Cardiovascular System Flashcards

1
Q

What is arrhythmia?

A

Abnormal rhythm and rate
Due to problems with the electrical conducting system of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Symptoms of arrhythmias

A

Palpitations
Abnormally fast, slow or irregular pulse
Dizziness or feeling faint
Shortness of breath
Chest pain which sometimes develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What can cause arrhythmias?

A

May occur as complications of heart conditions
Coronary heart disease
Heart valve disease
Hypertension
Ageing
Cardiomyopathy (disorder of the heart muscle)
Congenital (from birth) abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Different types of arrhythmias?

A

Ectopic beat
AF (main one for the exam)
Paroxysmal AF
Atrial flutter
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia
Supra ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment of arrhythmias?

A

Medication
Cardio version
Artificial pacemakers
Implantable cardioverter defibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aims of treatment of arrhythmias?

A

Reduce symptoms
Prevent complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What risk calculators are needed for AF?

A

Stroke risk
Bleeding risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is stroke risk calculated?

A

CHA2DS2-VASc
Risk factors; CHF, hypertension, Age (75+ 2 points 65-74 is 1), Diabeties, stroke/TIA/VTE , vascular disease, sex (female is 1)
Low risk = men score of 0 and women with score 1
Higher points would require treatment with anticoagulation as long as risk > than risk of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is bleeding risk calculated?

A

Has bled tool replaced by ORBIT
Score of 0-7
Factors; males with HBA1C <130 g/L or females <120, prior history of bleeding, age > 74, EGFR <60 mL/min/1.73m2 and taking anti platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is torsade de pointes?

A

Prolonged QT interval
Self limiting
Can lead to ventricular fibrillation
Treat IV Mg sulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What drugs are used in rate control?

A

Beta blockers (NOT sotalol)
Verapamil
Diltiazem (unlicensed)
Drug treatment usually mono-therapy but combine if mono-therapy fails
Digoxin only considered for initial rate control with non paroxysmal AF with predominantly sedentary or others is unsuitable, accompanied by HF and AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Drugs used for rhythm control after cardioversion?

A

1st line is Beta blockers
If not
Flecanide
Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When to avoid flecanine

A

Avoid if also have isachaemic or structural heart disease, HF etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How to treat supraventricular arrhythmias?

A

Verapamil, adenosine and cardiac glycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How to treat ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Lidocaine and sotalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How to treat supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias ?

A

Amiodarone and beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is digoxin?

A

Cardiac glycoside
Increases force of myocardial contraction and reduces conductivity in a the atrio ventricular node
Useful in controlling AF, atrial flutter and HF (for pts with sinus rhythm)
Has a long half life maintenance dose around 125-250 mcg)
Dose dependent on renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the therapeutic range of digoxin?

A

0.7 to 2.0 nano grams / mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is toxicity level of digoxin?

A

1.5 to 3
Toxicity can occur within normal range (0.7 - 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Contraindications for digoxin?

A

Ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation
Heart conduction problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Signs of digoxin toxicity?

A

Arrhythmias
Cardiac conduction disorder
Diarrhoea
Dizziness
Nausea and vomiting
Skin reactions
Vision disorders (yellow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Risk factors of digitalis toxicity?

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Hypoxia
Special care in elderly; more susceptible to digitalis reduce dose as they have poor reduced kidney function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Interactions with digoxin

A

CCB (increase concentration)
Rifampicin (decrease concentration)
Amiodarone (half the digoxin dose)
St John’s wart (decrease concentration)
Erythromycin
Diuretics
TCS, venlaflaxine, TCA, venlafaxine, trazadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens if digoxin toxicity occurs?

A

Withdraw digoxin
Serious manifestations require urgent specialist care
Life threatening overdose - reverse with digoxin specific antibody fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Monitoring requirements for digoxin?

A

Plasma- digoxin concentration
Serum electrolytes
Renal function (reduce dose in renal impairment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tranexamic Acid

A

Inhibits fibrinolysis (prevents you from bleeding)
Prevents bleeding (e.g surgery, dental extraction)
Management of menorrhagia ( 1 g TDS for up to 4 days)
Used in hereditary angioedema, epistaxis and thrombocytes overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Two types of venous thromboembolism?

A

DVT clot in body usually the legs
PE blockage of artery in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis

A

All patients admitted to hospital need to be assessed for their risk of VT on admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who are high risk for VT?

A

Substantial reduction in mobility
Obesity >30 BMI
Malignant disease
Hx of VT
Thrombophilic disorder
Patient over 60 years
Pregnancy / co-morbidities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mechanical prophylaxis for venous thromboembolism?

