Cardiovascular System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the 1st line management of Ventricular Tachycardia?

A

1st line- Amiodarone

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2
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for Brugada Syndrome?

A

1st line investigation- sodium challenge test

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3
Q

What is the 1st line management of Brugada Syndrome?

A

Management:

1st line- ICD

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4
Q

Long QT Syndrome:
a) What is the 1st line management?
b) What is the definitive management?

A

Long QT syndrome

1st line- beta blocker

definitive- ICD

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5
Q

What are the main X2 types of HF, and what causes them?

A

Reduced Ejection Fraction HF- this is when the heart does not contractt forceful enough during systole

Preserved Ejection Fraction HF:
The left ventricle is too stiff, so less blood fills overall resulting in reduced ejection fraction

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6
Q

What Classification system is used in HF?

A

NYHA classification

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7
Q

What are the abbreviations used for the management of these conditions?
a) Asthma Attack
b) COPD exacerbation
c) NSTEMI
d) HF

A

a) O SHIT MAN
b) ISOAP
c) BATMAN
d) LMNOP

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8
Q

What is the management of HF?

(*use abbreviation)

A

LMNOP
l-loop diuretic (furosemide)
m-morphine
n-nitrates
o-oxygen
-p-position (sit patient upwards, avoid lying on back)(

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9
Q

What is the acute management of Atrial Fibrillation?

A

Acute:

1st line- DC Cardioversion +/- Amiodarone

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10
Q

What is the long term management of Atrial Fibrillation?
a) long term
b) anti-coagulation therapy

A

1st line- beta blocker
2nd line- CCB

Anti-coagulation therapy
1st line- DOAC
2nd line- LMWH
(*SAME AS DVT/PE)

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11
Q

What is the management of Ventricular Tachycardia?
a) with pulse
b) pulseless

A

Acute:
1st line- IV Amiodarone

Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia:
1st line- DC Cardioversion (shockable rhythm)

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12
Q

What is the management of Supra-Ventricular Tachycardia? (SVT)
(*spa)

A

1st line- valsalva manouver
2nd line- carotid sinus massage (s-spa)
3rd line- IV adenosine 6mg bolus > 12mg> 18mg

alternative if asthmatic
verapamil

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13
Q

What is the dosage of Adenosine in the management of SVT?

A

Dosage of Adenosine:

rd line- IV adenosine(6mg)- then 12 mg > 18mg

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14
Q

What is the alternative to adenosine in SVT when a patient is asthmatic?

A

asthmatic- verapamil

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15
Q

What is Malignant Hypertension?

A

acute rise in blood pressure defined as systolic >180 and diastolic >120

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16
Q

Infective Endocarditis
a) what is the 1st line investigation
b) what is the 1st line imaging?

A

1st line test- x3 sets of blood cultures (against Dukes Criteria)

1st line imaging- echocardiogram

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17
Q

What is GRACE score used for?

A

-determines short and long term risk in ACS

if >3% in an NSTEMI this indicates a coronary angiogram within 72hrs of admission

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18
Q

What GRACE score (%) in an NSTEMI indicates a coronary angiogram must be performed?

A

if >3% in an NSTEMI this indicates a coronary angiogram within 72hrs of admission

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19
Q

What is the management of an NSTEMI?

(*BATMAN)

A

BATMAN

  • Base whether angiography should be carried out within 72hrs on the GRACE score is >3%
  • Aspirin 300mg stat
  • Ticagreor
  • morphine
  • anti-thrombin
  • nitrates (GTN)
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20
Q
A
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21
Q

Where anatomically is a PCI carried out?

A

-radial access

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22
Q

What is Dresslers Syndrome and what are its clinical features?

A

This is a type of pericarditis (same clinical features) that occurs 4-6 weeks post MI

-better leaning forward, saddle ST elevation on an ECG

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23
Q

What is the main chamber effected in Chronic HF?

A

main chamber effected- left ventricle

24
Q

Heart Failure:
a) what is the 1st line investigation?
b) what is the preferred imaging option?

A

Heart failure investigations:

1st line- BNP

2nd line -echocardiogram

25
Q

What is the mutation in Long QT syndrome?

A

-base change in an exon nonsense mutation forming a premature stop codon

26
Q

What is the genetic mutation in sickle cell syndrome?

A

Genetic - point mutation in codon 6 of the β globin gene that substitutes glutamine to valine producing βS

27
Q

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
a) What is the 1st line management
b) what is the definitive management

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
1st line- beta blockers
definitive- ICD

28
Q

What function is mainly impaired in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

reduced diastolic function

29
Q

What is Frank Sterling Law?

A

Frank Sterling Law:
* relationship between stroke volume and end diastolic volume

30
Q

What does J waves indicate?

A

-eat JELLYBABIES when hypothermic

-hypothermia

31
Q

What medications are known to reduce the mortality rates of HF?

(*must know! in MLA exam last year)

A

(beta blockers)-carvedilol and bisoprolol

32
Q

What are the X4 main types of Syncope?

A

-reflex
-orthostatic hypotension
-carotid sinus reflex
-cardiac syncope

33
Q

What is reflex syncope?

A

reflex- brief loss of consicousness due to a neurologically induced drop in blood pressure

34
Q

What is Carotid Sinus Reflex?

A

activation of the baro-recpetors in the neck due to exertion of pressure- e.g tight collars or shaving

35
Q

What is the main triad of symptoms in cor pulmonale?

A

pulmonary oedema
elevated JVP
hepatosplenomegaly- inc pressure on the hepatic vein

36
Q

What vessel layer is damaged in:

  • aortic dissection
  • AAA
A

What vessel layer is damaged in:

  • aortic dissection- tunica intima
  • AAA- tunica media
37
Q

what condition is associated with:
Different blood pressure measurements in each arm, and tearing chest pain radiating to the back is associated with?

A

Aortic Dissection

38
Q

What are the X2 main types of aortic dissection and associated symptom?
b) what part of the aorta is damaged?

A
  • Aortic Dissection type A (*More common- ascending aorta- common ascend in life-chest pain
  • Aortic Dissection type B (*less common in descending aorta)- back pain
39
Q

What is the ‘diagnostic’ investigation for Aortic Dissection?

A

Diagnostic Investigation = CT angiography (*false lumen is the positive finding)

40
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for suspected AAA?
B) what is the gold standard diagnostic investigation?

(***same gold standard as aortic dissection)

A

a) US
b) gold standard diagnostic- CT Angiogram

41
Q

What isBoerhaaves Syndrome?

A
  • spontaneous rupture of the full layers of oesophagus due to repeated episodes of vomiting
  • associated with alcoholics
  • bloody vomiting
  • more severe than mallory weiss tear, malory weiss is NOT Painful only superficial tea
42
Q

What is the main area damaged in Boerhaaves Syndrome?

(*Must know- very painful full rupture)

A
  • usuallyDISTAL aorta
43
Q

What is the diagnostic investigation for boerhaaves Syndrome?

A
  • Diagnostic Investigation > CT contrast Swallow (*as associated with vomiting and rupture of oesophagus)
44
Q

What function is reduced in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

-diastolic function is reduces- reduced filling of blood in the heart

45
Q

How long does medication need to be given for a PE?
a) unprovoked
b) provoked

A

a) unprovoked - 6 months
b) provoked (e.g plane, in hospital )- 3 months

46
Q

Prosthetic heart valves/metallic - mechanical valves requires what anti-coagulation?

47
Q

What is the main antibiotic that causes Long QT Syndrome?

A

erythromycin

(*other meds- citalopram and haloperidol triggers it)

48
Q

QRS complex (> 120 ms) means what leads should be looked at?

A

V1 and V6- bundle branch block

Right- MarroW
Left- William

49
Q

Absent radial pulse in one arm indicates?

A

Takyasu

(*also has different blood pressure in each arm)

(*Aortic dissection also presents with different blood pressures in each arm)

50
Q

How do you calculate CHA2DS2-VASc?

a) What do the scores mean and when should an anti-coagulant be started?

A

Risk factor Points
C Congestive heart failure 1
H Hypertension (or treated hypertension) 1

A2 Age >= 75 years 2

Age 65-74 years 1

D Diabetes 1

S2 Prior Stroke, TIA or thromboembolism 2

V Vascular disease (including ischaemic heart disease and peripheral arterial disease) 1

S Sex (female) 1

> 2- male means anti-coagulate, if woman do not
3- females and males- start anti-coagulant

51
Q

Electrical alternans is associated with?

A

Cardiac Tamponade

52
Q

What is the most common heart valve effected in infective endocarditis?
b) most common valve effected in iV drug users?

A

most common- mitral valve (m-most common)
IV drug user- tricuspid

53
Q

What blood vessel is most likely to be effected in an MI?

A

right coronary artery

54
Q

> 55 years old or afro-carribean is given CCB
b) what is the add on treatment if hypertension is uncontrolled

A

C + A or C + D

(ACEI/ARB or diuretic added)