Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ngozi's Challenges > Cardiovascular System Drugs > Flashcards

Cardiovascular System Drugs Flashcards

Exam 1

1
Q

What diuretics do you need to know? What do they help reduce?

A

High-ceiling loop diuretics
Thiazide Diuretics
Potassium (K) sparing diuretics
Osmotic Diuretics

Reducing fluid volume overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do diuretics do?

A

Increase urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do diuretics eliminate?

A

Fluids and urinary solutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do diuretics affect the reabsorption of sodium?

A

Decrease reabsorption in renal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can happen if a large amount of urine is lost due to diuretics?

A

Hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a common treatment for hypovolemia caused by diuretics?

A

0.45% Saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the high ceiling loop diuretic that is commonly used?

A

Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the other common medications in the high ceiling loop diuretic class?

A

Methanide & Torsemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where do high ceiling loop diuretics primarily work in the kidney?

A

Loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the common uses of high ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide)?

A

Pulmonary edema, liver edema, cardiac edema, kidney disease, and hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can result from the use of high ceiling loop diuretics?

A

Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What potential side effect can occur if high ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix) are administered too quickly?

A

Hearing damage or tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the recommended maximum rate for pushing (furosemide/lasix)?

A

20 mg/min NO FASTER!! or you could be causing tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some complications/side effects of high ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)?

A

Dehydration: low blood volume, low blood pressure, increased heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What electrolyte imbalances can be caused by high ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)?

A

Low: sodium, chloride, blood pressure, potassium, calcium, magnesium.
High: glucose, uric acid, cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is gout and what is it caused by?

A

Gout is caused by a build-up of a substance called uric acid in the blood.
furosemide/lasix causes an increased in uric acid buildup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the normal range for Potassium?

A

3.5-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the normal range for Sodium?

A

135-145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the normal range for Calcium?

A

9-10.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the normal range for Magnesium?

A

1.3-2.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the symptoms of hypokalemia?

A

Weakness, Hyporeflexia, Thready pulse, Orthostatic hypotension, Hypoactive bowel sounds & constipation, Nausea/vomiting, St segment depression, Inverted T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the potential side effects of high-ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)? think electrolyte imbalance.

A

Hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, decreased urine output, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hyponatremia?

A

Lethargy, seizures, confusion, coma, nausea, vomiting, headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does hyponatremia occur and how is it tx?

A

Water overload, treat with fluid restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?

A

Bradycardia and heart blocks, lethargy, coma, hypotension, hypoventilation, weak-to-absent deep tendon reflexes, nausea, vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypokalemia?

A

Heart blocks, asystole, ventricular fibrillation, muscle weakness, diarrhea, abdominal cramps

manifestations of HYPOkalemia: N/V, fatigue, leg cramps, general weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia?

A

Seizures, muscle cramps, laryngospasm, stridor, tetany, heart blocks, cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the threshold for decreased urine output that requires monitoring?

A

Less than 30 ml/hr or less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the potential safety concerns with high-ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)?

A

Dizziness and neurological problems related to electrolyte imbalances, fall risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What should patients monitor while taking high ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)?

A

BP, heart rate & rhythm, and electrolyte imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What precaution should patients take to avoid orthostatic hypotension?

A

Change positions slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What should patients avoid taking with high ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)?

A

Other ear damaging medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When should patients notify their physician?

A

If experiencing tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What types of foods should patients consume while on high ceiling loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)?

A

High potassium foods (fish, avocados, banana, orange juice, spinach, potatoes, beans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the contraindications for loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)?

A

Pregnant people, anuria (No urine output)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What conditions should loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix) be used cautiously with?

A

Heart disease, diabetes, dehydration, electrolyte depletion, gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What medications should be used cautiously with loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix)?

A

Digoxin, lithium, ototoxic meds, NSAIDs, & other anti-hypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What should be done if the patient does not urinate or potassium is low?

A

Hold (furosemide/lasix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should be done before or during loop diuretic administration (furosemide/lasix)?

A

Baseline vitals/labs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why is it important to weigh consistently?

A

Monitor fluid balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What should be monitored while a patient is on loop diuretics?

A

Blood pressure and intake/output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When is the best time to administer loop diuretics?

A

In the morning to avoid nocturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Under what condition should loop diuretics (furosemide/lasix) not be given?

A

If potassium (K) is less than 3.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What should be done if potassium needs to be replaced before giving the loop diuretic?

