in bed

Complications - atelectasis, pneumonia, poor mobilisation so less restoration of function

64
Q

What pain management can be implemented in anaesthesia?

A
  • Counselling pre-op about likely extent
  • Long acting IV analgesic
  • LA infiltration wound edges e.g. lidocaine + adrenaline (dont use at peripheries e.g. finger due to risk of AVN)
  • Regional n block
  • Epidural anaesthesia
  • NSAIDs before patient wakes
65
Q

Describe the WHO pain relief ladder

A
  1. Non-opioid (paracetamol, ibuprofen) +/- adjuvant (co-codamol)
  2. Opioid (codeine or dihydrocodeine, tramadol), stronger NSAIDs e.g. diclofenac, and paracetamol
  3. Moderate-severe pain opiates (oxycodone, oramorph, morphine/diamorphine PCA), IV NSAIDs like diclofenac, as well as regular paracetamol (to reduce opiate requirements)
66
Q

Side effects of NSAIDs?

A
I-GRAB
Interactions e.g. warfarin
Gastric ulceration
Renal impairment
Asthma sensitivity
Bleeding risk
67
Q

Side effects of opiates?

A

Constipation, nausea, sedation, confusion, pruritus, resp depression, tolerance, dependence

– always prescribe laxatives + anti-emetics. prescribe anti-emetic PO+IV/IM

– renal impairment give oxycodone or fentanyl instead of morphine

–if on reg opioites anyway give regular paracetamol to reduce requirements

68
Q

Why is IV morphine better than oral?

A

Better bioavailability

69
Q

What are the + and - of patient-controlled analgesia?

A

Pros: analgesia tailored to pt requirement, risk of OD negligible, can accurately record how much used then convert into regular dose
Cons: can prevent pt mobilising, not appropriate when dexterity poor/LDiffs

70
Q

What can be used for neuropathic pain?

A

CBT, TENS, capsaicin cream (localised pain)

Pharm: gabapentin, amitriptyline, pregabalin

71
Q

What must be considered in excessive post-op pain?

A

Local comps: haematoma, compartment syndrome, infection, DVT, MI
Major comps: haemorrhage, anastomotic leakage, biliary leakage, abscess, gaseous distention from ileus, bowel obstruction, urinary retention, bowel ischaemia

72
Q

How are DVTs managed?

A

DOAC first line (caution CKD) - direct factor Xa inhibitors (A, R and E) and direct thrombin inhibitor (D).

Can start R + A alone, D and E need 5d of LMWH cover
Warfarin next line - LMWH cover until INR therapeutic range (2-3). Teratogenic

In cancer-ass DVT just use LMWH as less recurrence + its hard to maintain INR when having chemo

Provoked DVT - continue anticoagulation for 3m
If persistent RF + proximal DVT often need lifelong
Cancer screening
This is done to prevent propagation

No direct evidence for anticoagulation in DVT, is done to help prevent propagation

73
Q

What causes PE?

A
DVT embolisation
Right-sided mural thrombosis post-MI
AF
Neoplastic cells
Fat cells e.g. long bone #
74
Q

How is DVT diagnosed?

A

Wells’ score 1 or less DVT unlikely so do D-dimer to exclude

If >1 DVT likely so do duplex USS

75
Q

How is PE diagnosed?

A

Well’s score 4 or less do D-dimer to exclude (if this is positive do CTPA)
If score >4 to CTPA to confirm

76
Q

What is the treatment for PE?

A

If haemodynamically stable then same as for DVT (i.e. first line DOAC, if using D need 5d LMWH, or if cancer then LMWH only)
Haemodynamic compromise UFH, may need thrombolysis or embolectomy
Recurrent PEs - IVC filter

77
Q

How is VTE prevented?

A

Mechanical-encouraging mobilisation, calf muscle pump

Maintaining hydration

Stop COCP/HRT 4w pre elective surgery

Anti-embolic stockings - all, except in peripheral arterial disease/oedema/skin issues

Intermittent pneumatic compression - during surgery

Pharm - LMWH unless eGFR <30 (use UFH). Usually give it pre-surgery unless CI, 4h after epidural due to risk of spinal haematomas

78
Q

What factors cause PE?

A

Pre-op: age, cancer, previous VTE, obese, smoker, pregnant, clotting disorder
Intra-op: abdo/pelvis/hip/knee/spine surgery, no use of IPC, length
Post-op: immobilisation, no of prophylaxis

79
Q

What should you do for anti coagulated patients pre-elective surgery?

A

If no risk of severe bleeding can do surgery with INR <2.5, unless v high risk of VTE

INR <3 can continue warfarin for dental, cataract + minor skin ops

In other surgeries stop warfarin 5d before to get INR <1.5, may need bridging with LMWH

Also monitor TFTs and high snd low can affect warfarin

DOACs: stop 24h before surgery, or 48h if higher risk. If low risk can restart this 6-12h post-op

80
Q

What should patients on antiplatelets do pre-operatively?

A

Clopidogrel - usually stop
Aspirin - usually continue
Aspirin + clopidogrel - indicates high risk of CVS issues so consult specialty

81
Q

What should you do for anti coagulated patients in emergency surgery?

A

Warfarin:
If can wait 6-8h give vitamin K to reverse, if not then give PCC (prothrombin complex concentrate)
Dabigatran: can use idarucizumab to reverse
Rivaroxaban + abixaban no reversal agent

82
Q

What are the risks of GA for diabetic patients?

A
  • IHD - silent
  • Renal - more impairment, less reserve
  • Peri-op strokes, lower limb ischaemia
  • Post-op infection
  • Risks of obesity for GA
  • Stress - more catabolic hormones which oppose insulin action making glycemic control harder
  • GA, low oral intake + post-op vomiting all disrupt control
  • DKA - raised WCC + amylase
83
Q

What should happen for insulin-dependent diabetics having surgery?

A
  1. Good control before surgery
  2. Make them first on the list
  3. Reduce SC basal insulin by 1/3 the night before, then stop morning of and start IV variable rate insulin infusion pump (has N saline + Actrapid). You adjust this hourly according to BG levels
  4. Whilst NBM also give 5% dextrose, check BM regularly and continue until can E+D. Add K+
  5. Overlap SC + IV when changing back over
84
Q

How are surgical diabetics on oral medications monitored?

A

Metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia so stop it on the day cos of risk of lactic acidosis

Sulfonylureas stopped on day until oral intake resumed

Other drugs stopped 24h before, then put on sliding scale like for IDDM

If glucose >13 can give small SC insulin dose

If major op/long post-op NBM prob give insulin + glucose infusions

85
Q

How are diabetic patients who are controlled with diet managed?

A

No special measures as they shouldn’t become hypo/hyperglycaemic

86
Q

Why are patients on steroids at risk of more complications?

A
  • Adrenal suppression from HPA axis suppression long term use, so the usual increased cortisol secreted post-surgery doesn’t happen causing circulatory collapse + hypotension (so have to increase dose)
  • The disease that requires them to take steroids e.g. cancer, RA, asthma
  • Long-term side effects e.g. HTN, DM, fatty liver, more infection risk, AVN, osteoporosis, electrolyte imbalances
87
Q

What is peri-operative steroid cover?

A

For patients who have taken the equivalent of prednisolone 10mg or more daily within the past 3m, or high dose ICS. Usually give as a bolus:

  • Minor surgery 25mg hydrocortisone at induction of anaesthesia and resume normal meds post-op
  • Moderate usual dose pre-op, 25mg at induction and every 8h for 24h, then resume normal
  • Major usual dose pre-op, 50mg at induction, every 8h for 48-72h (until eat) then to normal

If take <10mg prednisolone just continue normal dose

88
Q

What conditions must be met for consent to be legally valid?

A
  1. Consent is given voluntarily
  2. Patient has capacity
  3. Patient understands the nature of the treatment, its purpose, material risks + reasonable alternatives

They may withdraw consent at any time and must be given time to reflect on their decisions - don’t have to give a reason for refusal but obv ask without pressure in case they are hiding a fear/other issue

89
Q

What are the metabolic responses to surgery?

A
  • growth hormone + thyroid hormones - inhibit insulin, promote catabolism
  • more glycogenolysis + gluconeogenesis
  • lipolysis-FA release
  • proteolysis - more AAs available for wound healing
  • ACTH release - more glucocorticoids - gluconeogenesis + protein catabolism
  • less insulin secretion - get hyperglycaemia + pseudo-diabetic state
90
Q

AKI?

A

o >50% rise in serum creatinine from baseline within last 7d/increase in serum creatinine by >26.5mmol/L within 48h/urine output <0.5ml/kg/hr for >6h
o Stages by creatinine level: 1=1.5-2x, 2=2-3x, 3=>3x
o Causes: pre renal commonest post op (sepsis, dehydration, bleeding, HF, liver failure-hepatorenal syndrome, damage to renal arteries), intra-renal (nephrotoxins like NSAIDs, ACEi, aminoglycosides or cisplatin, parenchymal disease), post-renal (ureteric-fibrosis, stones, tumours, bladder-acute retention, blocked catheter, urethral-BPH, stones)
o Ix-US KUB in severe cases
o Management – fluids if not overloaded, monitor output, regular bloods, drug rationalisation (potentially stop ACEI/ARB, NSAID, aminoglycoside, K+-sparing diuretics; alter/reduce metformin (lactic acidosis), diuretics, LMWH)

91
Q

What investigations may be needed pre-surgery?

A

o ECG – All patients >70yrs or a history of chest pain, hypertension, or a heart murmur
o LFT’s – Any alcohol intake over the expected amount
o U&E’s – All patients >60yrs, currently taking antihypertensives, history of DM or renal problems, or a urine sample >1+ protein
o Sickle cell test – If Afro Caribbean (and not previously tested)
o CXR – Any recent pneumonia, to discuss with anaesthetist. Also ask about smoking + other resp problems
o TFTs – Patients on thyroxine or having thyroid surgery
o FBC – All patients >60yrs, or history of anaemia, any bleeding disorder, or sickle cell trait

92
Q

What is involved in pre-op assessment?

A

Purpose is to identify co-morbidities that may cause anaesthetic/intra op/post-op complications

 History – procedure scheduled + the issue briefly. Full PMH – CV (htn, exercise tolerance), resp disease (planning oxygenation), renal disease (issues like anaemia and biochemical disturbances can increase complications), endocrine disease (esp DM and thyroid disease), pregnancy risk, undiagnosed sickle cell if Afro-Caribbean; past surgical history, past anaesthetic history (were there issues, have they had PONV); full DH inc allergies!; FH (malignant hyperpyrexia important as autosomal dominant, causes muscle rigidity then rise in temp); SH for smoking and alcohol
 Examination: general (underlying pathology) and airway examination (by anaesthetist obv, predict difficulty of intubation-degree of mouth opening, teeth + dentition, oropharynx-Mallampati classification, assess neck movement)
 ASA grade: I=normal healthy, II=mild systemic disease, III=severe illness causing functional limitation, IV=severe systemic illness constant threat to life, V=moribund, E added if emergency operation
 Investigations – depends on patient obviously + follow local guidelines, NICE have a traffic light table
o Bloods: FBC (anaemia, thrombocytopenia – correct pre op to reduce CV events), U&E (renal function), LFTs (liver metabolism + synthesising function), clotting screen (identify deranged coagulation), G&S (if blood loss not anticipated but may be needed if more lost than usual) or XM (also need G+S, done if blood loss anticipated)
o Imaging: ECG history of CV disease + baseline if there are post-op changes of ischaemia (may do echo if have murmur/heart sx), CXR only when absolutely necessary (e.g. resp illness without recent CXR, sig smoking history)
o Others: pregnancy testing (women of child bearing age), sickle cell if have FH/ethnicity, MRSA swabs (all patients have this from nose/perineum/other sites, if identified they are given antiseptic body + hair wash and topical ointment from nostrils), urinalysis not routine (only if suspect DM/UTI)

93
Q

When should you stop common drugs pre-operatively? (as per SCRIPT, am aware TMS was a bit different)

A

MAOIs - 14d before
Antiplatelets for primary prophylaxis - 7d before. (TMS says only clopidogrel, others fine. also different rules for heart surgery)
Herbal medicines - 7d before
Oral anticoagulants - 4d before (TMS-5d)
Long-acting sulfonylureas - 3d. Short-acting sulfonylureas-24hrs [cf TMS says 24hr)
Metformin-2d (cf TMS-day of)
Solid foods 6hr, clear fluids 2hrs

94
Q

How is haemostatic competence assessed pre-operatively?

A

• History: spontaneous bleeding/bruising, bleeding after minor procedures, menorrhagia, post-partum haemorrhage, recurrent epistaxis, known disorder, iatrogenic (aspirin, clopidogrel, warfarin, DOACs, corticosteroids)
• Thrombocytopenia – repeat and request blood film, if severe (<50) signs like petechiae, epistaxis, purpura. HIT is possible but rare.
o Causes are reduced production (haematinic deficiency, BM failure) or more removal (DIC, splenic sequestration)
o Avoid NSAIDs and aspirin
o Platelet transfusions are dangerous in TTP, HIT
• Clotting screens for people with concerns: PT, APTT, TT/TCT (rarely used), fibrinogen
• If known bleeding disorder contact haematologist

95
Q

What can you do if a patient will not consent to blood transfusion?

A

Document everything

If child + life saving then have to give

Optimise Hb pre-surgery e.g. oral iron, EPO, stopping antiplatelets/anticoagulants

Intra-op: cell salvage, tranexamic acid

96
Q

What is sepsis and how is it diagnosed?

A

Life threatening organ dysfunction due to abnormal uncontrolled host response to infection

  • SOFA score of 2 or more + known/suspected infection score
  • early warning score system: the change is what’s important, but 7+ is high risk
  • surgical pt 7Cs of causes: Chest, Cut, Catheter, Collections, Calves, Cannula, Central line
  • start sepsis 6, Abx within 1hr
  • source identification
  • escalating management with critical care
  • septic shock: sepsis with hypotension despite fluid resus, or needing inotropes to maintain BP
97
Q

How do u interpret a CXR?

A

Pt details, RIPE
A: Airway. Trachea, R & L bronchi
B: Breathing. Uniform expansion? Edges of each lung? Look at the silhouettes
C: Circulation. Cardiac size, great vessels, mediastinum and hila
D: Disability. Fractures esp of ribs and shoulder girdle
Everything else: air under diaphragm, edges-surgical emphysema, breast shadows, foreign bodies etc

98
Q

How do u interpret an AXR?

A

Indicated in suspected bowel obstruction + erect CXR and suspected FB. Often not used as more appropriate options e.g. for RUQ pain do USS, for ?appendicitis do US then focussed CT

  1. Name, type, projection, date taken, briefly assess quality
  2. Air in wrong place – pneumoperitoneum/retroperitoneum, gas in biliary tree and portal vein
  3. Bowel – dilated SB (more central, valvulae conniventes whole way across, less gas distally than normal, >3cm), dilated LB (more peripheral, haustra halfway, >6cm or about 7/8cm caecum), volvulus (sigmoid-coffee bean sign from LIF, caecal from RIF), hernia, evidence of bowel wall thickening
  4. Calcification – clinically sig calcified structures like gallstones, renal stones, pancreatic and AAA; insignificant like costal cartilage, phleboliths, mesenteric LNs, prostate, vascular; and foetus
  5. Disability (bones + solid organ) - #, sclerotic/lytic lesions, vertebral body height/alignment/bamboo spine, solid organ enlargement
  6. Everything else – previous surgery/medical devices, foreign bodies, lung bases
99
Q

How do u interpret MSK XR?

A

Remember to request 2 views 90 degrees apart, usually AP and lateral/oblique.

  1. Patient details
  2. Image quality
  3. Name specific bones, describe location of any abnormality (prox/middle/distal; head/neck/shaft; cortex/medulla. Can comment if see GP that is skeletally-immature
  4. Specific structures:
    a. Bone alignment – changes in position suggesting # or dislocation
    b. Cortices – follow outline to see breaches which may indicate # or arthritis
    c. Texture e.g. disrupted trabecular pattern (it is normally in direction of the stress that bone withstands)
    d. Joint + cartilage – joint space, chondrocalcinosis, osteophytes
    e. Soft tissues – e.g. joint swelling may be seen