Cardiovascular system Flashcards

1
Q

Is ETOH a known PPT of a fib?

A

yes

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2
Q

WPW = Findings on ECG

A

(shortened PR interval, delta wave, wide QRS)

+ symptomatic tachyarrhythmia

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3
Q

CAD: Women are __ likely to have CAD than men;

A

less

however, women are more likely to present with atypical anginal symptoms (ie: epigastric discomfort)

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4
Q

Diastolic murmurs:

A
  • Mitral stenosis

- Aortic regurg

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5
Q

Mitral stenosis

A

loud first heart sound (S1) and mid-diastolic rumble best heard at the cardiac apex.

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6
Q

Noonan syndrome:

A

short stature, facial dysmorphism, and a spectrum of congenital heart defects.
- Cardiac involvement is seen in up to 90% of patients and includes pulmonic stenosis, atrial septal defects, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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7
Q

Patients with bicuspid aortic valve are at risk for developing

A

aortic dilation, aortic aneurysm, and aortic dissection, and should be screened with imaging of the aortic root and proximal aorta.

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8
Q

Urgent coronary revascularization is indicated for acute ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
- Optimal therapy is with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within ___ minutes of first medical contact or within ___ minutes for patients who require rapid transfer to a PCI-capable facility.

A

percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes of first medical contact or within 120 minutes for patients who require rapid transfer to a PCI-capable facility.

  • In some rural settings, PCI within 120 minutes is not possible, and fibrinolytic therapy (eg, tenecteplase, alteplase, reteplase) is indicated within 30 minutes of hospital arrival.
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9
Q

ECG findings are diagnostic of STEMI:

A
  • New ST elevation at the J point in >2 anatomically contiguous leads with the following threshold:
    >1 mm (0.1 mV) in all leads except V2 and V3
    >1.5 mm in women,
    >2 mm in men age >40, and
    >2.5 mm in men age <40 in leads V2 and V3
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10
Q

New left bundle branch block with clinical presentation consistent with ____

A

acute coronary syndrome

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11
Q

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction due to left ventricular diastolic dysfunction - Most commonly caused by

A

prolonged systemic hypertension -> left ventricular hypertrophy and impaired diastolic filling -> decompensated volume overload despite normal left ventricular ejection fraction >50%.

  • Comorbidities: Obesity, diabetes mellitus, and obstructive sleep apnea
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12
Q

Kerley B lines

A

(horizontal lines representing interstitial edema and pulmonary edema)

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13
Q

VSD

A

most common congenital heart defect at birth
- spontaneous closure in 40%–60% of the patients during early childhood.

  • A small restrictive VSD is associated with a loud murmur, but a large nonrestrictive VSD is associated with a softer murmur which occurs early in systole due to early equalization of right and left ventricular pressures
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14
Q

atrial septal defects and large left-to-right shunts reveals which sound?

A

a characteristic wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound.

  • may also have a mid-systolic ejection murmur resulting from increased flow across the pulmonic valve,
  • and a mid-diastolic rumble resulting from increased flow across the tricuspid valve.
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15
Q

Mitral stenosis is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope at

A

the cardiac apex, which is located in the fifth intercostal space at the left mid-clavicular line. - May be helpful if the patient lies in the left lateral decubitus position.

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16
Q

Peripheral artery disease (PAD) results

A

atherosclerotic narrowing of peripheral arteries and signifies systemic cardiovascular disease. Patients with PAD should be initiated on antiplatelet and statin therapy at the time of diagnosis

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17
Q

____ recommended for patients with intermittent claudication due to peripheral arterial disease. . What can be added for pts with persistent sx?

A

supervised exercise program

Cilostazol

If necessary, revascularizatiom via percutaneous stent placement or surgical bypass if critical limb ischemia or continue to have claudication despite risk factor management, exercise, and pharm

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18
Q

goals of initial therapy for both ascending and descending aortic dissection

A

providing adequate pain control,
lowering systolic blood pressure to 100-120 mm Hg,
and decreasing left ventricular contractility to reduce aortic wall stress

Intravenous beta blockers such as labetalol, propranolol, or esmolol are preferred for slowing the heart rate to <60/min

Esmolol is preferred in acute settings due to its short half-life (~9 minutes), which allows for rapid titration for optimal heart rate and blood pressure control.