A

Never push potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are potential signs of effectiveness when evaluating a treatment? for frusemide

A

Decrease in pulmonary edema, decrease in peripheral edema, weight loss, decrease in BP, increase in urine output (initially), decreased calcium level (off label use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the MVP thiazide medication?

A

hydrochlorothiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the drug of choice for essential hypertension?

A

hydrochlorothiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the only thiazide medication that can be given IV?

A

Chlorothiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where does a thiazide medication block reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and water?

A

distal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are thiazides (hydrochlorothiazide) used for?

A

Edema in mild to moderate heart failure, liver, & kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

With which medication can thiazides (hydrochlorothiazide) be prescribed with for BP control?

A

Lisinopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Do thiazides reduce urine production for those with diabetes insipidus?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What condition do thiazides (hydrochlorothiazide) help prevent in postmenopausal women?

A

Osteoporosis due to reabsorption of calcium that occurs with use of (hydrochlorothiazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the risks associated with thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide)?

A

Dehydration, Hypokalemia, Hyponatremia, Hypochloremia, Hypomagnesemia, Weight loss, Hyperglycemia, Hyperuricemia, Increased lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

T/F thiazide and loop diuretics have similar risks?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are some signs of burnout in toilets?

A

Increased demand due to use of (hydrochlorothiazide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the function of potassium sparing diuretics (Spironolactone)?

A

Block action of aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the MVP of potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the result of potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Potassium retention, secretion of sodium and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the purpose of potassium sparing diuretics (Spironolactone)?

A

Treats hypertension, edema, and is given for heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How are potassium sparing diuretics (Spironolactone) administered?

A

Orally ONLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the complications of potassium sparing diuretics (Spironolactone)?

A

HYPERkalemia, endocrine problems, drowsiness, metabolic acidosis, cardiac rhythm problems (PVCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperkalemia?

A

Elevated T wave (look for cardiac events), muscle weakness, diarrhea, chest pain, palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is one way to resolve hyperkalemia?

A

Kayexelate (makes you poop the potassium) with slow results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is another way to resolve hyperkalemia?

A

Insulin and dextrose

Because it shifts potassium from the blood into the intracellular fluid. Dextrose helps prevent hypoglycemia (FAST results) (better option)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the purpose of using sodium bicarbonate to resolve hyperkalemia?

A

Helps when body is acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How does albuterol help resolve hyperkalemia?

A

Increases insulin concentration, , so it shifts potassium back to the intracellular space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the purpose of using calcium gluconate and calcium chloride during an emergent hyperkalemia situation?

A

Stabilizes the cardiac cell in the event of an emergent hyperkalemia, but doesn’t actually lower serum potassium (support your EKG with this intervention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does the hypothalamus control?

A

Body temperature, thirst, hunger, and other homeostatic systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What functions does the pituitary gland help regulate?

A

Growth, blood pressure and reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does the pineal gland help with?

A

Melatonin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the function of the thyroid gland?

A

Regulates metabolic rate

controlling heart, muscle and digestive function, brain development and bone maintenance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does the parathyroid gland regulate?

A

Levels of calcium and phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What functions do the adrenal glands regulate?

A

Metabolism, immune system, blood pressure, response to stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where is the pancreas located?

A

Behind the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does the pancreas secrete?

A

Digestive enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the function of the ovaries?

A

Produce oocytes and reproductive hormones

Oestrogen and progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the main male hormone produced by testicles?

A

Testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What should be avoided when taking potassium-sparing diuretics (Spironolactone)?

A

Salt substitutes that cotaint potassium and foods high in potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a unique side effect of triamterene?

A

Blue urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the main benefit of potassium-sparing diuretics?

A

They help to retain potassium in the body and toilet doesn’t get much potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the most valuable player (MVP) osmotic diuretic?

A

Mannitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What can osmotic diuretics (Mannitol) reduce?

A

Intracranial pressure, Intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the mechanism of action of osmotic diuretics (Mannitol)?

A

Drawing fluid back into the vascular and extravascular space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Where does osmotic diuretics (Mannitol) pull fluid from the brain?

A

Into the vascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What should be done with unused portions of Mannitol?

A

Discard unused portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What may happen if fluid containing Mannitol is chilled?

A

Crystals may form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What should be done if crystals are observed in the Mannitol container?

A

Warm to redissolve, then cool to body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are some common types of blood pressure lowering medications?

A

ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which organs work together when there is a drop in blood pressure and volume?

A

Liver, lungs, kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the goal of these organs (liver, lungs, and kidneys) when there is a drop in blood pressure and volume?