A

Anti embolism stockings
Continue until patients is mobile
Move around and raise legs etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pharmacological PROPHYLAXIS for venous thromboembolism?

A

Undergoing general orthopaedic surgery who are at high risk
Choice depends on type of surgery
Stop depends on condition / surgery or when patient mobile again (no fixed time)
LMWH suitable for all types of patients e.g dalteparin, tinzaparin and enoxaparin
Fondaparinux sodium to patients undergoing (hip/knee replacement surgery, hip fracture, GI bariatic)
Oral anticoagulation for thromboprophylaxis following knee / hip surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment for Venous thromboembolism?

A

Use LMWH (enoxaparin, dalteparin and tinzaparin) for initial treatment of DVT and PE
Give IV unfractionated heparin as alternative
Start oral anticoagulant (usually warfarin) at same time as LMWH or unfractionated heparin; once out of hospital continue oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Venous thromboembolism in pregnancy

A

Heparins don’t cross the placenta
LMWH preferred (lower risk of osteoporosis and of heparin induced thrombocytopenia) and are eliminated more rapidly in pregnancy, dose alteration is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are LMWH?

A

Dalteparin
Tinzaparin
Enoxaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is common side effect of LMWH?

A

Haemorrhage - Withdraw heparin or LMWH if this occurs
Osteoporosis
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (can manifest 5 to 10 days after)
Hyperkalaemia; heparin inhibits aldosterone secretion, high risk DM and CKD monitor 7+ day use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is reversal agents for LMWH?

A

Promoting sulphate
Partial reversal agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

3 types of strokes

A

Transient ischaemic stroke (TIA); aka mini stroke <24 h
Intracerebral haemorrhage
Acute isachaemic stroke (full blown stroke) >24 H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Signs of stroke

A

Face dropped
Arm weakness
Speech slurred
Time (999)
F.A.S.T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

TIA treatment

A

300 mg Aspirin daily OR alternatively 75 mg clopidogrel immediately until established diagnosis
Once diagnosed;
Secondary prevention; High intensity statin if not already taking
Symptoms usually resolve within minutes or a few hours at most if not = STROKE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Short term treatment of Acute Isachaemic stroke?

A

Timing important;
Alteplase within 4.5 hours from onset of symptoms
300 mg Aspirin or clopidogrel given 24 hours after alteplase for 14 days
Anticoagulants not recommended except for patients with AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Long term management for isachaemic stroke?

A

Clopidogrel
MR dipyridamole 200 mg and aspirin IF clopidogrel is CI
MR dipyridamole alone IF aspirin and clopidogrel is CI
Aspirin alone IF clopidogrel and dipyridamole is CI
High intensity statin treatment 48 hours after
Monitor BP target for <130/80 mmHg
Advice patients on lifestyle changes (modify diet, exercise, weight alcohol intake, smoking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Intracerebral haemorrhage treatment

A

Surgery to remove haematoma and relieve intracranial pressure
DONT GIVE ANTICOAGULANTS - reverse effects expect for pts DVT/PE not given even in AF patients
Avoid statins unless CV event outweighs risk of haemorrhage
Aspirin only given with patients of cardiac isachaemic event
BP measured and treatment initiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are anticoagulants used for?

A

Prevent thrombus formation in veins
Examples. Warfarin, acenococoumarol and phenindione
Antagonise vitamin K
Takes at least 48 to 72 hours to get the full effect (oral)
Injections give a immediate effect e.g give heparins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pregnancy and warfarin

A

Teratogenic
Cross the placenta leading to foetal abnormalities
Avoid esp in the 1st and 3rd trimester and last few weeks of pregnancy as delivery as increase in bleeding risk
Risk of haemorrhage increased by vitamin K deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Interactions with warfarin?

A

Increase warfarin; miconazole, antifungals, benzafibrate, amiodarone, cranberry juice, pomegranate, greeny fruit and veg
Increases bleeding risk; antidepressants, aspirin
Decreases warfarin; carbamazepine, alcohol, St John’s wart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MHRA warnings with warfarin?

A

Risk interactions with treatment of hepatitis C- closely monitor INR
Calciphylaxis - rare skin rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Warfarin target value INR 2.5 for?

A

Treatment of DVT and PE
AF
Cardioversion
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Warfarin INR target value of 3.5 ?

A

Recurrent DVT and PE or mechanical prosthetic heart valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a target value?

A

Target the INR should be rather than a given range
INR measured can be 0.5 above and below the target value if more = adjustment is required from the dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Warfarin advantages and disadvantages?