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19
Q

n patients with Cocaine related chest pain (CRCP) that is likely of cardiovascular etiology, __________ are the preferred initial medication treatment

A

benzodiazepines (eg, lorazepam, diazepam)
- These drugs reduce sympathetic outflow to alleviate tachycardia and hypertension and improve myocardial ischemia. In addition, benzodiazepines calm cocaine-induced psychomotor agitation, which helps to decrease myocardial oxygen demand and provide further relief of myocardial ischemia

Nitroglycerin (sublingual or infusion) is also useful in alleviating hypertension (and myocardial ischemia) in these patients

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20
Q

The presence of persistent chest pain and neurologic symptoms in a patient with recent cocaine use should raise suspicion for ________

A

acute dissection of the ascending aorta. Rapid diagnosis is essential CT angio scan

In addition to medication therapy, emergency surgical repair is needed for ascending dissection.

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21
Q

Acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) results from

A

a critical elevation in intracardiac filling pressures

    • most commonly occurs due to left ventricular (LV) systolic and/or diastolic dysfunction (eg, coronary ischemia, hypertensive
  • Other causes include valvular disease and marked elevations in preload (eg, excessive volume resuscitation) or afterload (eg, severe hypertension).
  • Gradually increasing LV filling pressures can reach a critical point, resulting in ADHF and pulmonary edema (bilateral crackles, vascular congestion on chest x-ray, tachypnea, hypoxia).
  • JVD is usually present
    cardiomyopathy) .
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22
Q

______ is recommended in patients with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who have an inadequate response to initial diuretic therapy.

A

intravenous vasodilator

  • Nitroglycerin: primarily a venous dilator, it leads to a rapid decrease in cardiac preload, resulting in reduced intracardiac filling pressures and improvement in pulmonary edema.
  • Nitroprusside is less commonly used due to the risk of adverse effects (eg, cyanide toxicity, severehypotension); it decreases intracardiac filling pressures through balanced vasodilation and reductions in both cardiac preload and afterload.

Because intravenous vasodilator therapy often results in rapid improvement of acutely symptomatic pulmonary edema, it is indicated right away (prior to or instead of intravenous diuretics) in patients with “flash” pulmonary edema due to severe hypertension (>180/120 mm Hg) (ie, hypertensive emergency).

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23
Q

______ should be performed in patients with acute decompensated heart failure of uncertain etiology .

What happens if significant LV systolic dysfunction is present?

A

Transthoracic echocardiogram should be performed in patients with acute decompensated heart failure of uncertain etiology to evaluate for left ventricular and valvular dysfunction.

  • If significant left ventricular systolic dysfunction is present, evaluation for ischemic cardiomyopathy with stress testing or coronary angiography is indicated.
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24
Q

WPW syndrome

  • What is it?
  • What is the most common arrhythmia?
A

combination of WPW findings on ECG and symptomatic tachyarrhythmia.

  • Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is the most common arrhythmia; it is usually a regular, narrow complex tachycardia.
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25
Q

What happens if patients with WPW develop atrial fibrillation?

A

they can conduct down the accessory pathway from the atria to the ventricles at a very fast rate, commonly resulting in syncope.

  • ingestion of alcohol, a known precipitant of atrial fibrillation, likely placed him at risk for such a scenario.
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26
Q

Name the mutations in:
Marfan syndrome
HOCM

A

Marfan: fibrillin gene mutation HOCM: myosin gene mutation

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27
Q

What should patients with asymptomatic vs symptomatic myopathy from statin use do?

A
  • Asymptomatic: a CK level >10 times the upper limit of normal range is considered an indication for discontinuation of statin therapy.
  • Symptomatic: discontinue therapy.
  • However, if it seems to be temporally related to prolonged exercise (tolerated atorvastatin previously without any significant side effects), the most appropriate next step is to recheck CK levels, then restart statin therapy after CK lvls normalize
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28
Q

Transient hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

a cardiac anomaly found in infants of mothers with gestational diabetes.