A

To bring blood pressure back up through vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the role of Angiotensin II in the story?

A

Powerful vasoconstrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What does Angiotensin II and Al do instead of having children?

A

Farm salt and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the impact of Angiotensin II and Al’s farming on the community of Heart-Landia?

A

Retain volume and increase blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the effect of angiotensin 2?

A

Vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the function of blood vessels in terms of vasoconstriction?

A

Shunting blood to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the mechanism of action for angiotensin (lisinopril) -converting enzyme inhibitors?

A

Blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Reduces production of angiotensin II by blocking the conversion of I to II and increasing bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (lisinopril)?

A

Vasodilation, sodium and water excretion, potassium retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Name some examples of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.

A

Catopril, enalapril, lisinopril

100
Q

What is the biggest ACE inhibitor adverse effect?

A

A side effect of ACE inhibitors that causes a cough

101
Q

What should patients do if they experience ACE inhibitor cough?

A

Notify the provider and stop the medication

102
Q

What causes ACE inhibitor cough?

A

Excessive bradykinin build-up in the lungs

103
Q

What can bradykinin also stimulate, leading to inflammation in the respiratory system?

A

Prostaglandins

104
Q

What is an alternative treatment for ACE inhibitor-induced cough?

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

105
Q

What are the common side effects of ACE Inhibitors?

A

Hyperkalemia, rash, altered taste

106
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperkalemia associated with ACE Inhibitors?

A

Weakness, nausea/vomiting, diarrhea

107
Q

How should the healthcare provider monitor potassium levels in patients taking ACE Inhibitors?

A

Regularly check potassium levels

108
Q

What should patients taking ACE Inhibitors avoid in their diet?

A

Salt substitutes with potassium

109
Q

What should patients taking ACE Inhibitors monitor for in their hands and feet?

A

Numbness, tingling, or paresthesia

110
Q

What should patients do if they experience a rash or altered taste while taking ACE Inhibitors?

A

Report it to their healthcare provider

111
Q

What is angioedema?

A

Swelling in the face

112
Q

Is angioedema considered a medical emergency?

A

Yes

113
Q

What group of medications is angioedema often related to?

A

ACE inhibitors

114
Q

What are the serious side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Angioedema & Neutropenia

115
Q

What is the treatment for angioedema caused by ACE inhibitors?

A

EPINEPHRINE (SUB Q)

116
Q

What should be done if angioedema occurs with ACE inhibitors?

A

STOP GIVING ACE INHIBITORS

117
Q

How should neutropenia be monitored while taking ACE inhibitors?

A

Monitor WBC every 2 weeks for 3 months and then periodically

118
Q

Is neutropenia reversible if found early?

A

Yes

119
Q

What should clients taking ACE inhibitors do if they have signs of infection?

A

Notify provider immediately

120
Q

What is the main function of ARBs?

A

Block angiotensin II in the body

121
Q

What is the mvp Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)?

A

MVP: Losartan

122
Q

What effect do ARBs have on blood vessels?

A

Causes vasodilation

123
Q

What is the difference between ARBs and ACE inhibitors?

A

ACE inhibitors block formation of angiotensin II, ARBs block action of angiotensin II

124
Q

How should the ARBS-ANGIOTENSION II RECEPTOR BLOCKERS (Losartan) administered?

A

Administer without regard to meals

125
Q

What should be reviewed before starting this ARBS-ANGIOTENSION II RECEPTOR BLOCKERS (Losartan)?

A

Review renal function tests

126
Q

What is the mechanism of action of this ARBS-ANGIOTENSION II RECEPTOR BLOCKERS (Losartan)?

A

Blocks vasoconstriction effect of renin-angiotensin system

127
Q

What should be avoided when taking this ARBS-ANGIOTENSION II RECEPTOR BLOCKERS (Losartan)?

A

Salt substitutions should not be used

128
Q

What are the complications of ARBS-ANGIOTENSION II RECEPTOR BLOCKERS (Losartan)?

A

Angioedema, fetal injury, hypotension, dizziness/lightheadedness

129
Q

What is the most serious complication of ARBS-ANGIOTENSION II RECEPTOR BLOCKERS (Losartan)?

A

Angioedema

130
Q

What is a contraindication for ARBS-ANGIOTENSION II RECEPTOR BLOCKERS (Losartan)?

A

Pregnancy

131
Q

What is a cautious use of ARBS-ANGIOTENSION II RECEPTOR BLOCKERS (Losartan)?