A

+ can be used renal impairment patients
+ effects are reversible
- regular INR testing
- lots food and drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Warfarin main side effects

A

Nose bleeds; < 10 mins is normal
Haemorrhage
Bleeding gums
Bruising
Caliphylaxisl report painful skin rash = risk factor end stage renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When to stop warfarin

A

Bleeding OR if INR is >8; stop warfarin and give vitamin K by IV (restart INR <5)
No bleeding and INR >8; stop warfarin and given vitamin K orally (restart INR <5)
No bleeding and INR 5-8; withold one or two doses and reduce subsequent maintenance doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Peri operative anticoagulants

A

Stop warfarin 5 days before elective (planned) surgery
High risk patients of VT stopping warfarin before surgery maybe given LMWH which is stopped 24 hours before surgery
Emergency surgery which can be delayed 6-12 hours give IV vitamin k
If surgery cant be delayed give vitamin K and prothrombin complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Anticoagulant and antiplatelet therapy?

A

Higher risk of bleeding with clopidogrel and warfarin than aspirin and warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Heparin

A

Short duration of action compared LMWH
‘Standard’ - unfractionated
Used for high risk patients as its effects are shorter; but this means more doses
Can be used in pregnancy doesn’t cross the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

LMWH examples

A

Dalteparin, enoxaparin and tinzaparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

LMWH used?

A

Used prophylaxis and treatment of DVT, PE and MI
Preferred over heparin; effective and lower risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Doesn’t require monitoring
Longer duration of action then heparins can be given OD s/c = convenient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Antiplatelets used for?

A

aspirin, clopidogrel and dipyridamole
Decrease platelet aggregation and inhibit thrombus formation in the arterial circulation
No benefit for primary prevention only secondary
PPI given for patients high risk of bleeding (over 65+, NSAIDs etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Rivaroxaban

A

MHRA alert; strengths 15 mg+ to be taken with food
Prophylaxis of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with non-valvular AF with at least 2 of the following risk factors;
CHF, hypertension, previous stroke/TIA, age > 75 or DM
S/e; anaemia, constipation, diarrhoea, dizziness, headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Apixaban

A

Reduced to 2.5 BD for prophylaxis of stroke due to non-valvular AF with at least 2 of the following;
Age (80+), Body weight (less 60) CrCl (greater 133) Otherwise 5 mg is standard dose
S/e; anaemia, haemorrhage, nausea and skin reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Edoxaban

A

Prophylaxis of stroke and systemic embolism in non-valvular AF, in patients with at least one risk factor such as CHF, hypertention, age 75+, DM, previous stroke or TIA
30 mg OD body weight up to 61 kg OR 60kg and above
S/e abdominal pain, anaemia, dizziness, haemorrhage, headache, nausea, skin reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Dabigatran etexilate

A

Avoid CrCl less 30 mL/min ; assess renal function before at least annually
Prophylaxis of stroke and systemic embolism in non-valvular AF and with one or more risk factors such as previous stroke or TIA symptomatic HF, age 75+, DM or hypertention
Special container 4 months expiry
S/E; anaemia, diarrhoea, GI discomfort, haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Reversal agents for DOACS

A

Apixaban and rivaroxaban; Andexanet Alfa (ondexxya)
Dapigatran etexilate; idarucizumab (praxbind)
Edoxaban has no reversal agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Dabigatran, apixaban and rivoroxaban

A

Direct thrombin inhibitors (factor Xa)
Rapid onset of action
Prophylaxis VTE in adults after hip/knee surgery and prophylaxis of stroke and systemic embolism
FBC, LFT and U&E recommended annually if not renal impairment (more U&E if renal impairment)
Limited by renal impairment
Monitor signs; bleeding, anaemia, stop if severe bleeding occurs
Common s/e haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What patients are high risk of developing hyperlipidaemia?

A

Diabeties
Chronic kidney disease
Familial hypercholestrolaemia
Risk increases with age (>85 years at high risk esp if smoke/hypertention)
10 year risk of CVD >10%
Drugs; antipsychotics, immunosuppressants, corticosteroids, antimalarials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

CVD measures for primary prevention

A

Provide lifestyle advice to all patients at high risk; diet, exercise, weight management
If above not effective give statins as first line choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

CVD measures for secondary prevention

A

Offer statins to ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Statins for CVD

A

Statins reduce the risk of CVD
1st drug of choice in primary and secondary prevention CVD
Address secondary causes of dyslipidaemia before starting statins (uncontrolled DM, hepatic disease, nephrotic syndrome and excessive alcohol consumption)
Correcting hypothyroidism may resolve lipid abnormality (treat patients itch hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement first)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is a high intensity statin?