  • This disease occurs in the late second to early third trimesters due to fetal hyperinsulinemia in response to maternal and fetal hyperglycemia.
  • Insulin triggers glycogen synthesis, and excess glycogen and fat are deposited within the myocardium, particularly the interventricular septum.
  • Increased oxidative stress of the interventricular septum may contribute to this selective thickening.
  • A hypertrophic interventricular septum is usually asymptomatic; however, if left ventricular outflow is obstructed, manifestations of congestive heart failure occurs
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29
Q

___ are the second most common congenital heart defect in adults

A

ASDs are the second most common congenital heart defect in adults (bicuspid aortic valve is the most common).

ASD: mid-systolic murmur at the left upper sternal border with right atrial and ventricular dilation

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30
Q

ventricular septal defect (VSD) sound

A

typically have a harsh holosystolic murmur with maximal intensity over the left 3rd and 4th intercostal spaces, often accompanied by a palpable thrill.

31
Q

Multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT) most commonly occurs in elderly patients who are hospitalized with ________.

  • How is it diagnosed?
  • Treated?
A

hospitalized with an exacerbation of underlying pulmonary disease (eg, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).

  • The diagnosis is made by ECG demonstrating P waves of at least 3 different morphologies and an atrial rate >100/min.
  • Treatment involves appropriate management of the underlying inciting illness.
32
Q

Current guidelines recommend high-intensity statin therapy

A
  • atorvastatin 40-80 mg or rosuvastatin 20-40 mg daily for all patients age =75 with known ASCVD (and moderate-intensity statin therapy for those age >75).

Other patients who should receive statin therapy include those with:

  • a baseline LDL = 190 mg/dL,
  • patients with diabetes age 40-75
  • any patient with an estimated 10-year risk of myocardial infarction =7.5%
33
Q

______ should be suspected in patients with tall stature, myopia, and increased arm span to height ratio.
- What should you do to screen prior to sports participation?

A

Marfan Syndrome
Because these patients are at higher risk for sudden cardiac death due to aortic root disease, screening echocardiography is required prior to sports participation.

34
Q

___________ is the strongest predictor of stent thrombosis after coronary stent placement.

A

Premature discontinuation of dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin and P2Y12 receptor blocker (ie, clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor))

  • Patients should be aggressively screened and counseled for medication compliance to reduce the risk of stent thrombosis.
35
Q
Elderly patients (eg, age >80) are more likely to experience anginal symptoms other than chest pain (eg, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, fatigue). 
If you have High suspectability for CAD, what do you do?
A

Do noninvasive stress testing.

  • Exercise ECG stress testing is preferred for patients able to achieve adequate exertion levels on a treadmill (eg, >85% of maximum heart rate).
  • However, for those with limited exertional walking capacity (eg, due to osteoarthritis), pharmacologic stress testing (eg, adenosine myocardial perfusion imaging, dobutamine echocardiography) is most appropriate.
36
Q

In pts with Afib, ______ is recommended for those with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of >2

A

Anticoagulation with warfarin or other anticoagulants (eg, dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban)

37
Q

idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) tx

A
  • Endothelin receptor antagonists (eg, bosentan, ambrisentan) have demonstrated delayed progression of disease in symptomatic patients with idiopathic PAH.
  • advanced therapy goal is to dilate the pulmonary arteries.
  • Endothelin is a potent vasoconstricting hormone that is produced by endothelial cells, and endothelin receptors are abundant in the pulmonary arteries of patients with idiopathic PAH.
38
Q

Patients with compartment syndrome may develop rhabdomyolysis and release of ______.
- Why is this bad?

A

Myoglobin
- Heme pigment from myoglobin is nephrotoxic; patients may develop acute renal failure, especially if they are volume depleted.

39
Q

Mobitz type I

Mobitz type II

A

Mobitz type I, the PR interval progressively lengthens until an impulse is blocked.

Mobitz type II, the PR interval is prolonged but constant with an occasional impulse being blocked.

40
Q

_______ can occur due to papillary muscle rupture, typically in the setting of myocardial infarction (MI)

  • How?
  • Why is this important?
A

Acute mitral valve regurgitation (MR)

  • rupture of the mitral chordae tendineae.
  • Connective tissue disease (eg, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome), are at risk for mitral chordae tendineae rupture, leading to a flail leaflet and acute MR
41
Q

Papillary muscle rupture with acute, severe MR can occur as a life-threatening mechanical complication of acute MI, typically ____ days after the infarct

A

3-5 days

42
Q

Most patients with AF are managed with a conservative rate-control strategy. However, rhythm control aimed at maintenance of sinus rhythm is preferred in the following clinical settings:
- examples?

A
  • Inability to maintain adequate heart rate control with rate-control agents
  • Persistence of symptomatic episodes (eg, heart failure exacerbation) on rate-control agents
  • Amiodarone or dofetilide are the preferred antiarrhythmic agents in patients with AF and left ventricular (LV) systolic dysfunction with ejection fraction <35%.
43
Q

Digoxin toxicity is characterized by:

A

nausea, vomiting, anorexia, fatigue, confusion, visual disturbances, and cardiac abnormalities.

44
Q

What drugs can cause digoxin toxicity?

A

quinidine
amiodarone
spironolactone.

Verapamil inhibits the renal tubular secretion of digoxin, resulting in almost 70-100% increase in serum digoxin levels

45
Q

Risk equivalents (predictor) for CAD

A
  • Noncoronary atherosclerotic disease (carotid, periph artery, AAA).
  • DM
  • CKD
46
Q

________ are recommended for the medical management of symptomatic patients with HCM and elevated left ventricular outflow tract gradient. What should NOT be used?

A

Negative inotropic agents (beta-blockers, verapamil or disopyramide)
- Beta-blockers are preferred as initial therapy

Drugs that reduce systemic vascular resistance with worsening of the LVOT gradient and symptoms should not be used in patients with HCM.

  • Vasodilators (dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine and nifedipine),
  • angiotensinconverting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors,
  • angiotensin receptor blockers,
  • nitrates
47
Q

The pharmacologic stress agents (adenosine and dipyridamole) act by ________

A

producing coronary vasodilatation and increasing the coronary flow rate and velocity.

  • In normal coronary vessels, the resulting vasodilation increases the blood flow;
  • In areas with severe stenosis, there is already a compensatory microvascular dilatation at rest to maintain normal blood flow, so no further increase in the flow occurs. The resulting heterogenous blood flow due to the stenotic or occluded region is detected by radionuclide imaging studies as a perfusion defect.
48
Q

All pts with acute coronary syndrome ([ACS] -> unstable angina/non ST-elevation myocardial infarction [NSTEMI]) should be managed with which medications?

A
MONA BASH
Morphine 
Oxygen 
Nitroglycerin 
Aspirin (Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and platelet P2Y12 receptor blockers (clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor) 
Beta Blocker 
ACE inhibitor/ARB 
Statin 
Heparin (Anticoagulant therapy (unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, bivalirudin, or fondaparinux)
49
Q

In multiple randomized trials, treatment with dual ____ therapy and ____ therapy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of nonfatal MI and cardiovascular death in patients with ACS.

A

dual antiplatelet therapy and anticoagulant therapy

50
Q

Anomalous aortic origin of a coronary artery (AAOCA):

A
  • left main coronary artery originating from the right aortic sinus
  • right coronary artery originating from the left aortic sinus.

Defects create sharp curvature of the anomalous coronary artery, making it less amenable to high-volume flow.
In addition, the anomalous artery passes between the aorta and the pulmonary artery, making it susceptible to external compression during exercise.

51
Q

long QT syndrome QTc = ?

A

(QTc >450 msec)

52
Q

low cardiac index (CI) means?

A

impaired cardiac contractility

53
Q

What do you do for Patients with suspected acute coronary syndrome but unremarkable initial ECG and serum troponin

A
  • Observed with serial ECG and troponin levels to confirm or rule out the diagnosis.
  • eg, 3 troponin levels 6 hours apart and several ECGs 30 minutes apart
54
Q

Severe aortic stenosis is defined by _____

A
  • echocardiogram findings of aortic jet velocity > 4.0 m/sec or mean transvalvular gradient > 40 mm Hg.
  • Symptomatic patients with severe aortic stenosis should undergo aortic valve replacement to increase longterm survival
55
Q

Are Alpha blockers are not recommended as first-line treatment for hypertension? When could they be considered useful in HTN tx?