A

In clients who experienced angioedema with ACE inhibitors

132
Q

How do Aldosterone Antagonists (Eplerenone and Spironolactone) work?

A

By reducing blood volume

133
Q

What conditions can Aldosterone Antagonists (Eplerenone and Spironolactone) treat?

A

High blood pressure and heart failure

134
Q

What are some other conditions that Aldosterone Antagonists (Eplerenone and Spironolactone) can treat?

A

Premenstrual syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome & acne

135
Q

What is a potential side effect of Aldosterone Antagonists (Eplerenone and Spironolactone)?

A

Potassium imbalances (tingly hands or feet)

136
Q

What should patients avoid while taking Aldosterone Antagonists (Eplerenone and Spironolactone)?

A

Grapefruit juice

137
Q

What are some common calcium channel blockers?

A

Nifedipine, Verapamil, Diltiazem, Nicardipine, Amlodipine

138
Q

What is the action of calcium channel blockers?

A

Blocks calcium channels in vessels to cause vasodilation of smooth muscle (peripheral arteries and arteries of the heart)
relaxes muscles

139
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of Nifedipine, Amlodipine, Nicardipine, and Verapamil and Diltiazem/
Cardizem?

A

Hypertension

140
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of Verapamil and Diltiazem/Cardizem?

A

Cardiac Dysrythmias

141
Q

Which calcium channel blockers are commonly used for angina pectoris?

A

Nifedipine, Amlodipine, Nicardipine, Verapamil, and Diltiazem/Cardizem

142
Q

What are the uses of nifedipine?

A

Angina or blood pressure control

143
Q

What are some common side effects of nifedipine?

A

Reflex tachycardia, acute toxicity, orthostatic hypotension & peripheral edema

144
Q

How should reflex tachycardia be managed in a patient taking nifedipine?

A

Administer a beta blocker

145
Q

What should be done in case of nifedipine toxicity?

A

Provide symptomatic treatment, consider gastric lavage, and use powerful vasoconstrictors and fluid boluses

146
Q

What precautions should be taken for a patient experiencing nifedipine toxicity?

A

Have cardioversion/pacer equipment available

147
Q

What should patients be taught about in relation to nifedipine?

A

Orthostatic hypotension

148
Q

What is the usual route of administration for Cardizem/Diltiazem in the critical care setting?

A

IV/IVP

149
Q

What is the bolus dose for Cardizem/Diltiazem?

A

0.25mg/kg over FIVE minutes

150
Q

What should be monitored during the administration of Cardizem/Diltiazem?

A

Rhythm and patient condition

151
Q

What is the usual follow-up treatment after a successful bolus dose of Cardizem/Diltiazem?

A

Drip 1 to 1

152
Q

What are the common conditions for which Cardizem/Diltiazem is given in the critical care setting?

A

Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate (AFIB RVR), atrial flutter, and Supraventricular tachycardia(SVT)

153
Q

What are the complications of Diltiazem and Verapamil?

A

Orthostatic hypotension, peripheral edema, constipation, suppression of cardiac function, dysrhythmias, acute toxicity

154
Q

How can orthostatic hypotension and peripheral edema be managed?

A

Teach how to manage symptoms and consider diuretic

155
Q

What should be done to manage constipation caused by Diltiazem and Verapamil?

A

Teach to increase fiber and water intake

156
Q

How should suppression of cardiac function be monitored?

A

Monitor pulse and activity intolerance, notify provider of slow pulse/activity intolerance

157
Q

What complications can prolonged QT interval cause in terms of Diltiazem and Verapamil?

A

Dysrhythmias that can lead to death

158
Q

How should acute toxicity be treated Diltiazem and Verapamil?

A

Treat rhythm and vitals, have resuscitation equipment nearby

159
Q

What does Beta1 affect?

A

The heart

160
Q

What does Beta2 primarily affect?

A

The heart and lungs

161
Q

What is the common ending for beta adrenergic blockers?

A

LOL
Cardio-selective: Metoprolol, Atenolol, Emsolol,
Non-selective Affects both Heart and Lungs: Propranolol, Nadolol
Alpha and Beta Blockers: Carvedilol, Labetalol

162
Q

What are the two main effects of beta blockers on the body?

A

Decreases heart rate and blood pressure

163
Q

What does beta blockers decrease in the body?

A

Cardiac output

164
Q

What conditions can beta blockers be used to treat?

A

High blood pressure, chest pain (angina), fast dysrhythmias, heart failure, heart attack

165
Q

Why should beta blockers not be given to a patient with asthma?

A

Beta 2 affects lungs and beta blockers can cause asthma attacks.

166
Q

What precaution should be taken when administering beta blockers in patients with a heart rate below 50?

A

Don’t give if heart rate <50

167
Q

What should diabetic patients do when taking beta blockers?

A

Check their blood sugar frequently; This drug can mask tachycardia, a sign of low glucose

168
Q

What effect can beta blockers have on heart rate?

A

Mask tachycardia

169
Q

What is a sign of low glucose?

A

Tachycardia

170
Q

What are the potential side effects of beta 1 blockers Metoprolol and propranolol?

A

Hypoglycemia

171
Q

When should beta 1 blockers (Metoprolol and propranolol) not be given?

A

When the heart rate is less than 50

172
Q

How should beta 1 blockers (Metoprolol and propranolol) be started when used as drips?

A

Start low

173
Q

What should be watched for when using beta 1 blockers?

A

Worsening heart failure (SHOB, edema, weight gain, fatigue)

174
Q

What is the main concern with using propranolol in clients with asthma?

A

Bronchoconstriction

175
Q

What does beta 2 blockade (propranolol) affect?

A

Lungs

176
Q

Which type of beta should asthma patients be receiving?

A

Beta 1

177
Q

What is the risk for diabetic patients taking propranolol?

A

Hypoglycemia

178
Q

What process does propranolol inhibit that can lead to hypoglycemia?

A

Glycogenesis

179
Q

What is glycogenesis?

A

Storing excess glucose for later use

180
Q

What process occurs when the body needs glucose as an energy source?

A

Glycogenolysis

181
Q

Did the beta blockers work?

A

Did the patient experience:
Absence of chest pain?
Absence of cardiac dysrhythmias?
Normotensive or improved blood pressure readings?
Control of heart failure manifestations?

Yes

182
Q

What is the blood pressure category for a systolic pressure of 120 mm Hg or less?

A

Normal

183
Q

What is the blood pressure category for a systolic pressure of 180 mm Hg or higher?

A

Hypertensive Crisis

184
Q

What is the blood pressure category for a diastolic pressure of 80 mm Hg or less?

A

Normal

185
Q

What is the blood pressure category for a diastolic pressure of 110 mm Hg or higher?

A

Hypertensive Crisis

186
Q

What are some medications used for hypertensive crisis?

A

Nitroglycerin, Nicardipine, Cevidipine, Enalaprilat, Esmolol

187
Q

What does 180 BP mean?

A

Decreased blood flow to kidneys

188
Q

What should you watch for when giving hypertensive crisis meds too rapidly?

A

Excessive hypotension

189
Q

What should you monitor continuously while giving hypertensive crisis meds?

A

Vitals and rhythm

190
Q

What are the complications of hypertensive crisis meds?

A

Excessive hypotension, cyanide poisoning, bradycardia, tachycardia, other ECG changes

191
Q

What is heart failure?

A

Inability of the heart to meet the circulatory needs of the whole body.

192
Q

What are some alterations in heart failure?

A

Decreased cardiac output, altered heart rate, altered stroke volume, altered preload, altered afterload

193
Q

What is digoxin?

A

Cardiac glycoside

194
Q

What is the positive inotropic effect of digoxin?

A

Increased force of myocardial contraction

195
Q

What are the effects of digoxin on stroke volume and cardiac output?

A

Improves stroke volume and cardiac output
Makes the heart a more effective pump

196
Q

How does digoxin increase stroke volume and cardiac output?

A

Decreases heart rate to give ventricles more filling time

197
Q

What are the overall effects of digoxin on the heart?

A

Strong and slow

198
Q

What are some complications of digoxin?

A

Dysrhythmias, cardiotoxicity, hypokalemia

199
Q

Why is it important to monitor digoxin levels?

A

To ensure therapeutic range

200
Q

What dietary recommendation should be given to clients taking digoxin?

A

Eat high-potassium foods

201
Q

What symptoms should be monitored and reported when taking digoxin?

A

Changes in rate, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, weakness, vision changes
Can cause fatigue, weakness, vision changes (blurred vision, yellow-green or white halos around objects)

202
Q

What is toxicity is range for digoxin

A

0.5 to 2 mg

203
Q

What are the contraindications for digoxin?

A

Pregnancy and disturbances in ventricular rhythm

204
Q

What precautions should be taken with patients who have hypokalemia, advanced heart failure, and impaired kidney function?

A

Use with caution

205
Q

When should the drug be held and the provider notified? digoxin

A

If adult heart rate is <60, child heart rate is <70, or infant heart rate is <90

206
Q

What signs/symptoms of digoxin toxicity should be watched for/reported?