A

Atorvastatin; 20 mg, 40 mg and 80 mg
Rosuvastatin; 10 mg, 20 mg and 40 mg
Simvastatin; 80 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Primary prevention for statins for CVD

A

Give high intensity statin for 10 year risk >10%
High intensity statin is one that produces a greater LDL-cholesterol reduction than simvastatin 40 mg (or = greater atorvastatin 20 mg)
Patients over 35 years help reduce risk of non fatal MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Secondary prevention with statin for CVD

A

Atorvastatin 80 mg recommended
Give statins to all patients with type I diabeties (esp those > 40 years and have diabeties for over 10 years, established nephropathy or other risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Statin and blood test

A

Total cholesterol
HDL cholesterol
Non HDL cholesterol
3 months after starting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Types of cholesterol

A

Total cholesterol; total cholesterol in your blood (5 or below)
HDL; good cholesterol (1/+)
LDL or non-HDL; bad cholesterol (3 or below for LDL and 4 or below for non HDL)
Triglycerides; 2.3 or below (fat lipids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Diagnosis for hyperlipidaemia

A

6 mmol/L total cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Treatment lines for high lipids?

A

First line statins
Second line is ezetimbe (if statin not effective or CI)
Fenofibrate maybe added to statin if triglyceride is high (SPECIALIS USE NOW)
Then consider nicotine acids, bile and sequestration and omega 3 fatty acid compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Statin and fibrate interaction

A

Statin + fibrate (or nicotine acid) increase risk of s/e; rhabdomylosis
Especially statin + gemfibrozil (fibrate) increase rhabdomylosis considerably

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which statins can be taken at any time during the day?

A

Rosuvastatin and atorvastatin

78
Q

Statins and pregnancy

A

Adequate contraception is required during treatment and 1 month after
Avoided in pregnancy
Discontinue 3 months before conceiving attempt
Congenital abnormalities and the decrease synthesis of cholesterol can possibly affect foetal development

79
Q

Statin monitoring requirements

A

Full lipid profile and LFT before treatment, at 3 months and then 12 months
Creatinine kinase only for patients with unexplained muscle pain; if results are x5 normal range = discontinue and reintroduce if still high stop
Monitor liver function
Address any secondary causes first

80
Q

Can you use statins in hepatic impairment?

A

Use in caution in those with liver disease
Avoid in active liver disease or unexplained elevations in serum transaminase

81
Q

Side effects of statins

A

Muscle toxicity (higher risk; family hx, high alcohol intake, renal impairment) more likely in high doses
Pt to report any unexplained muscle pain, tenderness or weakness
Simvastatin 80 mg MHRA; Rhabdomylosis

82
Q

Simvastatin dose

A

10-20 mg at night (increase to 80 mg) primary hypercholestolaemia
40 mg at night (can increase to 80 mg) homozygous familial hypercholestolaemia
20 - 40 mg at night increases prevention CV events in patient in DM or otherosclerotic CVD
MAX 10 mg with fibronates

83
Q

Atorvastatin dose

A

Primary prevention in CV events in patients with high risk CV events; 20 mg OD dose interval increase 4 weeks if necessary to 80 mg
Secondary prevention CV event 80 mg daily
Primary hypercholesterolaemia / heterozygous familial hypercholestalaemia 10 mg initially
Max 10 mg with Ciclosporin

84
Q

Rosuvastatin dose

A

Consider routine monitoring of renal function when using 40 mg daily
5 mg initially up to max 20 mg with clopidogrel

85
Q

Simvastatin MHRA warning

A

Max dose 20 mg with
Amlodopine, verapamil and amiodarone
Higher doses are off license

86
Q

Statin drug interactions

A

Carbamazepine; increase the risk of hepatotoxicity
Clarithryomycin / erythromycin; increase exposure to simvastatin so stop whilst on treatment
Grapefruit juice increases exposure and ketoconazole and miconazole
Oral fusidic acid must be restated after 7 days of last dose

87
Q

P450 inhibitors

A

Sodium valproate, Isonaside, Cimetidine, Ketoconazole, Fluconazole, Alchohol, Chlorepteniol, Erythromycin . Ciprofoxacin, Omeprzole Metronidazole
SICKFACE.COM

88
Q

P450 inducers

A

Carbamezapine, Rifampicin, Alcohol, Phenytoin, Grisefluvin Phenobarbital Sulphonylurea
CRAP GPS

89
Q

What is heart failure?

A

Heart isn’t functioning as well as it should; not working at its maximum capacity
Acute
Chronic

90
Q

What is Acute HF?

A

Sudden
Emergency - hospital admission required

91
Q

What is Chronic HF?