A

they are effective in treating obstructive symptoms in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia and may help to lower blood pressure in patients with comorbid hypertension.

56
Q

In patients with a recent MI, beta blockers reduce short-term morbidity how?

A

reduce recurrent symptoms, reinfarction, size of infarct as well as short- and long-term mortality

57
Q

A combination of _____ plus _____ therapy has been shown to provide additional symptomatic and mortality benefit in African American patients with persistent New York Heart Association class III or IV symptoms due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction (left ventricular ejection fraction <40%) not responding to optimal medical therapy.

A

Hydralazine + Nitrate

58
Q

In patients with diabetes and multivessel coronary artery disease, ______ is preferred over ______ due to a lower rate of all-cause mortality and myocardial infarction

A

coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is preferred over percutaneous coronary intervention due to a lower rate of all-cause mortality and myocardial infarction with CABG

59
Q

How does Trastuzumab and Anthracycline (doxorubcin) affect the heart?

A
  • Trastuzumab may cause a decline in left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) (usually asymptomatic) but may occasionally lead to overt clinical HF d/t loss of myocardial contractility (myocardial hibernation) leading to a decrease in LVEF
  • The incidence of cardiotoxicity is approximately 5% with trastuzumab monotherapy, but it is 25% with trastuzumab combined with anthracycline (eg, doxorubicin) and cyclophosphamide.
  • trastuzumab-associated cardiotoxicity is reversible w/ complete recovery after treatment discontinuation. -

chronic anthracycline
- associated cardiotoxicity may not be reversible after treatment discontinuation due to myocyte necrosis, destruction, and replacement by fibrous tissue.

60
Q

The presence of bradyarrhythmias (sinus bradycardia or pauses) is associated with an increased risk of developing ________ in patients with drug-induced acquired long QT syndrome (LQTS).

  • What meds are assoc w/ LQTS?
  • What is first line tx?
  • What if first line tx doesn’t work?
A

torsades de pointes

  • antipsychotics,
  • antidepressants,
  • macrolides,
  • fluoroquinolones,
  • antifungals.
  • Intravenous magnesium sulfate is indicated as first-line therapy for the treatment and prevention of recurrent episodes of torsade de pointes, regardless of the patient’s baseline serum magnesium levels.
  • Temporary transvenous pacing should be used in patients who do not respond to intravenous magnesium sulfate.
61
Q

Peri-infarction pericarditis (PIP): localized inflammation typically ____ days following acute myocardial infarction (MI).

  • Sx?
  • Tx?
A

< 4 days
- Delayed coronary reperfusion following ST-elevation MI (eg, >3 hours from symptom onset) increases the risk of developing PIP.

Sx: pleuritic chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration and improves with sitting up.

  • pericardial friction rub that is classically triphasic (heard in atrial systole, ventricular systole, and early ventricular diastole)
  • high-dose aspirin is the treatment of choice for symptomatic management of peri-infarction pericarditis
62
Q

___________ of the mitral valve leading to mitral valve prolapse (evidenced by a systolic click) is one of the most common causes of chronic primary Mitral regurgitation

A

myxomatous degeneration

63
Q

COCAINE MI is d/t what?

A

Myocardial ischemia d/t cocaine intoxication focuses on reduction of myocardial oxygen demand and improvement in myocardial oxygen supply.

64
Q

What is contraindicated in the setting of acute cocaine ingestion? What do you use instead for tx?

A
  • beta blockers are contraindicated in the setting of acute cocaine ingestion, so intravenous benzodiazepines are given as needed to reduce sympathetic outflow and to alleviate hypertension, tachycardia, and coronary vasoconstriction.
  • Nitroglycerin is also given to reduce blood pressure and left ventricular wall stress.
  • cocaine stimulates platelet activity and encourages thrombus formation, thrombotic occlusion of coronary arteries can occur (even in young patients).
  • Aspirin should be given early.
  • In patients with persistent ST elevation despite initial medical therapy, coronary angiography with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) should be performed without delay.
  • Prompt recognition and restoration of myocardial blood flow is critical to minimize myocardial necrosis and to reduce cardiac morbidity and mortality
65
Q

Warfarin interacts with several prescription and over-the-counter medications, leading to over/underanticoagulation and increased bleeding risk (with or without a change in the prothrombin time).
- new medications like ________ should always be added cautiously in patients on chronic anticoagulation with warfarin.

A
  • P450 inhibitors (ie: Amiodarone) slows warfarin metabolism (and increases serum concentration) in the liver by inhibiting the cytochrome enzyme system and can lead to over-anticoagulation in patients maintained on a stable dose of warfarin.
  • recommended that the warfarin dose be reduced by 25%-50% to compensate for the increase in serum concentration of warfarin after initiating amiodarone therapy.
66
Q

Procedures that warrant antibiotic prophylaxis for IE in patients with high-risk cardiac conditions in the absence of active infection include:

A
  • Dental procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth (eg, routine dental cleaning) or perforation of the oral mucosa
  • Respiratory tract procedures that involve incision or biopsy of the respiratory mucosa (eg, tonsillectomy, bronchoscopy with biopsy)
  • Surgical placement of prosthetic cardiac material

Unless there is active GI or GU infection, the administration of antibiotics for the prevention of IE is not indicated prior to a GI or GU tract procedure, even in patients with high-risk cardiovascular conditions (eg, prosthetic heart valve

67
Q
Peripartum cardiomyopathy (PPCM) is heart failure that occurs between 36 weeks gestation and 5 months postpartum
- Management?
A
  • Management of PPCM is similar to that of other causes of systolic heart failure.
  • Some patients will have spontaneous resolution
  • Patients with persistent PPCM are at risk for further LV function decline and death in subsequent pregnancies.
  • Therefore, regardless of PPCM resolution, patients are evaluated with serial echocardiograms for a few years!!
68
Q

__________ is indicated in patients with ventricular fibrillation (VF) and/or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT).

A

Early defibrillation

- It is ineffective in patients with asystole or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) and is contraindicated.

69
Q

________ is the most common cause of secondary dilated cardiomyopathy, and evaluation with _________ should be performed in all patients presenting with unexplained heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction

A

Coronary artery disease: is the most common cause of secondary dilated cardiomyopathy, and evaluation with stress testing or coronary angiography should be performed in all patients presenting with unexplained heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction

70
Q

Cardiogenic syncope due to ventricular tachycardia is suggested by ___________.
What is concerning about these pts? What should you do when you see these pts?

A

the abrupt onset of syncope without prodrome and the presence of underlying structural heart disease.

  • These patients are at risk of sudden cardiac death and require definitive evaluation and management.
  • The presence of underlying structural heart disease (eg, ischemic scarring, cardiomyopathy with low ejection fraction) specifically suggests cardiogenic syncope due to VT.
  • Admit to the hospital to undergo telemetry monitoring (to attempt to detect arrhythmia) and echocardiography (to evaluate left ventricular function and identify wall motion abnormality).
71
Q

___________ is the most important modifiable risk factor and has been associated with the highest rate of aneurysm expansion and rupture.

A

Current cigarette smoking

- weak association with hypertension

72
Q

Primary percutaneous coronary intervention is recommended within ____ minutes of the first medical contact in patients with STEMI.

A

90 minutes

73
Q

most common cause of mitral stenosis is ___________.

  • How do pts present?
  • Sound?
A

Rheumatic heart disease, with symptoms presenting 10-20 years after initial rheumatic fever.

  • Patients often experience dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
  • Cardiac auscultation shows loud first heart sound (S1) and mid-diastolic rumble best heard at the cardiac apex.
74
Q

Pt is <30, in severe HTN, resistant to 2 medications

- Diagnostic?

A

Suspect secondary HTN
- Renovascular HTN #1 most common cause

Dx: MRA, CTA, or Doppler US