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1
Q

1.What are two characteristics that describe the Cloud Information Model?

A. A Conceptual Model
B. A Product Sold By Salesforce
C. A Static Model
D. A Canonical Model

A

A. A Canonical Model
D. A Conceptual Model

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2
Q

2.When setting up the data source object or schema for data ingestion, what are the three data categories to select from?

A. Engagement Data
B. Order Data
C. Event Data
D. Profile Data
E. Other Data

A

A. Engagement Data
D. Profile Data
E. Other Data

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3
Q

3.From which objects will be deleted when processing a Data Deletion or a Right to Be Forgotten request in Marketing CRM?

A. Individual and all related entities in data model
B. Unified Individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams
C. Individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams
D. Unified Individual and all related entities in data model

A

C. Individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=sf.c360_a_data_deletion_request.htm&type=5

https://www.premiumdumps.com/salesforce/salesforce-customer-data-platform-dumps

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4
Q

4.How many Salesforce orgs can an Administrator connect to Customer Data Platform?

A. 1
B. No hard limit
C. 2
D. 10.

A

No hard limit

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=sf.c360_a_multi_brand_management.htm&type=5

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5
Q

5.Which of the following statements about CDP’s Web and Mobile App connector are True?

A. CDP admins can see the status of Web or Mobile connector app on the app details page
B. Any Data Streams associated with Web or Mobile connector app will be automatically deleted upon deleting the app from CDP Setup
C. Tenant Specific Endpoint is auto-generated in CDP when setting up a Mobile or Web app connection
D. Mobile and Web SDK schema can be updated to delete an existing field

A

A. CDP admins can see the status of Web or Mobile connector app on the app details page

C. Tenant Specific Endpoint is auto-generated in CDP when setting up a Mobile or Web app connection

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6
Q

6.Which three Object types are available under Data Explorer?

A. Data Source Object
B. Segment Objects
C. Calculated Insights
D. Data Model Object
E. Data Extensions

A

A. Data Source Object
C. Calculated Insights
D. Data Model Object

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7
Q

7.What is the Salesforce CRM Connector full refresh frequency for data streams?

A. Daily
B. Hourly
C. Weekly
D. One time only.

A

C. Weekly

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8
Q

8.What can be customized in the Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform canonical model?

A. Fields
B. Objects
C. Objects, Fields, and Relationships
D. Objects and Fields

A

C. Objects, Fields, and Relationships

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9
Q
  1. From which objects will be deleted when processing a Data Deletion or a Right to Be Forgotten request in Marketing CRM?

A. Contact
B. Contact Point Email
C. Custom Customer Email Object
D. Individual

A

D. Individual

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10
Q
  1. What are the two refresh modes available for a Cloud Storage data stream? (Select 2)

A. Append
B. Full Refresh
C. Upsert
D. Update

A

B. Full Refresh
C. Upsert

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11
Q
  1. What is the cardinality between Individual and Contact Point objects?

A. Many to One
B. Many to Many
C. One to Many
D. One to One

A

C. One to Many

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12
Q
  1. How can Marketers stream inventory levels from an Inventory Management System into Customer Data Platform in a fast & scalable near-real-time way?

A. Use Cloud Storage Connector
B. Use Salesforce CRM Connector
C. Use MuleSoft Connector
D. Use Ingestion API

A

C. Use MuleSoft Connector
D. Use Ingestion API

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13
Q
  1. What permission setting should an administrator check if the custom CRM object is not available in New Data Stream configuration?

A. View All object permission enabled in source CRM org
B. Read object permission enabled in source CRM org
C. Modify All object permission enabled in CDP org
D. Create object permission enabled in CDP org

A

A. View All object permission enabled in source CRM org

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following are correct connection options for Marketing Cloud and CRM connection to CDP?

A. One CRM Org & One Marketing Cloud Enterprise Account to the same CDP org

B. Multiple CRM Orgs & Multiple Marketing Cloud Enterprise Accounts to same CDP Org

C. Multiple CRM Orgs & One Marketing Cloud

D. Enterprise Accounts to same CDP org
One CRM Org & Multiple Marketing Cloud Enterprise Account to same CDP Org

A

A. One CRM Org & One Marketing Cloud Enterprise Account to the same CDP org

C. Multiple CRM Orgs & One Marketing Cloud

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15
Q
  1. Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform creates a set of automations and automation activities in Marketing Cloud Automation Studio to support data transfer between the two products. By default, under which Business Unit(s) will these automations be created for the Email Data Bundle?

A. All Business Units in the Marketing Cloud Account that was connected to CDP
B. Top level (Enterprise) Business Unit in the Marketing Cloud Account
C. All Business Units in the Marketing Cloud Account
D. All Business Units in the Marketing Cloud Account with Email Activity

A

B. Top level (Enterprise) Business Unit in the Marketing Cloud Account

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16
Q
  1. Which two dependencies can prevent a Data Stream from being deleted?

A. A data stream attribute is used in Segmentation
B. A data stream attribute is used in Activation
C. A data stream attribute is mapped to a Data Model object
D. A data stream attribute is used in Calculated Insight

A

C. A data stream attribute is mapped to a Data Model object
D. A data stream attribute is used in Calculated Insight

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17
Q
  1. Which configuration can support separate Amazon S3 buckets for data ingestion and activation?

A. Dedicated S3 data sources in activation setup
B. Seperate user credentials for data stream and activation target
C. Seperate user credentials for data stream and activation
D. Dedicated S3 data sources in CDP setup

A

C. Seperate user credentials for data stream and activation

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18
Q
  1. What is the first step to setup and configure a Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform instance?

A. Enable Salesforce CDP Admin permission set to the relevant Salesforce CRM user
B. Connect to the Marketing Cloud Account CDP is provisioned in
C. Complete the Salesforce CDP provisioning process
D. Connect to the Salesforce CRM org CDP is provisioned in

A

D. Connect to the Salesforce CRM org CDP is provisioned in

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19
Q
  1. A user needs permissions to access Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform (CDP) to create, manage, and publish segments. However, the user should not be allowed to create reports or manage data sources? Which permission set should an administrator assign?

A. Salesforce CDP Admin
B. Salesforce CDP Marketing Specialist
C. Salesforce CDP Data Aware Specialist
D. Salesforce CDP Marketing Manager

A

B. Salesforce CDP Marketing Specialist

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20
Q
  1. Which activation targets are automatically created when the admin connects that application to CDP? Select Two

A. Marketing Cloud Engagement
B. B2C Commerce
C. Personalization powered by Interaction Studio
D .Amazon S3

A

B. B2C Commerce
C. Personalization powered by Interaction Studio

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21
Q
  1. Which two steps are required when configuring a Marketing Cloud activation?

A. Add Additional Attributes
B. Select an Activation Target
C. Select Contact Points
D. Select Activation Membership

A

A. Add Additional Attributes
B. Select an Activation Target

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22
Q
  1. What type of Calculated Insights can be added as additional attributes in an activation?

A. Filters
B. Metrics
C. Metrics & Dimensions
D. Dimensions

A

D. Dimensions

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23
Q
  1. Which Activation Membership is recommended when utilizing multiple data sources in CDP?

A. Unified Individual
B. Unified Contact Point
C. Individual
D. Contact Point

A

A. Unified Individual

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24
Q
  1. Which authentication type is supported for Cloud File Storage activation target?

A. Using private key certificate
B. Using JWT token
C. Using encrypted username and password
D. Using access and secret keys

A

D. Using access and secret keys

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following actions can be applied to a previously created segment?

A. Copy
B. Export
C. Reactivate
D. Deactivate
E. Delete

A

A. Copy
D. Deactivate
E. Delete

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26
Q
  1. What two file types are created when activating a segment to Amazon S3?

A. .json
B. .csv
C. .txt
D. .Zip

A

A. .json
B. .csv

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27
Q
  1. What can cause a publish schedule in a segment to be skipped?

A. Segment has 0 records.
B. Segment criteria is not correct
C. Too many scheduled at the same time
D. Activation schedule is paused

A

C. Too many scheduled at the same time

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28
Q

28.What data model object category can a marketer create segments on?

A. Unified Individual only
B. Profile
C. Other
D. Engagement

A

B. Profile

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29
Q
  1. Which CDP feature helps marketers calculate attributes like Customer Lifetime Value and Customer Satisfaction Score?

A. Calculated Insights
B. Formula Field insights
C. Einstein Insights
D. Streaming Insights

A

A. Calculated Insights

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30
Q
  1. What should an administrator do to pause a segment activation but plan to use that segment again?

A. Delete the segment
B. Skip the Activation
C. Stop the Publish Schedule
D. Disable the segment

A

C. Stop the Publish Schedule

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31
Q
  1. What are the three benefits of Calculated Insights over Segmentation Operators?

A. Calculated Insights results can be refreshed near real time.

B. Calculated Insights can query engagement data greater than 2 years.

C. Calculated Insights are better suited for non-trivial calculations, such as calculating a Net Promoter Score as a percentage

D. Calculated Insights are better suited for complex queries over multiple objects.

E. Calculated Insights are better suited for single row based operation.

A

A. Calculated Insights results can be refreshed near real time.

C. Calculated Insights are better suited for non-trivial calculations, such as calculating a Net Promoter Score as a percentage

D. Calculated Insights are better suited for complex queries over multiple objects.

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32
Q
  1. Identify the steps that need to happen for a Calculated Insight to appear in the Segmentation Canvas
    (Select 3)

A. The primary key of the segmented table must be a measure in the Calculated Insight

B. The Segment On entity must be of type engagement

C. The Segment On entity must be of type profile

D. The primary key of the segmented table must be a dimension in the Calculated Insight

E. The table that you segment should have been added to the CI query as a JOIN

A

C. The Segment On entity must be of type profile

D. The primary key of the segmented table must be a dimension in the Calculated Insight

E. The table that you segment should have been added to the CI query as a JOIN

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33
Q
  1. How many attributes can a Data Specialist enable value suggestion on?

A. 300
B. 100
C. 500
D. All Attributes

A

C. 500

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34
Q
  1. How long does it take for suggested values to be visible after being enabled?

A. Up to 1 week
B. Instantly
C. Up to 24 hours
D. Up to 48 hours

A

C. Up to 24 hours

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35
Q
  1. What is the result of a segmentation criteria filtering on City | Is Equal To | ‘San José?

A. Cities containing San José, San Jose only
B. Cities containing San José, san jose only
C. Cities containing San José, San Jose, san josé, san jose
D. Cities containing San Jose, san jose only

A

C. Cities containing San José, San Jose, san josé, san jose

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36
Q
  1. A marketer needs to create several segments with similar filter criteria for multiple brands. How can the Marketer create these segments as efficiently as possible?

A. Create a segment and clone via API for each brand
B. Create a segment and copy it for each brand
C. Create a reusable container block with common criteria
D. Use an attribute filter feature in activation

A

B. Create a segment and copy it for each brand

37
Q
  1. When creating a Calculated Insight what is the mininmal requirement?

A. ORDER-BY clause is required
B. At least one aggregated function
C. At least one measure
D. WHERE clause is required

A

C. At least one measure

38
Q
  1. What out of the box connectors are available for CDP? Select two

A. Amazon S3
B. FTP Connector
C. Slack Connector
D. B2C Commerce
E. Marketing Cloud

A

A. Amazon S3
E. Marketing Cloud

39
Q
  1. Which two types of data can be ingested from Interaction Studio using the connector?

A. User Profile
B. Behavioral Events
C. Segment Membership
D. Product Catalog

A

A. User Profile
B. Behavioral Events

40
Q
  1. A customer wants to use the transactional data from their data warehouse in CDP. They are only able to export the data via a SFTP site. What would be some recommended ways to bring this data into CDP?
    SELECT TWO

A. Use the Secure FTP Connector to ingest this data from their site into CDP

B. import this data into Marketing Cloud data extension and use the Marketing Cloud

C. Connector for ingestion into CDP
Build custom Data Warehouse Connector to directly ingest this data into CDP

D. Import the file into Amazon S3 and use the Cloud Storage Connector for ingestion into CDP

A

B. import this data into Marketing Cloud data extension and use the Marketing Cloud

D. Import the file into Amazon S3 and use the Cloud Storage Connector for ingestion into CDP

41
Q
  1. Which factors should be considered when using Identity Resolution within Customer Data Platform (CDP)?
    select two

A. The Unified Individual ID is refreshed after each resolution and it can change over a period of time

B. CDP does not merge source records but instead creates a unified record that links all source records.

C. CDP only lets you create one Identity Resolution ruleset

D. Fuzzy values used to match source profiles are stored in unified profiles created

A

B. CDP does not merge source records but instead creates a unified record that links all source records.

D. Fuzzy values used to match source profiles are stored in unified profiles created

42
Q
  1. What can a consultant unlock with the Marketing Cloud Customer Data Platform?
    SELECT TWO

A. Create personalized content to drive cross channel engagement

B. Capture and unify data from anywhere with a high-scale data ingestion service.

C. Build smarter audience segments using insights and filtering capabilities.

D. Develop a marketplace to share 2nd party data with partners

A

B. Capture and unify data from anywhere with a high-scale data ingestion service.

C. Build smarter audience segments using insights and filtering capabilities.

43
Q
  1. What are two benefits Customer Data Platform provides a company in relation to managing customer data?
    SELECT TWO

A. Single source of truth
B. Data Cleansing
C. Unifying data silos
D. Data Stewardship

A

A. Single source of truth
D. Data Stewardship

44
Q
  1. A banking customer wants to bring in banking data to calculate Customer Lifetime Value using Calculated Insight. What is is the correct data flow in CDP to create this insight to use in Segmentation?

A. Create new Data Stream (DSO) > Map data stream to Data Model Object (DMO) > Create Calculated Insight

B. Calculated Insight(CI) against DMO→ Use Cl in Segmentation

C. Create new Calculated Insight (CI)-> Map Data Stream(DSO) to Cl→ Use Cl in Segmentation

D. Create Segment →→ Create Calculated Insight (CI)» Create new Data Stream(DSO) → Use Cl in Segmentation

E. Create new Data Stream(DSO) Create Calculated Insight(CI)-> Use CI in Segmentation

A

A. Create new Data Stream (DSO) > Map data stream to Data Model Object (DMO) > Create Calculated Insight

45
Q
  1. How can Customer Data Platform help Marketers?
    SELECT TWO

A. Create cross channel marketing messages across Email, SMS, Push and other channels

B. Ingest and unify data from anywhere to reconcile customer identity

C. Manage social media data including interactions across all major social platforms

D. Create a first-party data strategy that is not dependent on third-party data

A

B. Ingest and unify data from anywhere to reconcile customer identity

D. Create a first-party data strategy that is not dependent on third-party data

46
Q
  1. What does the Source Sequence reconciliation rule do in Identity Resolution?
    SELECT TWO

A. Includes data from sources where the data is alphanumerically sequenced
B. Sets the order of data sources of most to least preferred for inclusion in Unified Profile
C. Reconciles data by the data that’s most frequent across records
D. Source data from disparate systems across the enterprise

A

B. Sets the order of data sources of most to least preferred for inclusion in Unified Profile
C. Reconciles data by the data that’s most frequent across records

47
Q
  1. Which of these three CIM objects do Reconciliation Rules operate across? (Select 3)

A. Contact Point Email
B. Lead
C. Party Identification
D. Contact
E. Individual

A

A. Contact Point Email
C. Party Identification
E. Individual

48
Q
  1. What does the Ignore Empty Value option do in Identity Resolution?

A. Ignores empty fields when running reconciliation rules
B. Ignore empty fields when running any custom match rules
C. Ignores empty fields when running the standard match rules
D. Ignores Individual object records with empty fields when running Identity Resolution rules

A

A. Ignores empty fields when running reconciliation rules

49
Q
  1. How does an administrator increase the consolidation rate for Identity Resolution?

A. Change the Ignore Empty Value option
B. Change all reconcilitation rules to Source Sequence
C. Reduce the number of matching rules
D. Add more matching rules to broaden the search for matches

A

D. Add more matching rules to broaden the search for matches

50
Q
  1. A retailer wants to unify profiles using Loyalty ID which is different than the unique Id of their customers. What object can be leveraged in Identity Resolution to perform exact match rules on the Loyalty ID?

A. Loyalty Identification Object
B. Subscriber Identification Object
C. Contact Identification Object
D. Party Identification Object

A

D. Party Identification Object

51
Q
  1. Se criar um segmento com filtro AND: cor red AND produto shoes qual será o resultado?

A . Customer who purchased only ‘Red Shoes’ items on the purchase.
B . Customer who purchased any RED product and also purchased shoes of any color.
C . Customer who purchased ‘Red shoes’ as a single product on the purchase.
D . Customer who purchased ‘Red shoes’, or any ‘red’ item, or any ‘shoes’ items on the purchase

A

B . Customer who purchased any RED product and also purchased shoes of any color.

52
Q

What is the correct formula to display the value of the raw data column of “Revenue” plus a 5% margin?

A . SELECT([‘Revenue’] *1.05)
B . SELECT([‘revenue’] *1.05)
C . sourceField([‘Revenue’] *1.05)
D . sourceField([‘revenue’] *1.05)

A

C . sourceField([‘Revenue’] *1.05)

53
Q
  1. What three things happen when an admin clicks on identity resolution deletion?

A . Deletes all custom data model objects
B . Removes all unified customer data
C . Resets all settings in identity resolution
D . Eliminates dependencies on data model object

A

B . Removes all unified customer data
C . Resets all settings in identity resolution
D . Eliminates dependencies on data model object

54
Q
  1. How many calculated insights can be created per tenant?
    A. 5
    B. 10
    C. 50
    D. 100
A

100

55
Q

What is the max limit of records can be retrieved by the Profile and Query API in a single call?
A. 4999
B. 2000
C. 9999
D. No max limit

A

4999

The default return limit is 4999 rows. A max limit of 4999 is allowed

56
Q

How many Metrics can be present in 1 segment container?

A . 1
B . 5
C . 10
D . 100

A

A . 1

https://help.salesforce.com/s/articleView?id=c360_a_calculated_insights_in_segments.htm&type=5&language=en_US

57
Q

Which Salesforce CDP use case merges customer information from various systems to create a single Id, a single record for a customer?

A. Audience Segmentation
B. Consent Management
C. Data Unification
D. Identity Resolution

A

Identity Resolution

58
Q

What configuration step has to be completed before marketing cloud activation?

A . Assign Salesforce CDP activation permission set to the user
B . Enable segment publishing to marketing cloud
C . Allow audience creation from CDP in marketing cloud
D . Selects business units for activation

A

D . Selects business units for activation

59
Q

In addition to Unified Individual Object, what other object does Salesforce CDP automatically create and manage during the Identity Resolution process?

A. Unified Lead Objects
B. Unified Contact Point Objects
C. Unified Order Objects
D. Unified Product Objects

A

Unified Contact Point Objects

60
Q

What are the two options for the publishing schedule of segments?
SELECT TWO

A . Don’t Refresh
B . Data Stream schedule
C . 12 or 24 hrs
D . Activation schedule

A

A . Don’t Refresh
C . 12 or 24 hrs

61
Q

How often does subscriber data from Marketing Cloud Bundles refresh?

A . Every 12 hours
B . Every 15 mins
C . Hourly
D . Daily

A

C . Hourly

62
Q

What is the maximum limit of the number of records for Full Refresh Extract Method?

A. 10 million
B. 40 million
C. 50 million
D. No hard limit

A

50 million

63
Q

How can a marketer change attribute names to match personalization in an Activation Target?

A . Update field names in data model
B . Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation target
C . Update attributes names in the data stream configuration
D . Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation

A

D . Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation

64
Q

A developer wants to create a segment for a birthday campaign which is refreshed every day and activated .

Which operator should he use?

A . Is Birthday
B . Is This Year
C . Is Anniversary Of
D . Is Between

A

C . Is Anniversary Of

65
Q
  1. Field type text value 0122 what should be retrieved?

A. 0122 or 122
B. - 122 Only
C. 0122 only

A

0122 only

66
Q
  1. Where in MC will be stored the CDP data?

A. Shared data extension
B. Data Extension
C. Customer Data platform Data extension
D. Shared data extension > CDP Data Extension

A

Shared data extension

67
Q
  1. Which field in the recommended source schema is not editable?

A . Field Label
B . Field API Name
C . Header Label
D . Data Type

A

C . Header Label

68
Q

Which datatype is not supported in Salesforce CDP?

A . Date
B . Boolean
C . Text
D . Number

A

B . Boolean

69
Q

How should an admin view past processing for resolution rules in Identity Resolution?

A . Run History
B . Audit History list view
C . View processing Audit Trail
D . Click on view history

A

D . Click on view history

70
Q

When can the data types be changed during ingestion?

A . After the DSO is created
B . Before DSO is created
C . Data type can never be changed
D . Data type can be changed at any time

A

B . Before DSO is created

71
Q

What configuration step has to be completed before marketing cloud activation?

A . Assign Salesforce CDP activation permission set to the user
B . Enable segment publishing to marketing cloud
C . Allow audience creation from CDP in marketing cloud
D . Selects business units for activation

A

D . Selects business units for activation

72
Q

What Salesforce CDP API enables simultaneous retrieve of customer profile along with their calculated insights?

A . Profile API
B . Query API
C . Calculated Insights API
D . Metadata API

A

C . Calculated Insights API

73
Q

Which configuration supports separate AWS S3 buckets for data ingestion and activation?

A . Separate user credentials for data stream and activation
B . Dedicated S3 data source configuration in CDP Setup
C . Separate user credentials for data stream and activation target
D . Dedicated S3 data source configuration in Activation Setup

A

C . Separate user credentials for data stream and activation target

74
Q

What are the two benefits of using Calculated Insights compared to Segmentation Criteria?

A . It creates reusable content
B . Performs complex queries across multiple objects.
C . Simple logic on row-based operations
D . Friendly drag & drop interface

A

A . It creates reusable content
B . Performs complex queries across multiple objects

75
Q

hich CDP objects are available as tables via the Tableau connector to discover new insights about customers?

A . Calculated insights
B . Data Model Objects
C . All Objects
D . Unified Profile

A

C . All Objects

76
Q

Which of the following cannot be used in Segmentation? (Choose 2)

A . Numeric Measures
B . Text Measures
C . Aggregate Functions
D . Date Time Measures

A

B . Text Measures
D . Date Time Measures

77
Q

What is the relationship between Individual and Contact Point Objects?

A . 1:1
B . 1: Many
C . Many: Many
D . None of the above

A

B . 1: Many

78
Q

Which data model defines the complete set of experiences that customers go through when interacting with a company?

A . Party Data Model
B . Journey Data Model
C . Engagement Data Model
D . Case Data Model

A

B . Journey Data Model

79
Q

How many days of historical data is loaded when B2C Commerce Data Stream is created from the Order Bundle?

A . 90 days
B . 60 days
C . 30 days
D . 10 days

A

C . 30 days

80
Q

Which type of measures with aggregate functions are supported?

A . Date
B . Text
C . Numeric
D . Boolean

A

C . Numeric

81
Q

Which permission set needs to be added to the salesforce CRM object to be available in Salesforce CDP

A . Salesforce CDP external connector
B . Salesforce External Integration
C . Salesforce CDP Salesforce Connector Integration
D . Salesforce External Connector

A

C . Salesforce CDP Salesforce Connector Integration

82
Q

Which Salesforce CDP use case merges customer information from various systems to create a single Id, a single record for a customer?

A . Audience Segmentation
B . Consent Management
C . Data Unification
D . Identity Resolution

A

D . Identity Resolution

83
Q

What programming language is used to configure Calculate Insights?

A . Python
B . SOQL
C . ANSI SOQL
D . DCL

A

C . ANSI SOQL

84
Q

Which two CRM objects are included in both Sales and Service Cloud Data Bundle?

A . Campaign Member
B . Contact
C . Opportunity
D . Account

A

B . Contact
D . Account

85
Q

What should be the type of the Event Time Field while ingesting Engagement data?
A. Mutable
B. Inconsistent
C. Immutable
D. None of the above

A

Immutable

86
Q

What is the first step in the two step process to ingest data from SFMC to Salesforce CDP?

A. Extract marketing Cloud data to customer owned S3 bucket
B. Extract Marketing cloud data to Salesforce owned SFTP
C. Extract Marketing Cloud data to Salesforce owned S3 bucket
D. Extract Marketing Cloud data to customer owned SFTP

A

C. Extract Marketing Cloud data to Salesforce owned S3 bucket

87
Q

How can a Data Subject Rights request from a customer be submitted to Salesforce CDP?

A. Using the consent API
B. Using a dedicated field in data stream
C. Using a dedicated data stream
D. Using Data Exp7orer

A

A. Using the consent API

88
Q

How can a Data Subject Rights request from a customer be submitted to Salesforce CDP?

A. Using the consent API
B. Using a dedicated field in data stream
C. Using a dedicated data stream
D. Using Data Exp7orer

A

A. Using the consent API

CDP - Bro (1 decks)

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