Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWORLD > Cards > Flashcards

Cards Flashcards

1
Q

treatment of diphtheria

A
  1. diphtheria antitoxin
  2. penicillin or erythromycin
  3. DPT vaccine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

gray pharyngeal exudate and pseudomembranous pharyngitis

A

diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

diphtheria exotoxin

A

AB exotoxin specific for neural and cardiac tissue - ribosylates elongation factor 2 inhibiting protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment of PTSD

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

blood supply of eye

A

from internal carotid to ophthalmic artery to retinal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

primase uses what to make primer

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BNP

A

released in response to stretch (volume overload) - causes vasodilation, diuresis, decrease in BP, alleviating symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

bacteria associated with dairy products

A

Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

signs and symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • low back/hip/butt pain
  • limited chest expansion
  • enthesitis
  • systemic symptoms
  • anterior uveitis (unilateral pain, photophobia, blurry vision)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most common systemic effects of ankylosing spondylitis

A
  1. respiratory - spine and costovertebral involvement can limit chest wall expansion - should be monitored
  2. CV - ascending aortitis
  3. eye - anterior uveitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what part of EKG does beta blockers affect

A

PR interval - decreased AV nodal conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CD55 and CD 59 deficiency

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

three characteristic findings of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

hemolytic anemia, hypercoagulability and pancytonpenia

increase in complement activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mutation in PMH

A

PIGA gene - synthesis of GPI anchor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

iliacus vs psoas muscle

A

iliacus comes from the hip (iliac crest) and psoas comes from the spinal processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment for acute anxiety

A

benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mechanism of benzodiazapine

A

binds allosterically to GABA receptor site, allowing Cl- into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

meningitis in HIV patients

A

cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles

A

mucor and rhizopus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

germ tubes

A

sprouts of true hyphae from yeast cells - from candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

spherules

A

round structures containing endospores - found in coccidioides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

sporangium

A

structure with spores - present in mold fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

form found in cryptococcus neoformans

A

budding yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

treatment of acute migrane

A

sumatriptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

mechanism of sumatriptan

A

serotonin agonist - inhibit vasoactive peptides, promote vasoconstriction, block pain pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

contraindications of sumatriptan

A

avoid in patients with cardiac disease due to increase in BP and cardiac events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

field defect

A

initial embryonic disturbance leads to multiple malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

measure of anesthetic potency

A

minimum alveolar potency (MAC) - lower MAC means higher potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PAH

A

substance that is fully secreted (used to calculate renal plasma flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

creatinine and inulin

A

substance is neither secreted or reabsorbed - used to calculate GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

differences in antibodies in type A and B and O blood

A

type A and type B antibodies are IgM, type O antibodies are usually IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

pyridoxine (B6) is needed for…

A

transamination reactions between an amino acid and an alpha keto acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

biotin (B7) is needed for…

A

carboxylase enzymes (pyruvate carboxylase, acetyl CoA carboxylase, propionyl- CoA carboxylase and 3-methylcrotonyl-CoA carboxylase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

folic acid (B9) is needed for…

A

nucleic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

rest and nighttime angina with transient ST elevation

A

Prinzmetal angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

dihydroergotamine

A

used in treatment of acute migraine, can induce vasospastic angina as it constrict smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

characteristic triad of ataxia telangiectasia

A

cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasia, and increased sinopulmonary infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

defect in ataxia telangiectasia

A

ATM mutation involved in DNA break repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

treatment of panic disorder

A

benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gerstmann syndrome

A
  1. agraphia
  2. acalculia
  3. finger agnosia
  4. left-right disorientation

stoke of the middle cerebral artery affecting angular gyrus of dominant parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

penicillin resistance mechanism

A
  • beta lactamase
  • mutated PBP
  • mutated porin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

vancomycin resistance mechanism

A
  • mutated peptidoglycan cell wall

- efflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

quinolone resistance mechanism

A
  • mutated gyrase

- efflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

aminoglycosides resistance mechanism

A
  • enzyme modification
  • mutated ribosomal subunit
  • mutated porin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

tetracycline resistance mechanism

A
  • efflux

- inactivated enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

rifamycin resistance mechanism

A
  • mutated RNA polymerase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

length constant

A

measure of how far along an exon an electrical impulse can propagate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how is NO synthesized in endothelial cells

A

after acetylcholine or bradykinin activation, NO is synthesized from arginine, NADPH and O2

It then forms cGMP, reducing calcium, leading to relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

positive vs negative skew

A 
positive = more examples of extreme positive values
negative = more examples of extreme negative values
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

postherpetic neurlagia

A

stabbing pain that lasts several months after a shingles outbreak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

most common amino acid in collagen

A

glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

growth medium of diphtheria

A

cysteine-tellurite agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

reasons for different dosages in isoniazid

A

acetylation to N-acetyl-isoniazid, representing fast and slow acetylators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

cells most commonly found in sarcoidosis

A

CD4+, driving granuloma formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

buzzwords for sarcoidosis

A

bilateral hilar adenopathy, elevated serum calcium and ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how does sarcoidosis increase plasma calcium

A

1-alpha-hydroxylase expressed in activated macrophages in lung and lymph node causes PTH independent production of 1,25 vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

permissive effect

A

when one drug/hormone allows another to do a better job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

synergistic effect

A

when two drugs preform better than the sum of their individual effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is necessary for surgical site confirmation

A

independent verification by 2 health care workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

classic characteristic of mitochondrial myopathy

A

blotchy red muscle fibers on Gomori trichrome stain - “ragged red fibers”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

abrupt onset of severe headache

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

association with berry aneurysms of circle of Willis

A

autosomal dominant PKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

characteristics of chancroid in H ducreyi

A
  • deep, painful ulcer with ragged borders
  • grey exudate
  • inguinal lymphadenopathy
  • prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

signs of intestinal ischemia

A

pain after eating with weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

drugs most associated with falls

A

psychotropic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

tendency of study subjects to change their behavior once they know they are being studied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

treatment for calcium stone formation

A

HCTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

complication of echinococcus surgery

A

anaphylaxsis due to spilling of cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

pulmonary resistance is lowest at…

A

FRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

describe muscle contraction

A

actin filaments are covered by tropomyosin (long thin structures), when calcium binds to troponin, tropomyosin moves out of the way, allowing myosin to bind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

components of smooth muscle contraction

A

calmodulin and myosin light chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

deletion or mutation of VHL tumor suppressor causing renal cell carcinoma, cerebellar hemangioblastomas and pheochromocytomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

sickling is promoted by…

A

low oxygen levels, increase acidity or low blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Kayser-Fleischer rings

A

associated with Wilsons disease (brown in the eyes)

75
Q

end result of Wilsons disease

A

generation of free radicals due to copper leading to *atrophy of basal gangila

76
Q

medication used for prevention of ischemic stroke

A

low does aspirin, can lead to GI bleeding

77
Q

location of complement binding on an antibody

A

heavy chain region near the hinge

78
Q

organism with very high infectious rate

A

shigella - as few as 10-500 cells

79
Q

Meckels diverticulum is a ________

A

true diverticulum, all three layers

80
Q

stapedius nerve is a branch of the….

A

facial nerve

81
Q

IL-8

A

produced by macrophages that induces chemotaxis and phagocytosis in neutrophils

82
Q

viral meningitis pattern

A

high protein, normal glucose and lymphocytic predominance

83
Q

stop codons

A

UAG UAA UGA

84
Q

pseudohyphae

A

candida

85
Q

lipooligosaccharide (LOS)

A

present on neisseria, like LPS on other gram negative bugs

86
Q

sickness where first time you are ok, but second time you should be worried

A

dengue

87
Q

renin is secreted by…

A

juxtaglomerular cells located in the wall of the afferent arteriole

88
Q

why is it bad to give oxygen to patient with COPD exacerbation

A

oxygen allows parts of the lung with poor ventilation to receive blood supply leading to an increase in physiologic dead space

89
Q

poisonous mushrooms are inhibitors of….

A

RNA polymerase 2 halting mRNA synthesis

90
Q

Paget’s disease

A

excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased bone formation by osteoblasts

91
Q

2 factors for osteoclast differentiation

A
  1. macrophage colony stimulating factor (M-CSF)

2. receptor for activated factor kappa-B ligand (RANK-L)

92
Q

osteoprotegerin (OPG)

A

decreases binding of RANK to RANK-L leading to decreased osteoclast activity

93
Q

clinical features of fragile X

A

developmental delay, macrocephaly, long narrow face, prominent forehead, chin and ears, macroorchidism

94
Q

CO (reversibly/irreversibly) binds to heme

A

reversibly

95
Q

major immune mechanism against giardia

A

secretory IgA production

96
Q

major risk increase in sleep apnea

A

pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure

97
Q

most important mechanism for s epidermidis

A

formation of biofilm by synthesis of polysaccharide matrix

98
Q

acute serum sickness

A

deposition of immune complexes, small vessel vasculitis with fibinoid necrosis and neutrophil infiltration

99
Q

cause of serum sickness

A

administration of antigenic proteins or nonhuman immunoglobluins

100
Q

water goes under the bridge

A

ureter travels under gonadal artery and vein (and over internal iliac artery)

101
Q

components of H flu capsule

A

polyribosylribitol phosphate (PRP)

102
Q

activator of muscle phosphorylase kinase

A

intracellular calcium

103
Q

activator of liver phosphorylase kinase

A

epinephrine and glucagon, which increases cAMP

104
Q

location of AV node

A

endocardial surface of right atrium near insertion of septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve and the orifice of the coronary sinus

105
Q

selective drugs for coronary artery dilation

A

adenosine and dypryridamole

106
Q

coronary steal

A

providing coronary artery dilators and making ischemia worse
- collateral flow is provided and vessels are maximally dilated, drugs cause restricted vessels to dilate leading to less flow to collaterals

107
Q

use for adenosine and dypryridamole

A

simulate coronary artery dilation by exercise - allows for detection of ischemia

108
Q

heart association in Turner syndrome

A

aortic coarctation and bicuspid aortic valve

109
Q

SVC obstruction vs brachiocephalic vein obstruction

A

SVC is bilateral, brachiocephalic is unilateral

110
Q

rise in creatine kinase

A

marker of cell death of muscle

111
Q

gene in pulmonary hypertension

A

BMPR2

112
Q

physical exam of pulmonary hypertension

A

loud P2

113
Q

characteristics of X linked agmmaglobulinemia

A

recurrent sinopulmonary infections, giardia, failure to thrive, low Ig

114
Q

mutation in X linked agammablobulinemia

A

Bruton tyrosine kinase - failure of B cells to develop (CD19 and CD20)

115
Q

fungus found in wood

A

blastomyces - southeastern US

116
Q

drug for treating pulmonary hypertension

A

bosentan - boss man stan

117
Q

progression of hemangiomas

A

initially progress and then regress

118
Q

vagus vs glossopharyngeal nerve in carotid body/sinus stimulation

A

Vagus - aortic arch baroreceptors

glossopharyngeal - carotid sinus/body receptors

119
Q

careful monitoring of angina is needed with what two medications taken together

A

beta blockers and CCBs (both can cause bradycardia)

120
Q

pathogenesis of CF

A

misfolded protein and failure of glycosylation is targeted for destruction before it can reach the surface, then the channel doesn’t work

121
Q

bacterial association with colon cancer

A

strep bovis (S gallolyticus)

122
Q

enlarged cells with intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions

A

CMV - owls eye

123
Q

P450 inducers

A
  • carbamazepine
  • phenobarbital
  • phenytoin
  • rifampin
  • griseofulvin
124
Q

P450 inhibitors

A
  • cimetidine
  • ciprofloxacin
  • erythromycin
  • azoles
  • grapefruit juice
  • isoniazid
  • ritonavir
125
Q

drug used for stress test

A

adenosine - only lasts 10 seconds

126
Q

heart block drug that causes flushing

A

adenosine

127
Q

final synthesis step of elastase

A

lysyl oxidase deaminates lysine facilitating formation of desmosine cross links - gives it rubber like properties

128
Q

most susceptible arteries to atherosclerosis

A

lower abdominal aorta and coronary arteries

129
Q

spore forming bacteria

A

bacillus anthracis from clostridium

130
Q

antiarrhythmic with very little risk of torsades de pointes

A

amiodarone

131
Q

MI in AvL and V1

A

lateral leads - left circumflex artery

132
Q

normal morphologic change of heart

A

decreased left ventricle, sigmoid septum, increased interstitial connective tissue, lipofuscin pigment

133
Q

lipofuscin pigment

A

brownish pigment in normal aging of cardiomyocytes, the results of indigestible membrane lipid oxidation

134
Q

chlorothiadone is a…

A

thiazide diuretic

135
Q

metabolic effects of thiazide

A
  • hyponatremia = duh
  • hypokalemia = K wasting
  • hypercalcemia = increased resorption
  • hyperglycemia/hypercholesterolemia = insulin resistance
  • hyperuricemia = increased resorption
136
Q

gene defect in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

beta-myosin heavy chain and myosin binding protein C

137
Q

gene defect in X linked familial dilated cardiomyopathy

A

dystrophin

138
Q

bacteria that lack peptidoglycan cell walls

A

mycoplasma

139
Q

antidote to NE infusion

A

alpha 1 blocking drug, phentolamine

140
Q

AV node artery comes from….

A

whatever side of the heart is dominant (usually right)

141
Q

green inspissated mass means….

A

meconium ileus

142
Q

most likely causes of death due to CF

A

pneumonia, bronchiectasis and cor pulmonale

143
Q

organism responsible for croup

A

paramyxovirus

144
Q

squamous metaplasia in CF caused by…

A

vitamin A deficiency

145
Q

migratory thrombophlebitis should raise suspicion for…

A

cancer - hypercoagulabilty

146
Q

Trousseau syndrome

A

association of migratory thrombophlebitis with cancer

147
Q

first thing that happens in infective endocarditis

A

disruption of normal endocardial surface leading to a sterile fibrin-platelet nidus for bacteria to land on

  • bacteria don’t just land on nothing
148
Q

CREST syndrome

A 
C - calcinosis
R - raynauds
E - esophageal dysmotility
S - sclerodactyly
T - telangiectasias
149
Q

ivabradine

A

slows heart rate with no effect no cardiac contractility -selectively inhibits funny sodium channels

150
Q

subclavian steal

A

when subclavian artery is occluded, blood is shifted around vertebral arteries to past point of blockage

151
Q

most likely place for gallstone ileus to form

A

ileum

152
Q

most likely organisms in secondary pneumonia

A

S pneumonie, s aureus, h flu

153
Q

trachea vs esophagus on CT

A

trachea is open b/c its filled with air

esophagus is usually collapsed

154
Q

cells responsible for killing with no MHC I

A

NK cells

155
Q

drugs that improve survival in CHF

A

beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, ARBS, and aldosterone agents

156
Q

what prevents lung ischemia in PE

A

dual blood supply

157
Q

cells responsible for fibrous core in atheroma

A

smooth muscle cells (act like fibroblasts)

158
Q

second test to do after high alk phos

A

hepatic gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) - more specific for gall bladder disease

159
Q

how is digoxin cleared

A

renally - need to check levels due to small therapeutic window

160
Q

intracellular mechanism of BNP/ANP

A

linked to guanylyl cyclase leading to rise in cGMP leading to vasodilation

161
Q

how does hep B help hep D survive

A

hep B provides external coat surface antigen in order to penetrate hepatocyte

162
Q

mechanism of action of ipratroprium

A

blocks acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, preventing bronchoconstriction in asthma

163
Q

fenoldopam

A

peripheral dopamine-1 receptor agonist for malignant hypertension

  • vasodilation of arteries
  • increased renal perfusion, diuresis and natriuresis
164
Q

end result of NO use

A

smooth muscle relaxation by myosin dephosphorylation

165
Q

gall bladder disease with IBD

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

166
Q

primary biliary sclerosis

A
  • destruction of intrahepatic interlobular bile ducts by granulomatous inflammation
  • pruritus and fatigue in middle aged women
  • signs of cholestasis and hypercholesterolemia
167
Q

mechanism for hepatic encephalopathy in GI bleed

A
  • liver can not detoxify ammonia

- bleeding causes increased nitrogen delivered to gut leading to an increase in ammonia

168
Q

order of most common lung tumors

A
  1. non-small cell
    a. adenocarcinoma (non smoker)
    b. large cell
    c. squamous cell
  2. small cell
169
Q

how is copper excreted

A

hepatic excretion in bile

170
Q

gastric varices are caused by obstruction of what vein

A

splenic vein….runs across the stomach

171
Q

lung function studies (FEV1/FVC)

A
  • lower in COPD

- higher in restrictive

172
Q

most common cause of viral meningitis

A

enterovirus (coxsackie, polio)

173
Q

main ecoli antigen in meningitis

A

K1 capsular antigen - allows survival in blood to get to CSF

174
Q

verortoxin

A

shiga like toxin in EHEC

175
Q

beta endorphin is derived from….

A

POMC, also produces ACTH and MSH

176
Q

part of brain affected in Wernicke-Korsakoff

A

mamillary body

177
Q

drug that causes gingival hyperplasia

A

phenytoin

178
Q

treatment for Wilsons disease

A

D-penicillamine (copper chelator)

179
Q

serotonin releasing neurons are in…

A

raphe nuclei

180
Q

norepinephrine releasing neurons are in…

A

locus ceruleus

181
Q

Wernicke and Broca are supplied by what artery

A

middle cerebral

182
Q

route of invasion of neiserria

A

pharynx - blood - choroid plexus - meninges

183
Q

IVH in neonates originates in…

A

germinal matrix

UWORLD (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions