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ATPL Human Factors > Cards > Flashcards

Cards Flashcards

1
Q

46.2.2 Define professionalism.

A

The expectation that a person will uphold the highest standards of ethical and professional behavior in all their actions.
Professionalism suggests the involvement of learning or sciences, with understanding of broad issues and implications

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2
Q

46.2.4 Distinguish between piloting for personal reasons and for hire or reward.

A

Flying for personal reasons, the pressure is not great as flying for hire or rewards.
Flying for hire, must be done effectively, with efficiency, and olny of the flight can be done safely.

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3
Q

46.2.6 Distinguish between safety, effectiveness and efficiency in terms of pilot
responsibilities.

A

Effective: In comfort with good service
Efficiency: in a timely manner
Safely: Within pilots personal limits

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4
Q

46.2.8 List the people to whom a pilot is responsible in carrying out his or her duties.

A

Passengers, crew and self, CAA, company

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5
Q

46.2.10 List the people to whom a co-pilot is responsible in carrying out his or her
duties.

A
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6
Q

46.2.12 Describe key features of good and safe airmanship.

A

Improving their skills and knowledge so they can improve safety and consistency in areas such as SA, personal ability, decision making, regulations and aircraft knowledge

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7
Q

46.4.2 Define human factors as used in a professional aviation context.

A

Aviation medicine, Aviation psychology, ergonomics/engineering.

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8
Q

46.4.4 Describe the fundamentals of the SHELL Model in relation to the interaction
of humans with other humans, hardware, information sources, and the
environment.

A

SHELL Model helps the human interact with its environment reducing the human error percentage.

S= Software, non physical parts, organizational policies, procedures, manuals, checklists

H= Hardware, Equipment, work station designing, systems, displays, controls seats

E= Environment, Includes climate, temp, visibility, vibrations, noise.

L= Liveware, human to human interaction, crew interactions, communication, team work.

L= Central Liveware, Each person has their own capabilities and limitations and interacts directly with the other four elements.

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9
Q

46.4.6 Explain the role of human factors programmes in promoting aviation safety in
flight operations requiring an ATPL.

A

Awareness of the HF that can lead to accidents or incidents means it is possible to avoid them, hence we teach in commercial programmes

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10
Q

46.6.2 Describe the variation of pressure as altitude increases.

A

78% nitrogen
21% oxygen
1% other (argon, carbon dioxide, neon, hydrogen, ozone)
These are constant up to the tropopause 36 000 ft.

Pressure is 1013 (29.92 Hg) (760mmHg)at sea level.
This falls to half at 18 0000 ft, at about -20 degrees celecus

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11
Q

46.6.4 Explain how the partial pressure of oxygen changes as altitude increases.

A

It reduces

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12
Q

46.8.2 Describe the physiology of the respiratory system.

A

Contains:
Mouth, nose, trachea, bronchus, alveoli

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13
Q

46.8.4 Describe the physiology of the circulatory system.

A

Contains two parts:
The pulmonary system: takes de-oxygenated blood from heart to lungs for gaseous exchange and returns oxygenated blood to the heart.
The systemic system: delivers oxygen rich blood to all tissues of the body to allow for metabolization to occur, and returns the de-oxygenated blood to the heart.

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14
Q

46.10.2 State the partial pressure of oxygen both inside and outside the lungs at sea
level.

A

Atmospheric pressure is 760mmHg at sea level
21% is oxygen there for the partial pressure of oxygen at sea level is (760x0.21) 160 mmHg
In the lungs it is 102mmHg (14%)

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15
Q

46.10.4 Explain the mechanical effect of the partial pressure of oxygen on oxygen
transfer in the lungs.

A

at 10 000 ft, partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs is 55 mmHg which is considered the minimal for normal operations.

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16
Q

46.10.6 Explain the causes of hypoxia.

A

Occurs when the body tissues do not have the oxygen required to meet their needs.

Can be caused by altitude, anaemia, asthma, pneumois and meningitis

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17
Q

46.10.8 Describe the primary physiological and behavioural consequences of hypoxia
for flight crew and passengers.

A

Personality changes, impaired judgement, muscle impairment, memory impairment, impairment of consciousness.

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18
Q

46.10.10 Describe the common symptoms of hypoxia.

A

Restlessness, headache, confusion, anxiety, rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, difficulty breathing or shortness of breath.

Fuzziness or thick feeling in the head, slowness of thought, lack of judgment, unnatural feeling of well being, dimming of vision

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19
Q

46.10.12 Explain the reasons hypoxia symptoms are difficult to detect.

A

Symptoms are slow to develop at low altitudes (below 20 000ft), and you can no longer recognize the danger.
High altitudes, appear rapidly, but time of useful consciousness are shorter.

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20
Q

46.10.14 Explain the relationship between hypoxic onset and both vision and cognitive
performance.

A

They both reduce???

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21
Q

46.10.16 Describe how hypoxia can be prevented.

A

Fly below 10 000ft unpressurised.
Use oxygen when above 10 000 for 30 minutes.
Keep cabin pressure below 10 000 ft
Keep fit, don’t fly fatigued, dont fly sick,.

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22
Q

46.10.18 List the main factors influencing variation in hypoxia onset (tolerance)
between individuals.

A
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23
Q

46.10.20 State the factors that affect the likelihood of suffering from hypoxia.

A

Altitude, Time, Physical and Mental Workload, Temperatures, Illness, Fatigue, Drugs/Alcohol, Smoking, Age

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24
Q

46.10.22 Describe how hypoxia can be treated.

A

Breathing oxygen???

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25
Q

46.10.24 Define the concept of ‘time of useful consciousness

A

The time available for a pilot to recognize the development of hypoxia and do something about it. It is NOT time to unconsciousness

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26
Q

46.10.26 State the approximate time of useful consciousness at:
(a) 18,000ft

A

15-30 minutes

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27
Q

46.10.26 State the approximate time of useful consciousness at:
(b) 25,000ft

A

3-5 minutes

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28
Q

46.10.26 State the approximate time of useful consciousness at:
(c) 35,000ft.

A

30-60 seconds

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29
Q

46.10.28 Explain oxygen paradox.

A

Refers to the fact that hypoxia symptoms momentarily worsen when first going onto oxygen

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30
Q

46.10.30 Describe the primary physiological effects of cabin pressurization loss at
altitudes of 25,000ft and above.

A

Can have a loud noise, instant fog, very cold, rubbish flying about, intense pain in ears, sinuses and stomach, wind in stomach expelled, and useful consciousness will be a matter of seconds

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31
Q

46.10.32 List the key safety critical actions flight crew must take in the event of a high
altitude cabin pressurization failure.

A

Prevent hypoxia, don oxygen masks while immediately descending

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32
Q

46.10.34 Identify the principle features of supplemental oxygen systems use to assist
aircrew and passengers in the event of an in-flight pressurization emergency.

A
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33
Q

46.12.2 Describe the symptoms of hyperventilation.

A

Dizziness, light headedness, tingling, visual disturbance, feeling hot or cold, anxiety, impaired performance, loss of consciousness

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34
Q

46.12.4 Describe how hyperventilation can be treated.

A

Slow down breathing, breath into a paper bag

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35
Q

46.14.2 Explain the causes of barotrauma.

A

Injury to soft tissue as a result of trapped gases in the body expanding with decrease ion pressure outside the body.

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36
Q

46.14.4 Describe the symptoms of barotrauma.

A

Pain and discomfort

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37
Q

46.14.6 Describe the effects of barotrauma on various parts of the body

A

Teeth
Ears
Sinus
Gastrointestinal

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38
Q

46.14.8 Describe how barotrauma can be prevented.

A

Don’t fly with cold or flu symptoms
Avoid fermented or spicy foods
Good dental care

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39
Q

46.14.10 Describe how barotrauma can be treated.

A

Valsalva maneuver
Chew gum
Surgery, ear drum repair and release gas behind eardrum
Hyperbaric oxygen treatment (pressurized breathing for lung damage)
reduce RoC or RoD

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40
Q

46.16.2 Explain the causes of decompression sickness.

A

When sudden decompression causes nitrogen bubbles to form in the tissues of the body.

Can occur when ambient pressure exceeds a ratio 2:1, eg diving below 33ft (2 times atmosphere pressure) or flying above 18 000 ft (1/2 atmospheric pressure). Uncommon under 25 000 ft and under 20 minutes.

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41
Q

46.16.4 Describe the symptoms of decompression sickness.

A

Joint pains, itchiness, breathing difficulty, coordination problems, tingling and paralysis, numbness, unconsciousness

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42
Q

46.16.6 Explain how decompression sickness can be prevented.

A

Pre-oxygenating, a method of breathing 100% O2 prior to high altitude, reducing nitrogen.

Avoid flying above 18 000 ft for prolonged periods

Don’t fly 24 hours after last dive.
If max depth is less than 10 m, don’t fly 12 hours.
Greater than 10 m, 24 hours,
Greater than 35 m, or planning to fly above 8-10 000 ft, don’t fly for 48 hours

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43
Q

46.16.8 Describe how decompression sickness can be treated.

A

Descent to land ASAP
Apply 100% oxygen
keep warm and rested
seek medical care
may require recompression treatment in a hyperbaric chamber

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44
Q

46.16.10 Explain the effects of an explosive decompression on the body

A

Expelling of bodily gasses? maybe some pain???

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45
Q

46.16.12 Explain the actions that must be taken to deal with an explosive
decompression.

A

Descend immediately and don an oxygen mask???

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46
Q

46.16.14 Explain the dangers of flying after diving

A

Bends

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47
Q

46.16.16 State the approximate required times between diving at various depths and
flying.

A

Don’t fly 24 hours after last dive.
If max depth is less than 10 m, don’t fly 12 hours.
Greater than 10 m, 24 hours,
Greater than 35 m, or planning to fly above 8-10 000 ft, don’t fly for 48 hours

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48
Q

46.18.2 Describe methods of avoiding and/or coping with the:
(a) stroboscopic illumination illusion/flicker vertigo

A

Look away, use sunshade, reposition the aircraft or change the rpm

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49
Q

46.18.2 Describe methods of avoiding and/or coping with the:
(b) break-off phenomenon

A

carrying out a task or action

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50
Q

46.18.2 Describe methods of avoiding and/or coping with the:
(c) sector whiteout

A

Use instruments to help maintain spatial orientation

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51
Q

46.18.2 Describe methods of avoiding and/or coping with the:
(d) black hole phenomenon.

A

Circling approach or overhead should be used rather than straight in approach.
Runway approach aids should always be used.

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52
Q

46.20.2 Describe the effect of prolonged noise exposure on hearing.

A

Noise induced hearing loss (NIDL)
Depends on loudness and length

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53
Q

46.20.4 Describe methods of protecting hearing.

A

Ear muffs, ear plugs - grade 2
1 = worst
5 = best

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54
Q

46.20.6 Specify the various levels of noise in decibels at which various grades of
hearing protection are required.

A

1 = ???
2 =
3 =
4 =
5 =

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55
Q

46.20.8 Specify noise levels at which hearing damage may occur.

A

over 85 db for extended periods can cause hearing loss

30 minutes between 90-110 db
30 seconds 120 db
Noise above 140 db instant damage

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56
Q

46.20.10 Describe what is meant by the action threshold for hearing protection.

A

Exposure monitored over an 8 hour day, when average db reaches a specified level (85 db), hearing protections in enforced and monitored

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57
Q

46.20.12 Explain the effects of age induced hearing loss (presbycusis).

A

Due to years of general noise exposure on a daily basis.

Cant hear high pitch, conversations are hard to hear, tinnitus may occur.

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58
Q

46.30.2 Explain the responsibilities of pilots towards medical fitness for flight.

A

Pilots responsibility.

Needs to be capable of knowing when they are fit to fly

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59
Q

46.30.4 Describe the problems associated with pregnancy and flying.

A

Anaemia, nausea, tiredness, low blood pressure.

Further complications:
Oedema (swelling) and blood clot formation
Placental abruption causing minor abdominal trauma
Abdominal crowding related to altitude expansion.
Cockpit spacing

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60
Q

46.30.6 State when a pregnant pilot must stop flying

A

First and last trimester (12 weeks)

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61
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimized/managed:
(a) arterial disease

A

Effect: pain in chest, neck, shoulders and arms, especially left side, Minor chest pain (angina) or sever chest pain, (cardiac arrest).

Manage: Regular exercise, 3 times a week, that increase the heart rate, heathy diet.

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62
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(b) blood pressure

A

(Hypertension/hypotension)

High BP: risk of coronary heart disease, heart failure, stroke.
Low BP: Low blood volume, widening of blood vessels, anemia or heart problems.

Effect: Headaches, light headedness, vertigo, tinnitus, fainting, upper back pain, fatigue, vision problems.

Manage: Increase fitness, diet, reduce salt, alcohol, stress and weight

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63
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(c) diet

A

Effect: Obesity, poor heath

Manage: eat variety of foods, maintain healthy weight, low sugar, low fat,

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64
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(d) exercise

A
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65
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(e) obesity

A

Effect: Coronary heart disease, stroke, hypertension, diabetes, cancer, gall stones, bladder disease

Manage: Exercise, heathy diet

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66
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(f) smoking

A

Effect: Cardiovascular disease, cancer, emphysema, asthma, stroke, hardening of the arteries

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67
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(g) respiratory tract infection/allergies (including colds, sinus, hay fever,
influenza, asthma)

A

Effect: Headaches, shortness of breath, loss of balance, disorientation, risk of hypoxia

Manage: don’t fly sick

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68
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(h) food poisoning and gastroenteritis

A

Effect: Pilot incapacitation, vomiting, diarrhoea, dehydration, fainting, stomach cramps

Manage: Each crew member should eat different foods

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69
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(i) neurological factors (including fits/epilepsy, brain injury, fainting,
headaches, migraines)

A

Causes: Shock, loss of blood, lack of food or fluid, physiological stress

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70
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(j) emotional factors (including depression and anxiety)

A
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71
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(k) psychiatric diseases

A

Pilot can have no psychiatric diseases.

Pilot may recover from reactive depression and hold a medical

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72
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(l) physical injuries

A
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73
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(m) dehydration

A

Effect: Headaches, nausea, grogginess, sleepiness, difficulty speaking clearly and moving, muscle cramps.

Manage: Drink water regularly, avoid direct sunlight, decrease temperature, limit alcohol, decrease workload/activity

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74
Q

46.30.8 With regard to the following factors describe their effects on pilot
performance and methods by which they may be minimised/managed:
(n) hypoglycaemia.

A

Effect: Shakiness, tiredness, nervousness, cold sweating, increased heart rate, faintness. Symptoms amplified with hangovers or hypoxia

Manage: Regular meals, don’t load up with sugar

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75
Q

46.30.10 Describe the symptoms of gastrointestinal problems.

A
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76
Q

46.30.12 Identify the primary causes of food poisoning.

A
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77
Q

46.32.2 Explain the effects of alcohol on pilot performance.

A

Interferes with normal absorption of oxygen into the blood, could cause histotoxic hypoxia.

Alcohol stays in the inner ear, even after if is out of the blood stream, which can lead to spatial disorientation and vertigo

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78
Q

46.32.4 Explain the restriction associated with the consumption of alcohol and flying.

A

Zero tolerance when

No flying 12 hours after last drink of alcohol, to eliminate all alcohol in the body

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79
Q

46.32.6 Describe how individuals differ in the effect of alcohol consumption.

A

Gender, body weight, rate of consumption, total consumed

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80
Q

46.32.8 Explain the effects of drugs on pilot performance.

A

Impair judgement, mental acurity and degrade coordination

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81
Q

46.32.10 Explain why illegal/recreational drugs are unacceptable for pilots.

A

Drugs are bad

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82
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(a) carbon monoxide

A

Symptoms: Headache, nausea, ruddy complexion, shortness of breath, confusion, unconsciousness, death

Effects:

Treatment: remove CO source, provide oxygen

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83
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(b) fuel

A

Symptoms: Irritation of eyes, throat, stomach. Headache, nausea, blurring of vision, mental confusion, lack of coordination

Effect: Avoid getting on skin, eyes, mouth, wear protective clothing

Treatment: Rinse off spills, follow manufacturer recommendations

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84
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(c) chemical sprays

A

Symptoms: Irritation, pain and nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea, respiratory irritation, coughing and difficulty breathing

Effects:

Treatment: Remove to fresh air and give oxygen, discard contaminate clothing and clean skin with soap and water, seek medical attention

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85
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(d) lubricating oils

A
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86
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(e) hydraulic fluids

A
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87
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(f) compressed gases

A

Can enter body through skin (embolism)

When air pocket reaches heart, symptoms resembling heart attack, when reaches brain, may lead to stroke

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88
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(g) liquid oxygen

A

Instantly freeze body tissue (-200 degrees)

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89
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(h) de-icing fluids

A

Heated fluids can cause burns

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90
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(i) fire extinguishing agents

A

Methyl bromide (MB), highly toxic

Dry Powder: don oxygen mask, proper ventilation required

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91
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(j) fire accelerant substances

A
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92
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(k) ozone

A

Formed above 40 000 ft.

Effect: Headaches, coughing, chest pains, eye and nose irritation

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93
Q

46.36.2 Describe the symptoms, effects and immediate treatments for the following
hazards present in the aviation environment:
(l) solar radiation.

A

Effect: Cell damage or death

Symptom: Cancer, malignant melanomas, cataracts, reduced fertility

Treatment: Manage exposure, reduce your time working on long haul flights, reduce your flight altitudes, reduce flights at high latitudes (worse at poles x2)

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94
Q

46.38.2 Identify and give examples of physical, environmental, task-related,
organisational and psychological stressors.

A

Environmental: Vibration, noise, cold/hot, lighting

Organizational Stressors: Job ambiguity, under/over worked, managements, changes

Physical: Over exertion, lack of sleep, injury, pain, smoking

Task related: T/O landing, IF, approach, emergency

Psychological: Anxiety, depression, relationships, loss

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95
Q

46.38.4 Explain methods of identifying stress.

A

Making simple mistakes, accident prone, uncharacteristic short temper, forgetting important tasks, smoking, risk taking, drinking, breaking the law

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96
Q

46.38.6 Describe the effects of stress on attention, motivation and performance.

A

Reduce working memory capacity.

Motivation and performance is decreased.

Narrowing of attention

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97
Q

46.38.8 Explain methods of managing stress.

A
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98
Q

46.40.2 Describe the stages of sleep.

A

Stage 1: Transition between being awake and stage 2, last about 10 minutes

Stage 2: Last about 10-15 minutes

Stage 3: Last about 10-15 minutes, slow wave “deep sleep”, reducing fatigue and physical restoration

Stage 4: slow wave “deep sleep”, makes up about 30% of sleep

REM: Rapid eye movement, occurs every 9- minutes, Good quality sleep, memory and leaning restoration

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99
Q

46.40.4 Describe the mechanism of sleep regulation.

A

Controlled by circadian rhythm

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100
Q

46.40.6 Describe problems associated with sleep at abnormal times of the day.

A

Becoming out of sync with your circadian rhythm, known as ‘circadian dysrhythmia’. Symptoms acute tiredness, difficulty sleeping, and fatigue

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101
Q

46.40.8 Explain what is meant by sleep debt.

A

the cumulative effect of not getting enough sleep.

Symptoms: aching muscles, memory lapse, depression, hand tremors, headaches, increase blood pressure, mental/physical fatigue

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102
Q

46.40.10 Describe what is meant by sleep inertia, when it is most likely to occur and
how long it takes to wear off.

A

The physiological state characterized by a decline in motor dexterity and subjective feeling of grogginess immediately following an abrupt awakening.

The impaired alertness may interfere with the ability to perform mental or physical tasks. These difficulties may persist for minutes to an hour or more after awakening.

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103
Q

46.40.12 Explain the effects of the following alertness management techniques:
(a) napping

A

A short sleep lasting more than 10-15 minutes can increase performance and make you feel refreshed.

Naps lasting longer that 40 odd minutes can have a detrimental effect as you are woken from deep phase sleep.

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104
Q

46.40.12 Explain the effects of the following alertness management techniques:
(b) caffeine consumption

A

Provide some temporary relief from physical and mental fatigue.

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105
Q

46.40.12 Explain the effects of the following alertness management techniques:
(c) taking sedatives

A

Performance is effected when they induce sleep because the sleep pattern is not normal and it suppresses REM sleep.

Can cause addiction

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106
Q

46.40.12 Explain the effects of the following alertness management techniques:
(d) taking stimulants other than caffeine

A

The sleep period following their use will disturb and reduce stage 4 and REM sleep

The ideal sedative for pilots should n ot interfere with REM sleep, and be “short acting” with no addictive potential

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107
Q

46.40.14 Describe methods of managing fatigue.

A

Acute fatigue can be managed with adequate rest periods, good fitness and avoiding alcohol and drugs.

Chronic fatigue can not be overcome quickly, as well as the above, pilots should reduce overall work load/stress, better shift management and set more realistic goals

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108
Q

46.40.16 Define the following terms:
(a) biological clock

A

An internal mechanism that controls the periodicity of functions such as sleep cycle

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109
Q

46.40.16 Define the following terms:
(b) circadian rhythm

A

Biological activity based on 24 hour period influenced by the environment (nigh/day)

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110
Q

46.40.16 Define the following terms:
(c) circadian dysrhythmia

A

Disruption of the biological clock due to a change in time zone or shift work

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111
Q

46.40.16 Define the following terms:
(d) desynchronisation

A

Environmental influences are not synchronized with biological activates

112
Q

46.40.16 Define the following terms:
(e) zeitgeber.

A

A cue given by the environment, such as a change in light or temperature, to reset the internal body clock (entrainment agents).

113
Q

46.40.18 Describe the central human physiological processes underlying circadian
rhythm processes.

A

The biological process regulating the activity of our body in connection with time of day and night i.e. the regular pattern of sleep and wakefulness.

Located in mammals in the suprachiasmatic nucleus, a pair of cells located in the hypothalamus.

Circadian cycle is maintained by entraining agents r zeitgebers (time givers). The most powerful are light and darkness, other include meals, physical activity and social activity.

114
Q

46.40.20 Explain how circadian rhythms affect pilot performance.

A

With regular circadian rhythms the pilot will sleep well and have a higher level of performance

115
Q

46.40.22 Explain the effects of circadian dysrhythmia and methods of managing these.

A

Disruption of the biological clock due to a change in time zone or shift work

Can induce fatigue

Effects: Difficulty getting to sleep at the regular bedtime. Waking up at night and not being able to get back to sleep. Fighting sleep during the day.

Management: Keep fit and well rested, don’t start with sleep debt. Avoid caffein and alcohol, stay hydrated. Use the daylight cues.

116
Q

46.40.24 Describe the rate of adjustment of crossing time zones, in easterly and
westerly directions.

A

Resetting or entrainment takes place at the rate of about 1 day for each time zone crossed

117
Q

46.40.26 Explain why the rate of time zone adjustment varies between easterly and
westerly directions.

A

East travel is harder, body clock must be advanced. Travelling west is easier to extend the day. WEST IS BEST

Most people have an endogenous circadian rhythm that is longer than 24 ours., Lengthening the day is easier than shortening it

118
Q

46.40.28 Describe the impact of shiftwork on a pilot performance

A

Shift work can lead to fatigue

119
Q

46.40.30 Describe how the biological effects of shiftwork can be minimised.

A
120
Q

46.40.32 Identify the principles of good rostering practice.

A

Allows for adequate recovery periods during the shift and between shifts

Rotating shifts forwards for longer rest periods.

121
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(a) the sensitivity and acuity of the sensory systems

A

Become less acute, most dramatically vision, hearing

122
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(b) muscular strength

A

Reduced strength, flexibility, balance and reaction times. 10-15% strength is lost

123
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(c) resilience and reaction times

A

Reaction time is slower as is learning time

124
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(d) sleep/wakefulness patterns

A

Length and quality of sleep decreased, with more frequent disruption. Noise and light disturb sleep more.

125
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(e) cognitive or mental functioning

A

Pilots over 70 required to be assed on mental functioning. It takes longer to learn things, but once its learned there is no difference in performance and accuracy

126
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(f) the acquisition of new information

A

Reducing ability to acquire new information, reduced memory and rate of information processing.

It takes longer to learn things, but once its learned there is no difference in performance and accuracy

127
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(g) the retention and retrieval of stored information in memory

A

Reduced

128
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(h) the rate of information processing

A

Reduced

129
Q

46.42.2 Describe the effects of the normal processes of human ageing on:
(i) insight and self-awareness of your individual capabilities.

A

Increased awareness of own abilities, statistically less accidents

130
Q

46.42.4 Describe methods by which age-related changes in memory and speed of
information processing can be moderated by older pilots.

A

Diet, exercise, fatigue management reduce cognitive deterioration of ageing.

Use memory aids and make sure there is time available to learn new items.

Keep current with flying

131
Q

46.42.6 Describe what changes would indicate early dementia or age related cognitive
impairment in another pilot.

A

Difficulty solving problems, confusion with time and place, misplacing things, poor judgment, mood and personality changes.

132
Q

46.44.2 Describe the brain’s role in registering sensations, processing sensory
information, storing information and controlling actions.

A

The brain inputs (stimuli) required for processing are:
Eyes, Ears, Vestibular (balance), skin (touch), muscles (stretch).

Mass information is collected, only a fraction is absorbed or perceived

133
Q

46.44.4 Describe a basic model of information processing, including the concepts of:
(a) attention

A
134
Q

46.44.4 Describe a basic model of information processing, including the concepts of:
(b) divided attention

A

Checking items very quickly one after the other, eg, on approach dividing attention between inside and outside

135
Q

46.44.4 Describe a basic model of information processing, including the concepts of:
(c) selective attention

A

Inputs are sampled to make sure information is relevant, eg pay attention to our call sign

136
Q

46.44.4 Describe a basic model of information processing, including the concepts of:
(d) attention getting stimulus

A

Mental Focus: By consciously attending to a specific activity we can discard distracting information or stimuli.

Stimulus Properties: Low level stimulus are hard to attend to, but flashing lights and loud noises are easy. Changing stimuli is vey effective at holding our attention

Physiological State: Stress and fear increase our attention to specific tasks but can reduce residual channel capacity, ie reduced information processing

137
Q

46.44.4 Describe a basic model of information processing, including the concepts of:
(e) sensory threshold

A

A measure of the limits of sensitivity

138
Q

46.44.4 Describe a basic model of information processing, including the concepts of:
(f) sensitivity

A

A pattern of sensory processing that is characterized by low sensory thresholds

139
Q

46.44.4 Describe a basic model of information processing, including the concepts of:
(g) adaptation

A

A change of sensitivity resulting from changed stimulation. It can increase or decrease.

140
Q

46.44.4 Describe a basic model of information processing, including the concepts of:
(h) habitation.

A

This is where there is a decrease in psychological response and behavioral response to a stimulus over a duration of time

141
Q

46.44.6 Describe the following types of memory:
(a) peripheral/sensory memory

A

Holds information from all sensors in separate stores.

Lasts no more than 0.5-0.8 seconds

Then enters working memory or is lost

142
Q

46.44.6 Describe the following types of memory:
(b) short term/working memory

A

AKA working memory.

Conscious thought takes place. It has two important properties: Limited size, single train of though and only a fixed number of items, in adults 7-9

The four processes used in working memory is

Coding: Where you attach something new to previous knowledge

Rehearsal: Repeating information over and over to remember

Recoding: Taking new information and code it in terms of previous experience.

Mnemonics and memory aids: Associating items with other items already known.

143
Q

46.44.6 Describe the following types of memory:
(c) long term memory

A

Once a decision is made, info is passed from short to long term memory for future decision making.

Stored in three ways

Sematic: Coded info about words, numbers, meanings, mnemonics

Episodic: Specific events or episodes in our life, the memory plays like a video in our mind

Procedural: (Skills memory) performing actions that are once learned essentially automatic, but still require conscious monitoring, eg riding a bike

144
Q

46.44.6 Describe the following types of memory:
(d) motor/skills memory

A

Practice can lead to a reduced amount of central processing being required, and the action becoming automatic, eg changing gears in a car. Its learned in a three step process:

Knowledge stage: Consciously thinking about the action required to perform

Acquisition Stage: Behavior patterns are acquired and improved with practice.

Automatic Stage: Conscious control no longer required, increased speed and accuracy

145
Q

46.44.6 Describe the following types of memory:
(e) semantic memory

A

Stored in long term memory

Sematic: Coded info about words, numbers, meanings, mnemonics

146
Q

46.44.6 Describe the following types of memory:
(f) episodic memory.

A

Stored in long term memory

Episodic: Specific events or episodes in our life, the memory plays like a video in our mind

147
Q

46.44.8 Explain the following methods of retaining and retrieving information from
memory:
(a) chunking

A

Short term memory (working memory), utilizes information currently in use.

Method of taking unrelated letters and associating them, HASELL

Single train of thought and only a fixed number of items - in adults the maximum number (chunks) is about 7-9

148
Q

46.44.8 Explain the following methods of retaining and retrieving information from
memory:
(b) mnemonics

A
149
Q

46.44.8 Explain the following methods of retaining and retrieving information from
memory:
(c) associations (verbal and visual)

A

The recall of arbitrary information is facilitated if associated with more meaningful information.

Is packaged in short term memory, which then can assist with the creation of long term memories

150
Q

46.44.8 Explain the following methods of retaining and retrieving information from
memory:
(d) checklists

A
151
Q

46.44.8 Explain the following methods of retaining and retrieving information from
memory:
(e) aides memoire.

A
152
Q

46.44.10 Explain the concept of mental workload.

A

Mental workload is relative to the skill.

If the supply of skills is greater than those demanded we are under loaded.

153
Q

46.44.12 Explain the concept of overload.

A

If the demand of skills is greater than the supply of skills, then we are over loaded.

154
Q

46.44.14 Describe methods of managing potential overload

A

Have automatic (chunked) responses for key situations, EFATO

Write things down

Priorities, Aviate, navigate, communicate

Be prepared

Ask for assistance

Be aware of your limitations

Recognize and relax

155
Q

46.44.16 Describe and compare skill, rule and knowledge based behaviours.

A

Skill: Stored routines, learned with practice that can be carried out without conscious thought, eg Flying S+L

Rule: Involve a memorised sequence of actions, a set routine or procedure. Stored in long term memory, but require the short term memory and central decision maker when actioned, eg emergency procedures

Knowledge: Pilots use their own knowledge and experience to decide and deal with given situation

156
Q

46.44.18 Describe the process of acquiring a skill.

A
157
Q

46.44.20 Describe failures of skill, rule and knowledge based behaviours.

A

Skill Error: Failing to monitor automated actions, such as pre-landing checks, saying but not doing. More common when stressed or fatigued

Rule Error: Result from memory failure or misidentifying the problem and therefore uses incorrect procedure

Knowledge Error: Result from poor or ambiguous information. Pilots are reluctant to admit they don’t know. Often create a mind set to the situation and struggle to see it another way.

158
Q

46.44.22 Explain confirmation bias.

A

A tendency to only accept information that will uphold your hypothesis of the situation and disregard any information to the contrary

159
Q

46.44.24 Describe the formation of mental models

A

Is a way a person thinks about what it is they are doing.

Experience has a great deal to so with how we form mental models

160
Q

46.46.2 Describe strategies to maintain and enhance situational awareness.

A
161
Q

46.46.4 Explain the relationship between CRM and the building of situational
awareness amongst flight-crew.

A
162
Q

46.48.2 Explain clues or red flags that can assist in identifying the error/poor
judgement chain.

A
163
Q

46.48.4 Identify risk assessment techniques

A

Is about the identification and management of hazards within an organization and its operations

Identify hazard, reduce risk.

Eliminate, isolate, mitigate

164
Q

46.48.6 Identify risk levels that compromise safety.

A

Safety risk analysis break down risk into
1. The probability of occurrence of a damaging event or condition
2. the severity of the event or condition, should it occur

Catastrophic: Crash destruction, death

Severe: Large reduction in safety margins, physical distress, serious injury, major damage

Major: Significant reduction in safety margins, reduction of ability to cope, impaired efficiency, serious incident, injury.

165
Q

46.48.8 Describe the elements and risk levels associated with ultra-safe systems.

A

Safety risk analysis break down risk into
1. The probability of occurrence of a damaging event or condition
2. the severity of the event or condition, should it occur

Minor: Nuisance, operating limitations, use of alternate procedure, minor incident.

Negligible: Little consequence

166
Q

46.48.10 Identify risks that would degrade system safety goals.

A
167
Q

46.48.12 Describe the following risk management strategies:
(a) isolation

A

The activity is limited in a way that will remove exposure to the risk, but still allow and operation to be carried out

168
Q

46.48.12 Describe the following risk management strategies:
(b) mitigation

A

The activity is modified to minimize risk by reducing the frequency of the operation or by reducing the severity of the consequence to an acceptable level

169
Q

46.48.12 Describe the following risk management strategies:
(c) elimination.

A

The activity is stopped because any benefit is outweighed by the severity of the risk

170
Q

46.48.14 Explain the application of decision-making models used in aviation:
(a) DECIDE

A

D: Detect a change
E: Estimate the significance of the change
C: Choose a safe outcome
I: Identify all available options
D: Do, act on the best option
E: Evaluate the effect of the action on that change

171
Q

46.48.14 Explain the application of decision-making models used in aviation:
(b) SADIE

A

S: Share information
A: Analyze information
D: Develop a solution
I: Implement a solution
E: Evaluate performance

172
Q

46.48.14 Explain the application of decision-making models used in aviation:
(c) FDODAR.

A

F: Fly
D: Diagnose
O: Options
D: Decide
A: Assign
R: Review

173
Q

46.48.16 Identify situations where time pressure compromises safety or increases risk
levels.

A

Emergencies, diversions, delays or simply being told to hurry up

174
Q

46.50.2 Identify the broad characteristics of personality and distinguish individual
differences

A

Extraversion: Relates to traits of impulsiveness, boldness, dominance and sociability

Anxiety: Relates to traits of emotional instability, tension, guilt and suspicion

175
Q

46.50.4 Describe methods of maximising crew resource management.

A

Develop a team
Communicate
Listen to others
Delegate

176
Q

46.50.6 Identify the factors that affect team performance.

A

Leadership/followership
Judgement or management of priorities (distraction).
Discipline, especially under pressure (ignoring SOPs)
Emotional issues (personal relationships, submission, aggression)
Cultural issues
Organizational culture
Communication issues
Stress

177
Q

46.50.8 Describe how effective teams or team working can reduce errors.

A

More information available. Greater number of possible ideas and solutions. More opportunity for new ideas. Prejudice and bias more likely to be challenged. Greater analysis of the problem and the possible solutions. Better by into the final decision from those involved.

178
Q

46.50.10 Explain the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making.

A

Advantages: More information available. Greater number of possible ideas and solutions. More opportunity for new ideas. Prejudice and bias more likely to be challenged. Greater analysis of the problem and the possible solutions. Better by into the final decision from those involved.

Disadvantages: Takes longer. More assertive members can dominate. Competitive members may sabotage other members. Group think.

179
Q

46.50.12 Explain the concepts of:
(a) risk shift

A

If a group of individuals already holds similar views, the opinion of the group will be even stronger. This can lead to outcomes that are more bold than an individual might make.

180
Q

46.50.12 Explain the concepts of:
(b) conformity

A

When an individual changes their behavior towards the group norm. Usually due to the social pressures or wanting to fit in.

181
Q

46.50.12 Explain the concepts of:
(c) compliance.

A

The likelihood of an individual acceptance of a request by another member in the group. The magnitude of earlier requests have a large influence on the decision.

182
Q

46.50.14 Describe the following personality traits and explain their effect on group
decision making:
(a) introversion

A

Passive, pessimistic and unsocial types. Tends to avoid confronting issues they don’t agree with, shy away from discussion

183
Q

46.50.14 Describe the following personality traits and explain their effect on group
decision making:
(b) extraversion

A

The opposite to introversion, more responsive, changeable and excitable. Tend to say what they are thinking without prompting, enjoy heathy debate

184
Q

46.50.14 Describe the following personality traits and explain their effect on group
decision making:
(c) anxiety

A

Range from stable to unstable. Stable introverts are more controlled and thoughtful, whereas unstable extroverts are more aggressive risk takers.

185
Q

46.50.16 Explain and differentiate between goal/task directed and relationship directed
styles of behaviour.

A

Task/goal: Maximum concern for task completion, little concern for people. Tends to be dominant, opinionated, aggressive and stubborn.

People/relationship: Maximum concern for people, at the expense of getting the job done. Tends to be practical, trusting, friendly and accommodating.

186
Q

46.50.18 Describe autocratic and democratic leadership styles.

A

Autocratic: Accept ultimate responsibility for a group. Can be very efficient, usually assertive, and take no argument. Often at the expense of the initiative in the group, the group becomes over dependent on the leader for direction.

Democratic: More concerned with the people in the group and its development. less competitive, more relaxed, they will act more as a facilitator influencing decisions, rather than imposing their will, The group will continue to function in their absence.

187
Q

46.50.20 Describe ideal leadership characteristics.

A

Aware of their own personal limits
Inspire confidence
Able to prioritize
Can delegate
Technically competent
Includes crew in decision making process
Matches task to individual abilities
Thinks ahead
Sensitive to personal problems
Gets best from crew
Adaptable management style

188
Q

46.50.22 Explain problems that can arise from:
(a) status/seniority differences

A

High levels of power distance (power slope) can create a bias towards the crew member that has seniority or perceived higher status.

This can cause communication and coordination problems.

189
Q

46.50.22 Explain problems that can arise from:
(b) lack of assertiveness

A

Crashing??

190
Q

46.50.22 Explain problems that can arise from:
(c) cultural differences.

A

Crashing???

191
Q

46.50.24 Explain the concept of authority gradient

A

Refers to the difference in levels of authority between crew members.

Capitan vs First Officer

192
Q

46.50.26 Explain the advantages and disadvantages of varying cockpit authority
gradients.

A
193
Q

46.50.28 Explain problems that can arise from an authority gradient that is too steep or
too shallow.

A

Too Steep: Crew interaction and supervision tend to diminish once individual members assume that the other is capable, resulting in less detailed assistance/supervision to the less experienced members

Too Shallow: Fails to establish full authority over the rest of the crew and the effectiveness and cross checking between members is reduced.

194
Q

46.50.30 Describe the cultural aspects of authority gradients.

A
195
Q

46.50.32 Explain the influence of the following on the effectiveness of cockpit
communications:
(a) the skills of enquiry, advocacy and assertion

A

Enquiry: Seeking information
Advocacy: Stating and maintaining a position (assertiveness)

196
Q

46.50.32 Explain the influence of the following on the effectiveness of cockpit
communications:
(b) listening

A

Listening: Active listening as actually the key.

197
Q

46.50.32 Explain the influence of the following on the effectiveness of cockpit
communications:
(c) conflict resolution

A

Process focused on issues

198
Q

46.50.32 Explain the influence of the following on the effectiveness of cockpit
communications:
(d) critique/feedback.

A

Provides feedback necessary for improvement.

199
Q

46.50.34 Describe the barriers to effective communication

A

Can be broken into three types:

  1. Communication: Distance, hearing, illness, tiredness.
  2. Semantic: Accent, idiom, jargon, tone, ambiguity.
  3. Psychological: Culture, personal experience, emotions, power, conflict, inattention.

Noise, static, multiple communications, fatigue, stress, distractions, incomplete message, ambiguous wording, lack of credibility, lack of repport, use of/think in personal terms, jargon, boring

200
Q

46.50.36 Identify techniques to reduce communication barriers

A

During low work loads periods in a cockpit, engage in planning behavior’s and discuss their plans and strategies.

In situations of high workload, first offices increased the amount of information provided in advance, thus reducing the captains need to request information.

201
Q

46.50.38 Explain the following strategies used to reduce communication errors in
aviation:
(a) read-backs

A

This completes the loop with feedback

202
Q

46.50.38 Explain the following strategies used to reduce communication errors in
aviation:
(b) standard phraseology

A

Less ambiguity

203
Q

46.50.38 Explain the following strategies used to reduce communication errors in
aviation:
(c) standard calls

A

Less ambiguity

204
Q

46.50.38 Explain the following strategies used to reduce communication errors in
aviation:
(d) cross-checks

A

Challenge and response

205
Q

46.50.38 Explain the following strategies used to reduce communication errors in
aviation:
(e) document verification checks

A

Charts, checklists, flight plans

206
Q

46.50.38 Explain the following strategies used to reduce communication errors in
aviation:
(f) display and control setting checks

A

Clear interpretation

207
Q

46.50.38 Explain the following strategies used to reduce communication errors in
aviation:
(g) sterile cockpit policies.

A

Prohibits activiites not relates to safe flight, 10 000 ft and below

208
Q

46.50.40 Identify signs that information transfer has been successful or otherwise.

A
209
Q

46.50.42 Describe the differences between upward, downward and horizontal
communication and give examples of where each is used in the workplace.

A

Upward: Info from subordinates to their superiors. Reports, notifications, statuses, complaints, concerns, questions and information in general.

Downward Communication: Info from Organization managements. Orders, recognition, coaching, performance evaluations or general info exchange

Horizontal: Info between peers, formally and informally. The main purpose of this exchange is coordination

210
Q

46.50.44 Describe means of managing effective communications between flight crew
and:
(a) cabin crew

A

Give clear instructions?

211
Q

46.50.44 Describe means of managing effective communications between flight crew
and:
(b) passengers

A

Give clear instructions?

212
Q

46.50.44 Describe means of managing effective communications between flight crew
and:
(c) air traffic control services

A

Give clear instructions?

213
Q

46.50.44 Describe means of managing effective communications between flight crew
and:
(d) maintenance personnel

A

Give clear instructions

214
Q

46.50.44 Describe means of managing effective communications between flight crew
and:
(e) company personnel.

A

Give clear instructions

215
Q

46.52.2 Describe threats which could potentially affect a safe flight.

A

Threat: Things that occur outside of the influence of a pilot, increase the operational complexity of the flight, and require pilot attention and management if safety margins are to be maintained.

Unserviceable equipment, passenger events, weather, time pressure and fatigue

216
Q

46.52.4 Describe threat management, including the means of:
(a) recognising threats

A

Identifying a thunderstorm and briefing a lightning strike procedure, and keeping a watchful eye.

217
Q

46.52.4 Describe threat management, including the means of:
(b) avoiding

A

Flight crew as normal part of their duties employ countermeasures to keep threats and errors and undesired aircraft states from reducing margins of safety in flight. Eg checklists, briefings, callouts, SOPs.

Aircraft also utilize ACAS, GPWS, SOPs

218
Q

46.52.4 Describe threat management, including the means of:
(c) mitigating the effects of threats

A

Personal strategies and tactics, individual and team countermeasures,

  1. Planning countermeasures: for anticipated and unexpected threats
  2. Execution countermeasures: error detection and error response
  3. Review countermeasures: managing the changing conditions of a flight
219
Q

46.52.6 Describe and identify examples of overt/active threats

A

Active threat: The ones that might bite immediately. Eg raising the flap instead of the gear on take-off

220
Q

46.52.8 Describe and identify examples of latent threats.

A

Latent Threat: Ones that lie dormant in the system. Eg, design issue, scheduling, or rostering, practices, flawed procedures

221
Q

46.52.10 Identify methods and means for detecting error in the aviation system.

A

Error: As fight crew actions or inactions that lead to a deviation from crew or organizational intentions or expectations, reduce safety margins, and increase the probability of adverse operational events on the ground or during flight.

222
Q

46.52.12 Describe error avoidance techniques.

A

The development of strategies and operating techniques to avoid making errors

223
Q

46.52.14 Explain how incipient errors can be trapped after they have been committed.

A

Once error has been identified it’s effect can be minimized by isolating or “trapping” the activity affected by the error

224
Q

46.52.16 Explain how the consequences of errors that are not trapped can be
mitigated.

A

The consequence of the error can be reduced by taking action to prevent the development of an error chain

225
Q

46.52.18 Explain how CRM countermeasures assist the management of threat and
error.

A

Briefing- to identify potential problems

Preparation- planning for expected events, preparing for the unexpected., “staying ahead of the aircraft”

Workload- Establishing and maintaining priorities helps avoid overload

226
Q

46.52.20 Describe and identify examples of a latent failure/error.

A

Latent human error: likely to be human made due to systems or routines that are formed in such a way that humas are disposed to making these errors.

227
Q

46.52.22 Describe and identify examples of an active failure/error.

A

Active error: is visible immediately, often caused by the front line operations.

228
Q

46.54.2 Explain the principles of SMS in air operations

A

Safety management system.

Formal, top-down business approach to managing safety risk

Four parts:
1. Safety Policy
2. Safety Risk Management
3. Safety Assurance
4. Safety Promotion

229
Q

46.54.4 Describe reporting mechanisms to rectify safety problems.

A
230
Q

46.54.6 Define the core concept of an organisational culture

A

Values and behavior’s that “contribute to the unique social and psychological environment of an organization”

The responsibility of organizations is to minimize the negative components of each type of culture (professional, organizational and national) while emphasizing the positive

231
Q

46.54.8 Outline the ways in which organisational culture affects performance.

A

Operational personnel are influenced in their day-to-day behavior by the value system of their organization. Organizational culture sets the boundaries for accepted operational performance in the workplace by establishing the norms and limits.

232
Q

46.54.10 Describe what is meant by harassment, its effects on employees and how it
should be dealt with should it arise in the workplace.

A

Is offensive conduct based on a factor such as the victims race, religion, gender or age. If offensive conduct isn’t based on discrimination, it’s just bullying.

233
Q

46.54.12 Describe what is meant by stereotypes and stereotypical behaviour within
organisations and give examples of where such behaviour may have a
negative impact on safety.

A
234
Q

46.54.14 Describe the inertia of large organisations with respect to safety messages.

A
235
Q

46.54.16 List the key reasons for a safety reporting system within an aviation
organisation.

A

To uncover or prevent recurrent error traps

236
Q

46.54.18 Explain the relevance of internal hazard reporting.

A

Promotes safety

237
Q

46.54.20 Describe the key elements of the Just Culture approach to the management of
errors, reporting, and the use of disciplinary sanctions under this approach.

A

Individuals are not blamed for ‘honest errors’, but are held accountable for willful violations and gross negligence

238
Q

46.54.22 Describe the concepts of risk creep and risk tolerance and their application
within an aviation organisation.

A

Risk Creep: During organizational high workloads, verification of safety controls in place can fall under the bar. This could be a slight/subtle chance which overtimes slowly erodes, but is hard to notice.

Risk Tolerance: Complacency can creep in disguised as an attitude “I am operating safely, and we do this all the time”.

239
Q

46.56.2 Describe the basic principles of control, display and workspace design.

A

Ergonomics: The study of people in their working environment

240
Q

46.56.4 Explain the importance of the following in flight deck design:
(a) reach

A

Matching the environment working tools to human dimensions

241
Q

46.56.4 Explain the importance of the following in flight deck design:
(b) comfort

A

Plays a role in human performance

242
Q

46.56.4 Explain the importance of the following in flight deck design:
(c) posture

A

Affects potential fatigue levels of flight crew

243
Q

46.56.4 Explain the importance of the following in flight deck design:
(d) lighting levels

A

The visual system is predominant sensory for humans, and the most important in the flight crews interaction with the environment.

244
Q

46.56.6 Distinguish between biometrics, biomechanics and anthropometry.

A

Biometrics: The application of satistical methods to biological problems.

Biomechanics: Is the science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces (body movement)

Anthropometry: Is the study of human measurements

245
Q

46.56.8 Describe applications of biomechanics in the design of flight decks.

A

Takes into account the 5th to 95th percentile of normal measurements of the human body.

Taking into account these aspects, cockpit design can help reduce accidents/incidents

246
Q

46.56.10 Explain the relevance of anthropometry in the design of flight decks.

A

You must be able to reach all the controls

247
Q

46.56.12 Describe the effects of a poorly designed cockpit on pilot performance.

A

Reduced

248
Q

46.56.14 Explain the importance of eye datum or eye design position.

A

Helps reduce apparent error of judgment caused by the wrong seating position therefore being at the wrong “eye datum”

249
Q

46.56.16 Describe the problems associated with windshield design and visibility.

A

Bending the windshield can cause distortion.

Poor design can cause blind spots or trap the focus of the eyes, or block the vision of one eye.

250
Q

46.56.18 List the advantages and disadvantages of working in an automated cockpit.

A

Advantages: Reduced workload, reduce the opportunity for human error by auto monitoring pilots managements of aircrafts systems and flight controls and provides warnings. Optimise flight performance and manage fuel consumption

Disadvantage: failure of automatic equipment, automation induced error compounded by crew error, crew error in setup, lack of mode awareness, failure to heed automatic alarm, automation removes the pilot from the loop, complacency, loss of proficiency,

251
Q

46.56.20 Describe the effects of advanced cockpit automation, including:
(a) failure to monitor

A

The aircraft can do unexpected things???

252
Q

46.56.20 Describe the effects of advanced cockpit automation, including:
(b) boredom and complacency

A

Just watching the plane fly itself

253
Q

46.56.20 Describe the effects of advanced cockpit automation, including:
(c) loss of proficiency

A

Not physically performing the tasks, can get rusty

254
Q

46.56.20 Describe the effects of advanced cockpit automation, including:
(d) job satisfaction

A

Lack of job satisfaction

255
Q

46.56.20 Describe the effects of advanced cockpit automation, including:
(e) crew coordination

A
256
Q

46.56.20 Describe the effects of advanced cockpit automation, including:
(f) problems associated with equipment failure.

A
257
Q

46.56.22 Explain the concept of mode awareness in setting up and operating
automated systems.

A
258
Q

46.56.24 Describe elements of coping behaviour associated with automatic cockpits.

A

???

259
Q

46.58.2 Explain the importance of the following in control design:
(f) visibility.

A
260
Q

46.58.2 Explain the importance of the following in control design:
(a) size

A

The should not be too large to handle

261
Q

46.58.2 Explain the importance of the following in control design:
(b) shape/recognition by touch

A

Things like throttle is black and smooth, mixture red and spikey.

Assist in quick identification

262
Q

46.58.2 Explain the importance of the following in control design:
(c) location

A

Should not be close together

263
Q

46.58.2 Explain the importance of the following in control design:
(d) layout and the uniformity of spatial arrangement

A

Prevents confusion

264
Q

46.58.2 Explain the importance of the following in control design:
(e) direction of movement

A

Flap lever should go down when lowering the flap

265
Q

46.60.2 Explain the importance of the following in the design of instrumentation,
displays and alerts:
(a) size

A

In view of the pilot???

266
Q

46.60.2 Explain the importance of the following in the design of instrumentation,
displays and alerts:
(b) position

A

In view of the pilot, normal scan is +/- 30 degrees

267
Q

46.60.2 Explain the importance of the following in the design of instrumentation,
displays and alerts:
(c) layout

A

logical and standard

268
Q

46.60.2 Explain the importance of the following in the design of instrumentation,
displays and alerts:
(d) visibility

A

Must be clear and unobstructed

269
Q

46.60.2 Explain the importance of the following in the design of instrumentation,
displays and alerts:
(e) legibility

A

Must be clear

270
Q

46.60.2 Explain the importance of the following in the design of instrumentation,
displays and alerts:
(f) scale

A

???

271
Q

46.60.2 Explain the importance of the following in the design of instrumentation,
displays and alerts:
(g) use of colour

A

like AH, blue for sky, brown for earth

272
Q

46.60.2 Explain the importance of the following in the design of instrumentation,
displays and alerts:
(h) illumination.

A

Must be able to interpret in multipul lighting conditions

273
Q

46.60.4 Describe problems associated with the presentation and misinterpretation of
alerts.

A

Get the attention of the pilot but not give them a fright. Must also not be too loud to obstruct conversation

274
Q

46.62.2 Explain the importance of colour, font type and size for written checklists.

A

Easy to read in all conditions

Text size reasonably large, good spacing and mainly lower case.

275
Q

46.62.4 Describe problems associated with the design and use of checklists and
manuals.

A
276
Q

46.62.6 Describe problems associated with the design and use of maps and charts.

A

ATPL Human Factors (2 decks)

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