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OCN Study > care continuum (19%) > Flashcards

care continuum (19%) Flashcards

1
Q

aim to prevent disease before it occurs

e.g. smoking cessation, diet modification, exercise promotion, early detection through cancer screening, vaccines

A

primary prevention

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2
Q

detecting & treating cancer early, when likely curable

A

secondary prevention

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3
Q

describes how well a test can detect a specific disease or condition in people who actually have the disease or condition

e.g. erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) - very sensitive to inflammation but does not delineate exactly where the inflammation is occuring

A

sensitivity

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4
Q

how accurate a test will be in testing for one particular item

e.g. ESR is very specific for inflammationn

A

specificity

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5
Q
  • the chance a test will have a false reading
  • can be false positive (positive result when it should actually be negative)
  • can be false negative (negative result when it should actually be positive)
A

predictive value

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6
Q

testing that is done to a large group of people

e.g. state-mandated testing performed on newborns after delivery

A

mass screening

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7
Q

screening & early detection

testing that is done for a specific disease on patients who are at risk for developing that disease

e.g. genetic testing for presence of a tumor marker when there is family hx of genetic disease (such as cystic fibrosis)

A

selective/prescriptive screening

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8
Q

checks for the presence of a specific disease

A

single screening

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9
Q

looks for at least two abnormalities at one time

e.g. screening for elevated cholesterol and testing a PSA at the same time

A

multiple screening

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10
Q

looking at a person over a period of time for the development of any conditions

e.g. assessing children for appropriate development w/each well-child visit

A

multiphasic screening

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11
Q
  • refers to the amount of new cases that are diagnosed in a given time period, typically a year
  • reported as the number of cases per 100,000 individuals
A

incidence rate

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12
Q
  • the total number of cases that were active during any part of a given time period, typically a year
  • this statistic can include those who are currently fighting the disease, those in remission, or those who have been cured
A

prevalence rate

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13
Q
  • refers to the number of people who have died from a particular disease during a given time period, typically a year
  • reported as the number of deaths per 100,000 individuals
A

mortality/death rate

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14
Q
  • refers to the mortality among only those diagnosed w/a particular disease
  • gives information on how deadly a certain type of cancer may be
  • reported as a percentage
A

case fatality rate

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15
Q
  • refers to the likelihood of living at least a given length of time, usually 5-10 years after having been diagnosed w/a particular disease
  • reported as a percentage
A

survival rate

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16
Q
  • refers to the likelihood of being diagnosed w/a particular disease in a given time period
  • this time period can be stated as a set length of time, prior to given age, or at any point in an individual’s entire lifetime
  • can be expressed as a percentage or as numerical odds (e.g. 12 out of 100,000)
A

absolute risk

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17
Q

refers to the likelihood of being diagnosed w/a particular disease among those subject to an identified risk factor for the disease

e.g. __________________ of a person who smokes cigarettes developing lung cancer is much higher than the ____________________ of a person who does not smoke

A

relative risk

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18
Q
  • refers to difference in likelihood of being diagnosed w/a particular disease b/w those exposed to a risk factor & those not exposed
  • essentially expresses how much of a person’s risk for a disease is d/t a particular risk factor

e.g. how much more likely is someone to develop lung cancer given that they smoke?

A

attributable risk

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19
Q
  • the chance of a person developing the disease throughout their lifetime
  • does not take into account specific risk factors that may be present in different individuals
A

cumulative risk

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20
Q

surivivorship

  • considered the cancer patient
  • called this from the moment of diagnosis
  • a cancer ____________ is considered a ____________ their whole life, even if they have a recurrence
A

survivor

21
Q
  • caregivers and family members are called this
  • the patient does not have to die from cancer for there to be this
A

secondary survivor

22
Q

initial stage of the disease when a person is first diagnosed w/cancer

nrsg interventions: education (which continues throughout all stages) - on disease process, txs available, community resources available for support, importance of compliance w/tx plan

A

acute stage

23
Q

occurs after selected treatments are completed and includes the stage at which long-term therapy may occur

nrsg interventions: educating importance of continuing screening procedures to monitor for cancer recurrence

A

extended stage

24
Q
  • patient is considered cancer free
  • frequently monitored by a patient being cancer free for 5-years

nrsg interventions: education, expecially importance of continued compliance w/screening for cancer recurrence

A

permanent stage

25
Q
  • pts/families may be resistive to info and unable to accept that a person is denying/impaired
  • may act stunned, immobile, or detached
  • may be unable to respond appropriately or remember what’s said, often repeatedly asking the same questions

first stage of Kubler Ross’s stage of grief

A

denial

26
Q
  • may be directed inward or outward
  • women, especially, blame themselves, lead to severe depression or guilt
  • men, commonly, may express overt hostility

second stage of Kubler Ross’s stage of grief

A

anger

27
Q
  • involves if-then thinking (often directed at a deity)
  • pt/family may change doctors, trying to change the outcome

third stage of Kubler Ross’s stage of grief

A

bargaining

28
Q
  • pt and family may feel no one understands what they are going through and is overwhelmed w/sadness
  • may be tearful or crying and may withdraw and asked to be left alone

fourth stage of Kubler Ross’s stage of grief

A

depression

29
Q
  • represents form of resolution and often occurs outside of the medical environment after months
  • pts are able to accept death/dying/incapacity
  • families are able to resume their normal activities and lose constant preoccupation w/their loved ones
  • able to think of the person w/o severe pain

final stage of Kubler Ross’s stage of grief

A

acceptance

30
Q

immunohistochemistry (IHC)

A
  • a technique in which tissue antigens on frozen tissue sections are identified
  • antigens are detected by the use of specific antibodies coupled to either fluorescent compounds or pigmented entities, allowing the pathologist to view these interactions on a fluoroscope or through a microscope
  • also various methods of amplifying the interactions, or enzymatically exposing masked antigens to aid in their visualization
31
Q

needle aspiration biopsy

A
  • the removal of tissue fragments through the use of a needle
  • this approach is usually highly specific & predictive if positive, but sample size is typically too small to perform histological analysis
32
Q

flow cytometry

A
  • method of analyzing populations of cells in suspension for various properties
    cells (i.e. tumor sample cells) are aspirated into the fluidic system of a machine (called a flow cytometer)
  • cells are mixed w/a fluid that places them in suspension & a unidirectional or laminar flow is created
  • as each cell flows past a laser sensor, photons emitted are picked up & intensified by photomultiplier tubes
  • data is electronically converted into either histograms or dot plots that compare characteristics of the cells in the population
33
Q

incisional biopsy

A
  • surgical removal of only a small portion of the tumor
  • this approach provides more information but requires meticulous technique to avoid sampling mistakes & the induction of tumor spread
34
Q

excisional biopsy

A
  • complete excision of a suspected tumor area
  • used for relatively small tumors or when other methods are inconclusive
35
Q

needle core biopsy

A

using a special needle to excise & retrieve a section of tissue large enough for histological analysis

36
Q

PCR molecular diagnostic technique

A
  • amplifies the amount of DNA, which is usually then used in other methodologies, such as sequencing
  • an enzyme called reverse transcriptase is used to generate DNA copies called cDNA from an RNA template w/short nucleotide chains or oligonucleotides as primers
  • number of cDNA copies is then usually amplified through a process called nesting
37
Q

southern blotting molecular diagnostic technique

A
  • uses enzymatic digestion of a pt sample, electrophorectic separation of the products, then probing or blotting w/suitable molecular probes
  • latter methodology is labor intensive & slow
38
Q

tumor marker assays

A
  • quantify levels of certain molecules found in serum, other body fluids, cells, & tissues that have an association w/the presence of malignancy
  • most of the available assays are either radioimmunoassays (RIAs) or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs), which respectively use radioisotopes or enzymes linked to various substances (often specific antibodies) as detection vehicles
  • value of these immunoassays depends upon their specificity (i.e. their ability to accurately detect malignancy vs. normal tissue or benign growths) & sensitivity (the capacity for early detection during screening or preliminary Dx)
39
Q

health disparities

A

describes the concept of a disease or class of diseases having a measurably different impact on different subsets of a population, usually applied to distinct ethnic groups

40
Q

how does smoking impact the development of lung cancer?

A
  • approx. 90% of all people who develop lung cancer are smokers
  • there are known risks for lung cancer w/second-hand exposure to smoke, but no exact figures are known for incidence of cancer in this population
  • it is known when smokers quit smoking, some repair occurs within lung tissue
  • this does not immediately decrease the risk of developing lung cancer, but the risk will begin to decrease at least 5 years after quitting smoking
41
Q

what does the CDC recommend to prevent cancer from human papillomavirus (HPV)?

A
  • approx. 26,000 cases of cancer diagnosed each year are directly attributable to HPV
  • CDC recommends an HPV vaccine for females 13-26 years of age & for males 13-21 years of age
42
Q

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) & Federal Rehabilitation Act

A

federal laws that prohibit employers from discriminating against their employees based on a disease or disability

43
Q

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)

A
  • provides protection from discrimination of employees based on the results of a genetic test or a family hx of a disease
  • the ________________ law covers the same employers that are covered under the ADA law (those w/at least 15 employees)
44
Q

Family & Medical Leave Act (FMLA)

A

requires employers of at least 50 or more employees to provide up to 12 wks of unpaid leave during any 12-month period to attend to their own serious health conditions or that of an immediate family member

45
Q

rehabilitation

A

aim of ________________ is the cure of the patient, or as near to that as possible, w/the reinsertion of the patient back into his or her original environment w/the same job, duties, & interpersonal relationships the patient had before the cancer Dx

46
Q

adaptation

A
  • ____________ of the patient is a consequence of tx, w/all limitations acknowledged & overcome to the fullest extent possible w/o compromiosing the patient’s quality of life that was present before
  • goal is to reenter life as before or as near to previous life as possible
  • there are many organizations that can give support & comfort, & ease the transition back into normal life
47
Q

reintegration

A
  • describes the process of assisting the patient to return to work through a program w/their employers to understand each other’s needs & how to work together to reach the goal or re-employment
48
Q
A

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