A

Fatigue, weakness, vision changes, halos, GI effects

207
Q

How should digoxin be administered intravenously?

A

Over a minimum of 5 minutes (10-15 minutes if patient has pulmonary edema)

208
Q

How is excessive digoxin toxicity treated?

A

Charcoal, cholestyramine, or digoxin immune fab

209
Q

What should patients do if they miss a dose of digoxin?

A

Take the dose as soon as possible

210
Q

What are the catecholamines?

A

Epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol, norepinephrine.

211
Q

What are the noncatecholamines?

A

Albuterol, ephedrine.

212
Q

What are the effects of Alpha 1 receptor activation?

A

Vasoconstriction, mydriasis, increased heart rate, increased myocardial contractility

213
Q

What is the role of Alpha 1 receptors in the heart?

A

Affect the heart

214
Q

What do alpha 2 receptors (adrenergic agonists) activate?

A

Arterioles in the heart, lungs, and skeletal muscles to vasodilate

215
Q

What effect do alpha 2 receptors have on bronchi?

A

Bronchodilation

216
Q

What is the effect of alpha 2 receptor activation on smooth muscle?

A

Smooth muscle relaxation

217
Q

How does activation of alpha 2 receptors affect blood glucose?

A

Raises blood glucose by causing glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle

218
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of epinephrine?

A

Anaphylactic shock

219
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine on blood pressure?

A

Increases blood pressure

220
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine (beta 1 receptors)?

A

Increase heart rate, contractility, rate of conduction, cardiac output, and tissue perfusion

221
Q

When would you not give epip?

A

if it is not a code or reaction

222
Q

What are some uses of Dopamine?

A

Shock, heart failure, acute kidney injury

223
Q

What is the effect of low doses of Dopamine on renal blood vessels?

A

Dilation

224
Q

What is the effect of Dopamine on heart rate and blood pressure?

A

Affects heart rate and blood pressure

225
Q

What is Dobutamine?

A

Beta 1 agonist

226
Q

What effect does Dobutamine have on heart rate?

A

Increases heart rate

227
Q

What effect does Dobutamine have on contractility and cardiac output?

A

Increases contractility and cardiac output

228
Q

What effect does Dobutamine have on rate of conduction through AV node?

A

Increases rate of conduction through AV node

229
Q

What are the complications of adrenergic (beta 1 and 2) agonists?

A

Hypertensive crisis, cardiac complications, necrosis. Tachycardia

230
Q

What is angina?

A

Chest pain

231
Q

What are the symptoms of angina?

A

Sudden pain under sternum radiating to left shoulder, arm, and/or jaw

232
Q

What does angina represent?

A

Inadequate oxygen supply to meet myocardial demand

233
Q

What should medications for angina aim at?

A

Prevention of myocardial ischemia, pain, myocardial infarction, and death

234
Q

What are the possible medications for managing angina?

A

Organic nitrates, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, ranolazine

235
Q

What medications should individuals with chronic stable angina take concurrently?

A

Antiplatelet agent (aspirin or clopidogrel), cholesterol lowering agent, ACE inhibitor

236
Q

What is the primary action of nitroglycerin?

A

Vasodilation

237
Q

How does nitroglycerin reduce oxygen demand?

A

By decreasing venous return and preload

238
Q

In what type of angina does nitroglycerin help with coronary artery spasms?

A

Vasospastic or Prinzmetal’s angina

239
Q

What condition is nitroglycerin commonly used to treat?

A

Acute angina

240
Q

What are the complications of Nitro?

A

Headache, Hypotension, Reflex tachycardia, Tolerance

241
Q

What are the contraindications of Nitro?

A

Pregnancy, Severe anemia, Closed-angle glaucoma, Traumatic head injury

242
Q

When should Nitro be used with caution?

A

When taking other anti-hypertensive drugs, having hyperthyroidism, or kidney/liver dysfunction

243
Q

What is the interaction between nitro and inhibitors of phosphodiesterase type 5 for erectile dysfunction?

A

Life threatening

244
Q

What should be done before administering nitro to a patient?

A

GET ECG

245
Q

What is the recommended starting dose of nitro and how should it be adjusted?

A

Start at 5 mcg/min and titrate up to desired response.

246
Q

What is the onset of action for sublingual, IV, and spray forms of nitro?

A

Sublingual: RAPID, IV: Rapid, Spray: rapid

Ngozi's Challenges (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions