Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT CARE AMBULANCE > CARE AMBULANCE > Flashcards

CARE AMBULANCE Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

4 steps of negligence

A
  • duty to act
  • breech of duty
  • damage
  • proximate cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

emt had an obligation to respond and provide care

A

duty to act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

emt failed to assess, treat, or transport patient according to the standard of care

A

breech of duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the plaintiff experienced damage or injury recognized by the legal system as worthy of compensation

A

damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the injury due to the plaintiff was, at least in part, directly due to the emts breech of duty

A

proximate cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

4 things patients need to know to be fully competent

A
  • person
  • place
  • time
  • event
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

4 obvious signs of death

A
  • decapitation
  • rigor mortis
  • decomposition
  • dependent lividity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

stiffening of the body after death

A

rigor mortis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the settling of blood within the body

A

dependent lividity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

physical decay of the body’s components

A

decomposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

flower position

A

seated with head elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

recovery position

A

lying on the left or right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does the thoracic cavity contain?

A

heart, lungs, trachea, esophagus, and great vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is in the upper airway?

A 
nose/mouth
nasopharynx
oropharynx
larynx
epiglottis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is in the lower airway?

A

trachea
left/right mainstream bronchi
bronchioles
alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

two thin, smooth layers of tissue with thin film of fluid in between to allow frictionless movement across one another

A

pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

lines the outer surface of the lungs

A

visceral pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lines the inside surface of the chest cavity

A

parietal pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the amount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath

A

tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

normal breathing rates for adult, pediatric, and infants

A

adult: 12 to 20 bpm
pediatrics: 15 to 30 bpm
infants: 25 to 50 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

tripod position

A

seated, leaning forward, and using the arms t help breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

dying gasps; slow and shallow; will not move air into alveoli

A

atonal breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

fibrous sac surrounding the heart

A

pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sinoatrial (SA) node

A

generates impulses between 60 to 100 times per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

atrioventricular (AV) node

A

backup pacemaker and generates electrical impulses at about 40 to 60 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Purjunkie fibers (bundle of his)

A

final pacemaker and generates impulses only at about 20 to 40 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the flow of blood throughout the body

A

perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

coordinates voluntary movement, fine motor function and balance

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

a clear fluid in and around brain and spinal cord

A

cerebrospinal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

pancreas, liver, spleen, and kidneys are all what?

A

solid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

stomach, gall bladder, small/large intestine, and appendix are all what?

A

hollow organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what organs are in the LUQ?

A

stomach, spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what organs are in the RUQ?

A

liver, gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what organs are in the LLQ?

A

small/large intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what organs are in the RLQ?

A

appendix, and small/large intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what do depressed fontanelles indicate?

A

hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

hypoxia

A

inadequate delivery of oxygen to the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

early indications of hypoxia?

A

restlessness, anxiety, irritability, dyspnea, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

late signs of hypoxia?

A

ALOC, severe dyspnea, cyanosis, bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what does the hypoxic drive monitor?

A

oxygen levels in the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

indications of inadequate breathing?

A

nasal flaring, paradoxical motion, cyanosis, unequal rise and fall of the chest, dyspnea, accessory muscle use, retractions, agonal breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

high pitched sound usually heard during exhalation

A

wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

“wet” or “crackling” sounds

A

rales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

a high pitched sound indicating partial upper airway obstruction

A

stridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

indications for head tilt-chin lift

A

patients with ALOC
patients with suspected airway obstruction
patients requiring suctioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

contraindications for head tilt-chin lift

A

suspected c-spine injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

indications of jaw thrust maneuver

A

ALOC patients

suspected c-spine patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

contraindications for jaw thrust maneuver

A

conscious patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

indications for an OPA

A

unresponsive patients without a gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

contraindications for an OPA

A

conscious patient or any patient with an intact gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Sizing of the OPA?

A

measure from the corner of the mouth to the earlobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

indications of the NPA

A

unresponsive patient without a gag reflex

ALOC patients with an intact gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

contraindications of an NPA

A

conscious patients with an intact gag reflex
severe head injury
patients under 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

sizing of the NPA

A

measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

entry of matter into the lungs

A

aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

suction time for adults, pediatrics, and infants

A

adults: 15 seconds
pediatrics: 10 seconds
infants: 5 seconds
ALL ON THE WAY OUT!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When should you put a person in the recovery position?

A

unresponsive patient with adequate breathing and no c-spine injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

indications for supplemental oxygen

A

any patient with:

  • cardiac arrest
  • receiving artificial ventilations
  • suspected hypoxia
  • signs of shock
  • ALOC
59
Q

contraindication of supplemental oxygen

A

unsafe environment

60
Q

flow rate for a nonrebreather mask

A

10 to 15 lpm

61
Q

indications for a nasal cannula

A

patient will not tolerate a NRB

62
Q

flow rate for a nasal cannula

A

1 to 6 lpm

63
Q

when are artificial ventilations indicated?

A

any patient with inadequate spontaneous breathing

64
Q

atonal breaths

A

shallow, ineffective breaths

65
Q

correct rates for rescue breathing for adults, pediatrics/infants, and newborns

A

adult: 1 breath every 5-6 seconds
pediatrics/infants: 1 breath 3-5 seconds
newborns: 1 breath every 1-1 1/2 seconds

66
Q

compression/ventilation rate for single rescue CPR on any patient and for adults

A

30 compressions: 2 breaths

67
Q

compression/ventilation rate for two rescuer CPR on children/infants

A

15 compressions: 2 breaths

68
Q

compression/ventilation rate for newborns

A

3 compressions: 1 breath

69
Q

indications for CPAP

A

conscious patient in moderate to severe respiratory distress
tachypnic patients with reduced respiratory efficiency
pulse ox is below 90%

70
Q

contraindications for CPAP

A

apnea patients or patients unable to follow commands
chest trauma
hypotension
vomiting or suspected GI bleeding

71
Q

what is CPAP used for?

A

to improve ventilatory efficiency in spontaneously breathing patients in respiratory distress

72
Q

signs of respiratory failure in pediatrics

A

ALOC
seesaw breathing
head bobbing
bradycardia

73
Q

What is SAMPLE?

A 
S: signs/sypmtoms
A: allergies
M: medications
P: past pertinent medical history
L: last oral intake
E: events leading up to illness
74
Q

what is OPQRST?

A 
O: Onset
P: provocation 
Q: quality
R: region, radiation, reoccurrence
S: severity
T: time
75
Q

normal pulse rates for adults, pediatrics, and infants

A

adult: 60 to 100 bpm
pediatric: 80 to 120 bpm
infants: over 100 bpm

76
Q

what are the standard vital signs?

A

respirations, pulse ox, pulser, pupils, skin, blood pressure

77
Q

the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures

A

pulse pressure

78
Q

what does an widened pulse pressure indicate?

A

possible head injury

79
Q

what does a narrow pulse pressure indicate?

A

possible hypoperfusion, tension pneumothorax, pericardial tamponade

80
Q

what is fixed and dilated pupils refer to?

A

pupils are large and nonreactive to light

81
Q

what is PERRL?

A

pupils equal, round, reactive to light

82
Q

4 possible assessments for skin?

A

color, temperature, condition, and cap refill

83
Q

abnormal skin color findings?

A

pale: lack of blood due to hypovolemia or vasoconstriction
cyanotic: lack of oxygenated blood
flush: excessive heat, high temperature, exertion, vasodilation
jaundice: liver problems

84
Q

temperature skin findings?

A

warm: normal
cold: abnormal
hot: abnormal

85
Q

skin condition findings?

A

dry: normal
wet: abnormal
diaphoretic: abnormal
clammy: abnormal

86
Q

what is a glucometer?

A

identifies the amount of glucose in the blood

87
Q

what are the blood glucose levels?

A

normal: 80 to 120 mg/dL
hypoglycemia: 60 mg/dl or below
hyperglycemia: over about 140 mg/dL

88
Q

indications for a glucometer

A

any patient with ALOC known/suspected diabetic history

89
Q

contraindications for glucometer

A

not permitted per local protocol

90
Q

medications that stimulate an effect

A

agonists

91
Q

medications that inhibit an effect

A

antagonists

92
Q

class, mechanism of action, dose/route, and special considerations of activated charcoal?

A

class: adsorbent
mechanism of action: binds many drugs and chemicals preventing their absorption from GI tract
dose/route: adult 25 to 50 g, pediatric 12.5 to 25 g orally
special considerations: shake before administering

93
Q

indication for activated charcoal

A

recently ingested poison

94
Q

contraindication for activated charcoal

A

ALOC, inability to swallow, ingested acids, alkalis, or hydrocarbon

95
Q

class, mechanism of action, route for aspirin?

A

class: anti-platelet aggregate
mechanism of action: reduces inflammation, decreases platelet aggregation , reduces fever
route: orally

96
Q

indications for aspirin

A

acute chest pain

97
Q

contraindication for aspirin

A

allergy to medication, ALOC, recent bleeding

98
Q

class, mechanism of action, dose/route for albuterol?

A

class: bronchodilator
mechanism of action: relaxes bronchial smooth muscles
dose/route: 1-2 inhalations, orally

99
Q

indications for albuterol

A

asthma, dyspnea

100
Q

contraindications for albuterol

A

unable to follow commands

101
Q

class, mechanism of action, route and special considerations for epi auto-injector?

A

class: sympathomimetic, bronchodilator
mechanism of action: peripheral vasoconstriction, increased hear rate, bronchodilation
route: administered IM, laterally mid-thigh
special considerations: must hold in place for several seconds

102
Q

indications of epinephrine

A

anaphylaxis

103
Q

contraindications of epinephrine

A

export medication

104
Q

class, mechanism of action, dose/route of naloxone?

A

class: narcotics antagonist
mechanism of action: reverse effects of opioid medications
dose/route: adult dose 1 mg each nostril with spray using MAD, administer intranasally

105
Q

indications for naloxone

A

suspected opioid overdose

106
Q

contraindications for naloxone

A

expired medication

107
Q

class, mechanism of action, route, side effects for nitroglycerin

A

class: vasodilator
mechanism of action: vasodilation, deceased myocardial oxygen demand
route: spray or tablet sublingual
side effects: headache, burning under the tongue

108
Q

indications for nitroglycerine

A

acute chest pain

109
Q

contraindications for nitroglycerine

A 
53 BASH
taken dose less than 5 minutes ago
taken 3 doses prior per episode
systolic bp is less than 100 mg
ALOC
taken sexually enhancement drug with 48-72 hours
head injury
110
Q

class, mechanism off action, route of oral glucose?

A

class: oral hyperglycemic
mechanism of action: increases blood glucose level
route: orally

111
Q

indication for oral glucose

A

hypoglycemic

112
Q

contraindication of oral glucose

A

ALOC

inability to swallow

113
Q

what is the purpose of the primary assessment?

A

to identify and treat immediate life-threatening conditions

114
Q

how to manage a flail chest?

A

initiate artificial ventilations

115
Q

how to manage a sucking chest wound?

A

apply an occlusive dressing

116
Q

head to toe assessment should be performed when?

A

when a patient is unresponsive or unable to provide feedback

117
Q

when should you consider doing a focused physical exam?

A

when an alert patient has an isolated injury or has a specific medical complaint

118
Q

adequate circulation of oxygenated blood through the body

A

perfusion

119
Q

widespread inadequate tissue perfusion

A

shock or hypoperfusion

120
Q

early stage of shock, the body is still able to compensate for the hypovolemic state through defense mechanisms such as increased heart rate and peripheral vasoconstriction

A

compensated shock

121
Q

late stage of shock, the body can no longer compensate for the hypovolemic state and BP starts to fall

A

decompensated shock

122
Q

caused by low cardiac output due to reduced preload, high afterload, or poor myocardial contractility; a pump problem

A

cardiogenic shock

123
Q

accumulation of fluid in the lungs

A

pulmonary edema

124
Q

s/s of cariogenic shock

A

hypotension, chest pain, respiratory distress, pulmonary edema, ALOC

125
Q

the type of shock is a pump problem caused by mechanical obstruction of the heart muscle

A

obstructive shock

126
Q

fluid accumulates within the pericardial sac and compresses the heart

A

cardiac tamponade

127
Q

s/s of cardiac tamponade

A

JVD, narrow pulse pressure, hypotension

128
Q

air enters the chest cavity due to lung injury or sucking chest wound

A

tension pneumothorax

129
Q

s/s of tension pneumothorax

A

JVD, respiratory distress, diminished or absent lung sounds, tracheal deviation

130
Q

what is distributive shock?

A

a pipe (blood vessel) problem, it occurs due to widespread vasodilation

131
Q

a life threatening form of severe allergic reaction due to massive vasodilation, widespread vessel permeability, and brochoconstriction

A

anaphylactic shock

132
Q

s/s of anaphylactic shock

A

hives, flushed askin, wheezing, weak pulses

133
Q

caused by spinal damage, interrupts the normal coounication pathways between the central n nervous system and the peripheral nerves system

A

neurogenic shock

134
Q

s/s of neuronic shock

A

hypotension, warm skin, normal color, and mechanism of injury indicative of c-spiune injury, paralysis, priapism

135
Q

caused by a severe infection

A

septic shock

136
Q

s/s of septic shock

A

fever, infection, chills, weakness

137
Q

a pseudo-shock caused by a sudden temporarily vasodilation that leads to syncope

A

phylogenic shock

138
Q

sudden vasodilation interrupts blood flow to the brain leading to what?

A

syncopal episode

139
Q

a fluid problem, dehydration due to vomiting, diarrhea, or burns

A

hypovolemic shock

140
Q

s/s of hypovolemic shock

A

ALOC, tachycardia, pale, cool skin, weak peripheral pulses, delayed cap refill

141
Q

what is the management of shock?

A

control bleeding
prevent heat loss
place patient supine when possible

142
Q

what is asynchronous CPR?

A

1 breath every 6 seconds
continuous compressions
used on a patient with an advanced airway

143
Q

indications for an AED

A

pulseless/apneic adult, pediatric, or infant

144
Q

contraindications for an AED

A

unsafe environment

any patient with circulation

EMT CARE AMBULANCE (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions