Cards Flashcards

1
Q

What is a gingivectomy

A

Removing gingivae to help improve aesthetics or oral health

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2
Q

What is a operculectomy?

A

It is a minor surgical procedure where the affected flap/soft tissue of gum over the wisdom tooth is cut away. Preventing build up of debris and plaque and inflammation.

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3
Q

What is a frenectomy

A

Removal of the frenulum ( lingual frenectomy and maxillary(labial) frenectomy)

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4
Q

What are the 3 bacteria found in dental caries

A

Streptococcus mutants- initial stages of cavity formation

Streptococcus sanguis

Lactobacilli- later stages of cavity formation

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5
Q

What does cariogenic mean

A

Capable of causing caries

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6
Q

What is a non-milk extrinsic sugar

A

Not found in milk and have been added to the food artificially

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7
Q

What is an intrinsic sugar

A

Found naturally in foods- such as fructose in fruits

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8
Q

Milk extrinsic sugar

A

Lactose

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9
Q

What are refined sugars

A

Sucrose, glucose and dextrose

Refined sugars are the worst for your teeth

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10
Q

How long does acid produced by the mouth last

A

20 mins - 2 hours until it is neutralised by the buffering action of saliva

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11
Q

What is demineralisation

A

The initial acid attack (a microscopic layer or enamel is dissolved away)

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12
Q

What acidity is saliva /ph level

A

Neutral. PH level of 7

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13
Q

Which PH level is critical, producing cavities

A

5.5

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14
Q

What is the healing process of enamel called after an acid attack

A

Remineralisation

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15
Q

What is a stagnation area

A

The parts of the tooth that ate more prone to caries as food tends to collects easily

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16
Q

What does an early acid attack show as

A

White spot lesion on the enamel surface

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17
Q

What is pulpitis

A

Where the pulp becomes irritated or inflamed

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18
Q

What does a chronic alveolar abscess involve

A

Pus drains from the sinus into the mouth through an outlet (small hole in the gum) leading from the alveolar bone through.

This does not hurt as much as the acute abscess as the puss is draining

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19
Q

What does saliva contain

A

Water, inorganic ions and materials, ptyalin, antibodies and leukocytes (white blood cells)

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20
Q

What is a dry mouth called

A

Xerostomia

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21
Q

What probes are used to check occlusal surfaces

A

Sickle probe or right angle probe

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22
Q

What probe is used for interproximal areas

A

Briault probe

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23
Q

What is transillumination used for

A

Using a curing light to shine through the contact points of anterior teeth by putting the mouth mirror behind to detect any shadowing

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24
Q

What is a Willis bite gauge used for

A

It measures the mandible in the rest and bite positions (verticle dimensions between the maxilla and mandible)

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25
Q

What is a carborundum polishing stone used for

A

To grind and smooth instruments

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26
Q

What is pressure relief paste used for

A

Used to fit a prosthesis, checking if it fits well. Checking where there are high points.

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27
Q

What is a skeleton denture chrome

A

Used for partial dentures, increasing strength of denture and making it less bulky

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28
Q

What is a denture reline

A

Adds material to the area that touches the gingivae, replacing lost or broken parts of the denture or adding in case of alveolar bone shrinkage

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29
Q

What is tissue conditioning

A

A soft liner material that Helps your gums heal so that your dentures can fit comfortably

It can be used to record a functional impression

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30
Q

What is an obturator

A

An obturator is used to close palatal defects after a maxillectomy, to restore mastticatory function and to improve speech

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31
Q

What is an overdenture

A

It goes over the natural tooth roots, teeth/implants they are either tooth supported or implant supported

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32
Q

What does endentulous mean

A

Missing teeth

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33
Q

What is an acrylic denture made out of

A

Polymer powder and a monomer liquid

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34
Q

What is a post-dam

A

Is it a ridge cut into the posterior palatal margin of the denture to provide more retention

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35
Q

What is an alveoplasty

A

It is a surgical procedure where the jawbone is smoothed where a tooth has been extracted/lost

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36
Q

What is a crown form

A

A plastic material that comes in the shape of each tooth and can be filled with composite material to create a crown in surgery

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37
Q

What is a Pontic, retainer and abutment

A

Pontic- the unit replacing the missing teeth on a bridge

Retainer- the units holding the bridge in place

Abutment- the teeth that are cemented onto

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38
Q

What are temporary crowns made of

A

Preformed acrylic, cold cure acrylic or polycarbonate

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39
Q

What is a fixed fixed retainer

Cantilever bridge

Adhesive bridge

A

Fixed fixed retainer- a bridge that has a Pontic and 1 retainer either side (two teeth are prepared for one missing tooth)

Cantilever bridge- one Pontic and one retainer (only one tooth prepared but only one tooth to rely on and take all the pressure)

Adhesive bridge- such as Maryland, the back of two teeth is smoothed down and the metal wings are centred onto them instead of preparing them

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40
Q

What is a vasalva test

A

Where the patient blows through their nose whilst their nostrils are closed to check if there is bubbling out of the gingivae. If there is then the sinus and the apex of the root are touching

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41
Q

What are bayonets

A

Used to extract upper roots or third molars (wisdom teeth) they have angled pointed blades.

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42
Q

Why would you carry out a labial frenectomy

A

For orthodontic and hygiene reasons, it may cause a gap between the front teeth. Food can get stuck easily so the patient may suffer from gingivitis

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43
Q

What are haemostats used for

A

They are inserted into the blood socket to aid blood clotting, can be used with or without a suture

Made of gelatine or oxidised cellulose packs

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44
Q

What would you use for an extraction for moisture control

A

Fine Bore aspirator

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45
Q

Why would you use cowhorn forceps

A

To grip the furcation of lower molar teeth

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46
Q

Types of elevators

A

Cryers, winters and Warwick James’

Triangular shaped and pointed

Winters- triangular shaped and pointed but corkscrew style handle for more leverage

Warwick james’ Round blade

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47
Q

What is a coupland chisel

A

Is used to split multi rooted teeth

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48
Q

What does ankylosed mean

A

When a root of a tooth is permanently connected to the jaw

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49
Q

What is the mucoperiosteal flap

A

A flap of mucosal tissue that is raised doing minor oral surgery

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50
Q

What is an osteotrimmer

A

Raises the corners of the flap off the underlying alveolar bone

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51
Q

What is a periosteal elevator

A

Completes the elevation of the flap off the bone, effectively “peeling it off the bone”

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52
Q

What is a rake retractor used for

A

To retract the mucoperiosteal flap itself

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53
Q

What are the cheek retractors called

A

Austin and Kilmer retractors

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54
Q

What are bone rongeurs used for

A

To produce a smooth bone surface for healing, nibbling away bone spicules

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55
Q

What are dissecting forceps

A

To hold the loose flap edges taut (stretched or pulled tight) during suturing

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56
Q

What is a resorbable suture material

A

Vicryl

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57
Q

What does trismus mean

A

Limited mouth opening

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58
Q

What is localised osteitis

A

Dry socket

The bony socket walls become infected and there is a loss of the blood clot

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59
Q

Primary, reactionary and secondary haemorrhage

A

Primary- usually stops within 5 mins, is the first bleeding after an extraction which is normal

Reactionary- occurring several hours after the XLA, usually caused by patient not following post op advice

Secondary- this happens after 24 hours of an XLA, the blood clot is lost early and the socket becomes infected. The socket should be cleaned out and a haemostatic sponge should be placed

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60
Q

What can be used to reduce risk of infection before xla

A

Applying chlorhexidine to the gingival crevice

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61
Q

What is alvogyl used for

A

To help a dry socket

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62
Q

What does avulsed mean

A

This is when a tooth has been knocked out accidentally, can sometimes be put back in if done quickly and following the correct steps

63
Q

What is the gap called caused by labial frenum

A

Median diastema

64
Q

What are orthodontic springs used for

A

To move the teeth along the arch as required

65
Q

What are orthodontic retractors used for

A

To push one or several teeth backwards

66
Q

What are orthodontic expansion screws used for

A

To move several teeth or each half of the upper arch outwards

67
Q

What are adams cribs used for

A

To retain the appliance in the mouth, is usually put onto the molar/premolar teeth

68
Q

What are adams cribs pliers used for

A

To adjust all metal springs and retractors when needed

69
Q

What is an expansion screw key

A

It counts the number of turns applied to the screw between visits to ensure compliance by the patient

70
Q

What is a functional appliance used for

A

To correct skeletal class || discrepancies (when the mandible jaw is too far back) it allows the jaw to grow into the correct position.

Have to have premolars to clasp onto but need to be young enough to still be developing (up to 14 years old)

71
Q

What is osseointegration

A

The process of the alveolar bone growing around the implant so that it locks into the bone itself

72
Q

What is perimplantitis

A

When plaque allows periodontal disease to develop around the implant, making the implant loose and fail

73
Q

What is an archwire used for

A

To fasten into the brackets or bands

Nickel titanium or stainless steel wires

74
Q

End cutters

A

Right-angled cutters to trim the ends of the archwire after replacement

75
Q

Alastiks

A

Rubber bands to hold the archwire into the slots of each bracket

76
Q

Alastik holders

A

Ratcheted holders to apply the alastiks to the brackets

77
Q

Bands

A

Metal rings to attach to molars

78
Q

Bracket holders

A

To hold and position each bracket to the centre of the tooth, if any replacements are required

79
Q

Bracket and band removers

A

To remove brackets, bands and any residual bond material

80
Q

Beebee crown shear

A

Short beaked shears for cutting and shaping the margarine of temporary crowns

81
Q

What would you disinfect impressions in

A

10% sodium hypochlorite

82
Q

What to do with elastomer imps after soaking in disinfectant

A

Dry with 3in1 tip

83
Q

Irreversible hydrocolloids

Addition silicones

Polyethers?

A

Alginate

Heavily bodied putty / light bodied paste

?

84
Q

What is a plain broach and barbed broach used for

A

Plain broach- to help locate the entrance to each root canal

Barbed broach- to remove (extirpate) the pulpal content forms the canal

85
Q

What is a reamer used for

A

Hand or rotary- to enlarge the root canals in a circular shape laterally, down to the apex

86
Q

What is a file used for

A

Hand or rotary, to meagre the can in it’s actually shape laterally, smooth the root canal walls and remove any residual debris from them

87
Q

What is an apex locator used for

A

To determine the working length electronically

88
Q

Spiral paste filler used for?

A

Used with the slow handpiece to spin sealant material into the root canal

89
Q

What is a lateral condenser/finger spreader used for

A

To condense the root filling points laterally into each root canal, so that no space remains for microorganisms to return.

90
Q

What root canal irrigation can some patients be allergic to

A

Chlorhexidine

91
Q

What is an antiseptic paste for rct

A

It is non-setting and contains antiseptic anti-inflammatories, used to dress infected root canals for a Time before root filling e.g ledermix paste

92
Q

What is cresophene

A

Used to dress infected root canals, soaked into paper points before insertion

93
Q

What does obturate mean in Rct

A

To fill

94
Q

What is the success rate of rct

A

70-80%

95
Q

What’s a gingivalplasty

A

Similar to gingivectomy but is used to reshape the gingiva

96
Q

How to deal with a small Mercury spillage

A

Globules of Mercury can be collected in a intravenous syringe or bulb aspirator and placed in a Mercury container

Small globules can be collected by adhering them to the lead foil from X-ray film packets

Waste amalgam can be gathered with a damp towel

97
Q

How to deal with a larger Mercury spillage

What does the spillage kit contain

A

Stop work and report the incident to the dentist immediately

Put on full PPE

The globules of Mercury must be smeared with a Mercury-absorbent paste from the spillage kit

Pick dry globules up with a wet disposable towel and
Placed in storage container

Equal parts of calcium hydroxide and flours of sulphur mixed into a paste with water

98
Q

What are the ingredients of amalgam, composite and glass ionomer

A

Amalgam- alloy powder (silver, copper, zinc and tin), liquid Mercury

Composite- inorganic filler (powdered glass, quarts, silica) liquid resin binder

Glass ionomer- powder (aluminosilicate and poly acrylic acid particles) sterile water

99
Q

What is calcium hydroxide used for and what are its advantages and disadvantages

A

Used as a cavity liner, used in pulp capping, pulpotomy and other roo treatment procedures

Advantages- non-irritant to the pulp
Alkalinity helps to kill caries bacteria
Compatible with all filling materials
Promotes secondary dentine formation at cavity base
Promotes enamel remineralisation due to its calcium content

Disadvantages-
Too weak to use without a base in deep cavities
Soluble in water unless a light-cured product is used

100
Q

What are the temporary restorations made out of

Zinc oxide and eugenol cement

Zinc phosphate cement

Zinc polycarboxylate cement

Gutta percha

A

Zinc oxide powder and eugenol liquid

Zinc oxide powder, phosphoric acid liquid

Zinc oxide powder, polyacrylic acid liquid or both as powder with sterile water as liquid

Greenstick compound, which is practically obsolete as a temporary filling

101
Q

What is zinc oxide and eugenol cement used for and the advantages and disadvantages

A

Used as temporary filling
Non irritant base for deep cavities
Sedative dressing for painful carious teeth and for dry sockets
Main constituent of some impression pastes, periodontal packs and root filling materials

Advantages- sedative properties of eugenol, helps to settle hypersensitive pulp
Multi-use cement
Best base cement for use with amalgam fillings

Disadvantages-
Only modern cements set fast enough for use at filling visit
Incompatible with composite fillings
Should be avoided in patients who are sensitive to eugenol products
Not adhesive to tooth

102
Q

What is zinc phosphate cement used for and what are the advantages and disadvantages

A

The thick mix- a temporary filling
Cavity base
Blocking out undercuts in inlay and crown preparations

Thin mix-
A luting cement to place inlays, crowns and bridges
A luting cement to place orthodontic bands

Advantages- setting can be controlled by varying the mix of the cement
Multi-use cement
Adhesive to dentine-can be used as a luting cement
Sets hard and quickly- stronger base beneath fillings

Disadvantages-acidic liquid with a PH of 2, so can be irritant to the pulp in deep cavities
May need a lining beneath the zinc phosphate base to prevent this
Moisture-sensitive and non-adhesive if the tooth is wet

103
Q

What is zinc polycarboxylate used for and advantages and disadvantages

A

Used as a cavity base as a thick mix
Luting cement as a thin mix

Advantages- alternative to zinc phosphate in most applications
Less acidic than zinc phosphate
More adhesive than zinc phosphate

Disadvantages- adhesive to stainless steel instrument so can be difficult to manipulate
Must be removed from instruments before setting

104
Q

What is the gutta-percha temporary restoration used for

Advantages and disadvantages

A

Practically obsolete as a temporary filling

No advantages over other materials

Poor marginal adaptation

105
Q

What does a high/low inorganic ion/mineral content saliva cause

A

High- thick stringy saliva which protects teeth against caries but allows dental calculus to form easily in large amounts

Low- watery saliva, which doesn’t give much protection against caries but prevents large amounts of calculus from forming

106
Q

What does Sjögren’s syndrome cause

A

It is a autoimmune disease it causes xerostomia (dry mouth) affecting the salivary glands

107
Q

What is ptyalism

A

Causes excess saliva, people with periodontal disease can have this and those with Parkinson’s

108
Q

What is an iatrogenic factor

A

A factor caused by imperfect dentistry

Causes problems such as plaque formation

109
Q

How deep should a gingival crevice be when healthy

A

Up to 3 mm

110
Q

What is a false pocket

A

An appearance of a pocket but this is caused by inflammation of the gingiva. Not the loss of attachment between the epithelium junction

111
Q

Name 2 anaerobic bacteria

A

Actinomyces and porphyomonas (both bacteria specifically associated with periodontal disease

112
Q

What colour is supragingival calculus and subgingival calculus

A

Supra-yellow
Sub-brown

Due to the blood pigments incorporated into it from the bleeding gingival tissues

113
Q

Why do the gums bleed on probing due to calculus

A

The rough calculus and irritation of the bacterial toxins cause painless micro ulcers to develop within the gingiva

114
Q

What are true pockets

A

Pockets caused by the destruction of the base of the gingival crevice and its attachment to the tooth. Chronic periodontitis

115
Q

What are the 3 main ways to prevent caries

A

Control the build-up of bacterial plaque using good oral hygiene techniques

Increase the tooth resistance to acid attack, by incorporating fluoride into the enamel structure

Modification of the diet- to include fewer cariogenic foods and drinks and to reduce their frequency of intake

116
Q

What are the 3 main ways to prevent periodontal disease

A

Control the build-up of bacterial plaque by using good oral hygiene techniques

Modify the contributory factors- for example smoking

Control the host response-for example, having hygiene visits more frequently, monitoring the condition, intervening if needed

117
Q

3 main techniques to remove plaque

A

Tooth brushing- using a good toothpaste
Interdental cleaning
Using suitable mouthwashes

118
Q

How much sodium fluoride is in toothpastes normal and high fluoride

A

1000parts per million for normal

Between 2800-5000 ppm for high fluoride

119
Q

What does triclosan combined with zinc do

A

Acts as an antiseptic plaque suppressant

120
Q

Which ingredient helps with sensitivity in toothpaste

A

Stannous fluoride

121
Q

What ingredient helps with whitening teeth

A

Biological enzymes

122
Q

What are the different types of interdental cleaning

A

Dental floss and tape
Flossette-style (the floss with the handle that you can use with one hand)
Interdental brushes
Woodsticks- can also be plastic, these can easily get stuck in the gum so should be used correctly (least effective)

123
Q

Mouthwashes- what different ingredients are there and what for

A

Sodium fluoride-provides topical fluoride application to the teeth
Triclosan- a chemical that suppresses the formation of plaque in the oral cavity

Hydrogen peroxide- helps eliminate anaerobic bacteria
Chlorhexidine- an antiseptic plaque suppressant

124
Q

What is a detergent food

A

A raw, firm, fibrous fruit /vegetable

Such as apples, pears, carrots and celery

Hard cheese is not a detergent food but can be eaten to increase salivary flow

125
Q

What should the fluoridation of water be

A

1ppm

126
Q

What does DMF stand for

A

Decayed missing and filled teeth

127
Q

Scalers used for supragingival calculus removal

A

Sickle scaler
Cushing’s push scaler
Jaquette scaler

128
Q

Instruments used for sun gingival scaling

A

Gracey curette
Other subgingival curettes
Periodontal hoe
Ultrasonic scaler

129
Q

What would you use as an additional stage of subgingival debridment

A

Gracey Curette- has only one cutting surface

130
Q

What is bruxing

A

Clenching and grinding teeth

Causes attrition

131
Q

What is abfraction

A

The specific loss of tooth in the cervical region due to the shearing forces that occur by overloading single standing teeth

132
Q

What is periocorontis

A

An infection of the gingival flap that lies over a partially erupted tooth called the operculum

133
Q

What bacteria causes ANUG

And how to treat it

A

Bacillus fusiformis and treponema
Vincenti

Treat it with antibiotics usually metronidazole but penicillin can be used.

134
Q

What is a buffering agent, preservative and vasoconstrictor used for in LA cartridges

A

Buffering agents- keep the contents of the cartridge at a neutral PH of 7, so they are neither acidic nor alkaline, not irritating the soft tissues

Preservative-to give adequate shelf life to the contents

Vasoconstrictor - acts to prolong the action of the anaesthetic by constricting local blood vessels so that the solution is not carried so quickly into the bloodstream (adrenaline is a vasoconstrictor)

135
Q

What’s another term for adrenaline

A

Epinephrine

136
Q

What health conditions would prevent you from using adrenaline

A

Hypertension- high blood pressure
Cardiac disease- poor functioning of the heart
Hyperthyroidism- an overactive thyroid gland

137
Q

What is a nerve block

Different types of nerve blocks (3)

What technique should be used when doing nerve blocks

A

An injection that anaesthetises the nerve trunk as it runs in soft tissue before it enters the jaw bone or after it leave it

Numbs several teeth at once

The inferior dental block is the most common nerve block

There is a mental nerve block- to anaesthetise the end portion of the inferior dental nerve only (only the anterior teeth are affected)

Posterior superior dental nerve block- the upper second and third molar are affected

An aspirating technique should be used for nerve blocks to ensure that you do not inject the blood vessel

138
Q

Local infiltration?

A

Given over the apex of the tooth to be anaesthetised, inserted beneath the mucous membrane overlying the jaw bone.

It applies it to the nerve endings instead of the nerve trunk. Usually used for all upper teeth and lower incisor teeth

Local infiltration can numb the gingivae area of lower teeth as well as the nerve block

139
Q

Intra-ligamentary injection

A

Used to produce deeper anaesthesia around hypersensitive teeth, used alongside infiltration/nerve block

It is injected into the periodontal ligament of the tooth, a lot of force is needed to do this type of injection, special syringe must be used

140
Q

Intra-osseous injection

A

Used when infiltration or nerve block has failed, this type rarely fails

A small home is drilled through the compact bone to allow a needle to be inserted directly into the spongey bone.

Cannot be used where there is a gum injection and cannot be used around the mental foramen of the mandible as the nerve could be damaged

Good for extractions, very old technique, doesn’t last as long as other techniques
Doesn’t numb the cheek, lip or tongue , numbs deeply into the tooth, and buccal/lingual gum

141
Q

What technique would you use to numb upper teeth for XLA/restoration

A

Xla- infiltration for buccal/labial and palatal sides.

For second and third molars a posterior superior dental block may be used instead

Restoration- the same

142
Q

What anaesthesia technique would be used to numb the lower teeth for XLA/restoration

A

XLA-An inferior dental block would be used for all teeth. However the lower molars would need local buccal infiltration as well as this.

When numbing the incisors, the dentist may do local infiltration instead of nerve block as the bone of the mandible is thinner here

Restoration-
An inferior dental block will numb all lower teeth

A mental block may be used if the lower molars are not involved

Infiltration may be used instead of the mental block is only lower incisors involved

143
Q

Gauge of short and long needle

A

Long- 27

Short -30

144
Q

What does paraesthesia mean

A

Pins and needles when anaesthetic is wearing off

145
Q

What are the different classes of cavities

A

Class |- cavities involving a single surface in a pit or fissure ( a filling could be an occlusal, buccal or a lingual filling)
Class ||- involving at least 2 surfaces of a posterior tooth, the mesial or distal and the occlusal surface of a molar/premolar (could be a mesial-occlusal filling in a premolar or a MOD filling in a molar)
Class |||- involving the mesial or distal surface of an incisor or canine

Class |V - same as class ||| but extend to involve the Incisal edge on the affected side

Class V- involving the cervical margin of any tooth (could be a labial cervical filling in an upper incisor or a lingual cervical filling in a lower molar)

146
Q

What is a right angled probe used for in a cavity preparation

A

To feel the cavity margins, to feel softened dentine within the cavity, to detect overhanging restorations

147
Q

What is an amalgam plugger used for In a cavity preparation

A

To push filling materials into the cavity and adapt them to the cavity shape, leaving no air spaces and forcing excess mercury to the surface of the filling for removal during carving

148
Q

What is a Burnisher used for in a cavity preparation

A

to press and adapt the restoration margins fully against the cavity edges so that no leakage occurs under the restoration

149
Q

What is a gingival margin trimmer used for

A

To trim the margin of the cavity to ensure no unsupported enamel nor soft dentine remains, not used as much anymore due to more burs being available

150
Q

What is an enamel chisel used for

A

To remove any unsupported enamel from the cavity edges, not used as much anymore due to more burs being available

151
Q

What are airturbine handpiece sand slow handpiece

A

Airturbine handpiece run at up to 500,000 revolutions per minute, they used friction grip diamond or tungsten carbide burs to cut easily through both enamel and dentine.

Slow handpieces run at around 40,000 revolutions per minute and are driven by air or electric motors at the base of the handpiece. They used latch grip stainless steel or tungsten carbide burs

152
Q

What are different shaped burs used for

A

Round- used for gaining access to cavities, and at low speed for removing caries

Pear- used for shaping and smoothing cavities

Fissure- used for shaping and outlining the cavity

153
Q

What type of matrix system would you use for amalgam, composite and GI

A

Amalgam/ metal strips held in a retainer device which can be tightened around the tooth. (Siqveland and tofflemire) Wooden wedges/plastic wedges can be used with them

Composite- a transparent plastic strip to allow light curing to occur, which is held in place by hand during curing

GI- specially shaped cervical foil matrix which adapts to the shape of the tooth in this area. Held in place by hand and the inner foil layer produces a smooth surface. Cannot be used with light cure materials as it is Opaque, light will not go through