A

Progressive
Slow onset and gradual
Can worsen and turn to acute

92
Q

What is ejection volume?

A

How much blood the heart manages to pump out with each heart beat

93
Q

Symptoms of HF

A

Breathlessness; may occur when you exert yourself, lay flat / wake up from sleep
Fluid retention; swollen ankles, swelling of legs, bottom or tummy
Lethargic
Persistent cough / wheezing
Light headed or dizzy or having faint spells
Loss of appetite
Constipation
Reduced exercise tolerance
Risk greater in men, smokers, diabetics and patients with higher age

94
Q

What causes HF?

A

Coronary heart disease; most common cause especially after MI
Cardiomyopathy; disease of the heart muscle not pumping effectively
Hypertension esp in Afro-Caribbean origin
Disease of the heart valves
Arrhythmias
Medicine that can damage the heart; cocaine, some chemo, excess alcohol
Non-Heart related issues; thyroidism, severe anemia

95
Q

Lifestyle advice for HF patients

A

Diet
Exercise
Smoking cessation
Alcohol intake

96
Q

Diagnosis for HF?

A

Physical; echocardiogram, fast pulse, signs of fluid retention
Blood tests; high NT-proBNP
Other tests; ECG, chest X-ray, urine, spirometer, breathing tests

97
Q

New York classification HF

A

1) No symptoms normal during activities
2) comfortable at rest but symptoms at normal activities
3) comfortable at rest but symptoms at minor activity
4) discomfort at rest and at any level of activity

98
Q

What is the main HF aims?

A

Relieve symptoms
Improve exercise tolerance
Reduce exacerbations

99
Q

What is drug treatment for HF?

A

1) Offer diuretics for congestive symptoms and fluid retention (often loop); relieves breathlessness, oedema and fluid retention. Furosemide first choice followed by bumetinide or TLD if not worked
2) If HF with PRESERVED ejection fraction manage co-morbidities and offer cardiac rehab if stable
2) HF with REDUCED ejection fraction give ACEi/ARB and BB
3) if symptoms continue would give aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone or eplerone
4) If symptoms not helping SPECIALIST CARE (digoxin, hydralazine, ivabradine and nitrates would be initiated)

100
Q

What ACEi/ARB is used in HF?

A

Valsartan or candersartan

101
Q

What beta blockers are used in HF?

A

Bisoprolol, carvidiol, nebivolol

102
Q

What class of drugs should be avoided in HF?

A

CCB need to be avoided
E.g verapamil / diltiazem and short acting dihydropyridlines e.g nifedipine and nicardipine as they reduce cardiac contractility

103
Q

What are the three types of Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)?

A

Unstable angina
NSTEMI ; non-ST elevated MI
STEMI; ST elevated MI

104
Q

Angina VS MI?

A

Angina is a partial block of blood into the heart
MI is a complete block so no blood is getting to the heart muscles so they begin to die

105
Q

What causes ACS?

A

Plaque ruptures from within the coronary artery
Obstruction causes restriction of blood supply to the heart and lack of oxygen leads to isachaemic; angina is often first signs

106
Q

STEMI Vs NSTEMI

A

STEMI; more serious; elevated ECG caused complete obstruction and cardiac cell muscles die

NSTEMI; partial block heart attack in between angina and STEMI; some cells die some are ok

107
Q

Symptoms of angina

A

Chest pain (tight, sharp stabbing, dull, heavy)
Spread to L arm, neck, jaw or back
Triggered by physical exertion or stress
Stops within a few minutes of resting
Nause
Fatigue
SOB
Dizziness
Sweating

108
Q

Stable angina VS unstable angina

A

Stable angina is predictable; symptoms occur during exercise/activity/stress and stop on rest
Unstable angina is unpredictable; occurs chest pain while resting pain last longer / more recurring and revere

109
Q

Management of unstable angina and NSTEMI

A

1) OXYGEN is initial management
2) administer NITRATES if evidence of hypoxia, pulmonary oedema or continuing MI; to relieve isachaemic pain, give IV if sublingual not effective, if pain continues IV diamorphine or morphine or antiemetic
3) aspirin and clopidogrel (ticagrelor or prasugrel as alternative)
4) unfractionated heparin, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium

110
Q

Prevention of CV events

A

Advise to reduce risk
Lifestyle changes e.g stop smoking, weight loss, management other co-morbidities
Long term management; consider statins, ACEi, aspirin, beta blockers

111
Q

Angina prophylaxis

A

BB or CCB (e.g diltiazem, verapamil)
Vasodilators; long acting nitrates, ivabradine, ranolazine
Nicorandil

112
Q

Nicorandil

A

MHRA; 2nd line risk of ulcer complications
Caution; diverticula’s disease., HF, hyperkalaemia
S/e; dizziness, haemorrhage, headache, nausea
For long term angina treatment
K channel activator with nitrate compound

113
Q

Nitrates

A

For angina
Coronary vasodilators but principle benefit is a reduction in venous return which reduces left ventricular work
S/E; flushing, headaches and postural hypotension

114
Q

Types of nitrates

A

Sublingual GTN most effective providing rapid symptom relief
Tablet 300 mcg (P med) also available as 500 and 600 mcg
Aerosol spray as an alternative for S/L
Transdermal patches can also be used have a long duration of action
Dinitrate MR preparations and mononitrate MR preparations

115
Q

Dinitrate MR preparations

A

BD duration for 12 hours
Not seen as much anymore
Slow onset of action
IV used more severe symptoms
Dinitrate is broken down to mononitrate therefore activity depends production of active metabolite

116
Q

Mononitrate MR preparations

A

OD
Angina prophylaxis
IM up to 2-3 times a day
Less tolerance as if OD than BD/TDS

117
Q

Nitrate tolerance

A

Need to keep a nitrate free period for 6-8 hours to prevent tolerance
Pt on long acting or transdermal patches; develop tolerance (decreases therapeutic effect) if tolerance occurs = leave off patch for 8-12 hours in each 24 hours then put back on

118
Q

Caution or further information nitrate

A

Don’t give conventional IR preps mononitrate; give MR OD to avoid tolerance, more than BD unless small doses
Avoid abrupt withdrawal
In case Dinitrate MR or conventional mononitrate second dose of BD should be given 8 hours after rather than 12 hours

119
Q

GTN tablet dispensing and storage requirements

A

Available in strengths of 300, 500 and 600 mcg
Supplied in glass container of no more than 100
Closed with foil line cap
No cotton wool waddling
Discard after 8 weeks
Rectal ointment (rectogesic) should be discarded 8 weeks after opening

120
Q

How to measure hypertention?

A

Home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM); standard machine
Within a clinical setting
Ambulatory 24 hour monitoring (ABPM); monitors automatically for the day

121
Q

What are the risk factors for hypertension?

A

Main cause is unknown
Age, ethnicity, dietary salt, exercise, alcohol, caffeine, smoking
Secondary causes renal disease and endocrine causes

122
Q

Which organs are ‘target organ damage’?

A

Heart
Brain
Kidney
Eye

123
Q

What is the normal blood pressure reading?

A

120/80 mmHg

124
Q

Stages of hypertension

A

Stage 1; clinic BP >140 / 90 OR ambulatory/home reading >135/85
Stage 2; clinic BP > 160/100 OR ambulatory/home reading >150/95
Severe hypertention clinic systolic >180 OR ambulatory/home reading >110

125
Q

What to do if high reading in clinic?

A

Offer ambulatory blood pressure monitor to confirm hypertension diagnosis
Meanwhile; test for CV risk assessment, investigate target organ damage

126
Q

What happens if hypertension is diagnosed?

A

Offer urine/blood test
Lifestyle intervention
Drug treatment

127
Q

Stage 1 hypertention

A

Investigate for secondary causes of hypertension
Pts with persistent stage 1 with one/+; target organ damage, established CVD, renal disease, diabeties
Clinic BP >140/90 or ambulatory/home >135/85

128
Q

Stage 2 hypertention

A

Treat all regardless of age
Clinic BP >160/100 or amublatory/home >150/95

129
Q

Severe hypertention

A

Treat promptly with IV antihypertensive
Clinic systolic >180 mmHg or clinic diastolic >110

130
Q

What is first line treatment for hypertention?

A

ACEi/ ARB if patient is diabetic or under 55 and not of Afro-Carribean
CCB if patient is Afro-Caribbean or over the Agee 55+

131
Q

What is 2nd and 3rd step intervention for hypertention?

A

ACEi/ARB + CCB
OR
CCB + thiazide like diuretic
OR
ACEi/ARB + thiazide like diuretic
Thirst step; is all 3 together

132
Q

Hypertension and HF patients

A

Don’t give CCB as it will make HF worse need to avoid
Give ARBs or thiazide like diuretics

133
Q

What is the 4th step stage for hypertention treatment?

A

Confirm resistant hypertention; confirm elevated BP with Ambuatory home blood pressure monitor
Consider expert advice on adding;
Low dose spironolactone if blood pottasoum is <4.5
Alpha blocker or BB if blood potassium is >4.5

134
Q

Target clinic BP for hypertension in diabetics?

A

Target clinic of <140 / 80
OR
<130 / 80 if kidney, eye or cerebrovascular disease present
ACEi/ARB to manage nephropathy

135
Q

Hypertension in pregnancy

A

ACEi / ARBs / thiazide like diuretics; increase congenital abnormalities
1) first choice is lobetalol to achieve BP <138/85
2) if unsuitable consider nifedipine MR (unlicensed manufacture avoid pre 20 weeks)
3) Methyldopa (unlicensed) to discontinue 2 days after birth and switch to alternative
Methyldopa and lobetalol are the safest
Review bp 2 weeks after birth and medication review 6-8 weeks

136
Q

Breast feeding and hypertention

A

Enalapril
Treat hypertention in post natal period
For black afro give amlodipine/ nifedipine

137
Q

BB mechanism of action

A

Block beta adrenoceptors in the heart, bronchi, pancreas, liver and peripheral vasculature
Slow the heat
B1 receptors in the heart
B2 receptors in the lungs

138
Q

ISA activity BB

A

ICE PACO
Pindolol, Acebutolol, Celiprolol, Oxprenolol
Causes less bradycardia and less coldness of extremities

139
Q

Soluble BB

A

WATER CANS
Celiprolol, Atenolol, Nadolol, Sotalol
Less likely to enter the brain
Causes less sleep disturbances and nightmares; used to treat these conditions
Excreted in the kidneys; decrease dose in impairment

140
Q

Cardioselective BB

A

BATMAN
Bisoprolol Atenolol T Metoprolol Acebutol Nebivolol
Less effects on airways, selective but not specific, higher affinity for B1 heart receptor

141
Q

Long duration BB

A

BACON
Bisoprolol Atenolol Celiprolol O Nadolol
Once daily preparations

142
Q

Sotalol

A

Rejected child
Non cardioselective
Causes bronchospasm
Not to be used for asthmatics

143
Q

Side effects for BB

A

Fatigue
Coldness of extremities (less common ISA)
Sleep disturbances (less common water soluble)
Bradycardia
Bronchospasm
Claudication
Vivid dreams
Diziness,

144
Q

Patient and carer advice for BB

A

Do not stop abruptly due to risk of worsening ischaemic heart disease

145
Q

Contraindication and caution with BB

A

ABCDE
Asthma
Block (heart); avoid unstable HF, 2/3rd degree heart block
COPD
Diabeties - avoid in patients with frequent episodes of hypoglycaemia as it masks symptoms
Electrolyte disturbances (hyperkaemia)

146
Q

Side effects BB in asthmatics

A

Precipitate bronchospasm
Can be given if asthma is well controlled
For co-existing conditions e,g HF or following MI; give cardioselective

147
Q

Are BB contra indicated in diabetics?

A

Caution in use
Affects carbohydrate metabolism
Avoid in patients with frequent hypoglycaemia episodes; can masks symptoms of hypoglycaemia e.g tachycardia

148
Q

BB uses

A

Hypertention - reduce cardiac output
Angina - improve exercise tolerance and angina
MI - reduce recurrence rate; atenolol metoprolol
Arrhythmias - esmolol sotalol
HF; only in stable HF Bisoprolol, carvediol, nebivolol
Anxiety, migraine or thyrotoxicosis give propranolol
Glaucoma give timolol

149
Q

BB and verapamil

A

AVOID
Precipitate HF or cause AV block
Risk hypotension and HF
Verapamil is highly negative ionotropic; slows heart rate
Is a CCB

150
Q

BB drug interactions

A

Aminophylline
Amiodarone
Diltiazem
Digoxin
Flecainide
Theophylline
Verapamil

151
Q

CCB classes

A

Dihydropyridines - act on blood vessels more peripherally e.g amlodipine, nifedipine, lercanidipine etc
Phenylaklyamines - work mainly heart e.g verapamil
Benzothiazepines - works in between both classes; both cardiac depressants and vasodilators effects e.g diltiazem

152
Q

How does CCB work

A

Blocking calcium entry into cells decreasing the contraction of smooth muscle which lines blood vessels

153
Q

Side effects of CCBs

A

Vasodilators effects
Diziness
Flushing
Headaches
Postural hypotension
GI disorders
Ankle swelling
Skin reactions

154
Q

Contraindications and cautions in CCB?

A

HF
Hepatic impairment; avoid nifedipine
Renal impairment

155
Q

Withdrawal of CCB

A

Sudden withdrawal may exacerbate angina

156
Q

Diltiazem prescribing and dispensing information

A

Different version of MR preparation contains more than 60 mg may not have same clinical effect
Prescribe by Brand

157
Q

Thiazide and related diuretics mechanism of action?

A

Works by reducing re absorption of electrolyse in the renal tubules main sodium and chloride
Used for hypertension and oedema

158
Q

How long do thiazide diuretics take to work?

A

Act within 1 to 2 hours
Effects lasts for 12 to 24 hours (longer duration than loop)

159
Q

Patient and carer advice for thiazide and related diuretics?

A

Give in the morning to avoid diuresis at night
Moderately potent
Be aware of postural hypotension ensure dose is taken in the morning
Elderly more susceptible to s/e so give lower initial dose
Adjust dose in response to renal function

160
Q

Adverse diuretic effects

A

Postural hypotension
HYPERglycaemia
HYPOkalaemia
HYPOnatraemia
HYPOmagnesaemia
HYPERcalcaemia
GI disturbances
Cardiac arrhythmias
Dizziness and headache

161
Q

Which diuretics have higher HYPOkalaemia risk?

A

Greater in thiazide than loop
Hypokalaemia in hepatic failure can lead to encephalopathy particularly in alcoholic cirrhosis

162
Q

What conditions can thiazides exacerbate?

A

Thiazide and related diuretics can exacerbate diabeties and gout

163
Q

Pregnancy and thiazide and related diuretics

A

Should not be used for gestational hypertention
Can cause; neonatal thrombocytopenia, bone marrow suppression, jaundice and electrolyte imbalances

164
Q

Hepatic and renal impairment in diuretics

A

Use with caution and avoid in severe liver disease
Ineffective in EGFR <30 and should be avoided

165
Q

Loop diuretics

A

E.g furosemide and bumetanide
Used in pulmonary oedema due to left ventricular failure and in CHF
Stronger than thiazides and can be used for resistant oedema
Can exacerbate diabeties
Work within 1 hour and last up to 6 hours

166
Q

Contra indications in loop diuretics

A

Renal failure
Severe hypokalaemia
Severe hyponatraemia
Liver cirrhosis

167
Q

Renal impairment and loop diuretics

A

High doses or rapid IV administration can cause tinnitis and deafness (ototoxicity)

168
Q

Thiazide and related diuretics interactions

A

Medications that lower blood pressure
Amisulpride
Amino and theophylline
NSAID
Amiodarone
Digoxin
TCAs
Lithium

169
Q

What drugs should be given with potassium sparing diuretics?

A

E.g of K sparing epelerone, spironolactone, amiloride etc
Potassium supplements = hyperkalaemia
ACEi = can cause severe hyperkalaemia

170
Q

Mannitol

A

Osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral oedema and raised IOP

171
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Weak diuretic
Used for motion sickness prophylaxis

172
Q

Dorzolomide and brinzolomide

A

Acts as diuretics by inhibiting formation of aqueous humour and used in glaucoma

173
Q

ACEi mechanism of action

A

Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II (prevents breakdown of bradykinin = lowering bp)

174
Q

ACEi indications

A

Hypertention
HF
Secondary prevention of CV events
Nephropathy

175
Q

Contraindications of ACEi use

A

Afro-Caribbean origin; increased risk of angioedema
Previous or family hx of angioedema
Pregnancy and breastfeeding
Renal impairment due to increased risk of hyperkalaemia
Not to be used with alskinen
EGFR <60

176
Q

When to take ACEi

A

First dose hypotension ; first dose at night once stabilised then continue morning
Higher risk in HF patient, taking diuretics
Discontinue potassium sparing duretics; risk hyperkalaemia

177
Q

ACEi interactions

A

A2RBs
Diuretics
Allopurinol
NSAIDs
Digoxin
Lithium

178
Q

Initiation under specialist supervision with ACEi

A

Severe or unstable HF
Pts receiving high doses diuretics
Concomitant use of ACE II receptor antagonist or alskiren
Known renovascular disease
Hyponatraemia
Hypotension
Pts with hypovolaemia

179
Q

Side effects of ACEi

A

Dry cough persistent ; consider switching to ARBs
Diziness
Headaches
Abdominal discomfort; constipation, diarrhoea, nausea vomiting
Alopecia
Angioedema (higher in afro-Caribbean or delayed)
Skin reactions
Hyperkalaemia

180
Q

ACEi and monitoring

A

Renal function
Electrolytes

181
Q

ARBs

A

Less likely to cause dry cough
E.g candersartan, irbesartan, losartan valsartan
Used with ACEi is CI
Hypotension, Diziness, hyperkalaemia, oral ulcers, taste disturbances

182
Q

What drugs to avoid in AKI

A

Nephrotoxic drugs
Diuretics, ACEi, Metformin and NSAIDs
DAMN

183
Q

Renin inhibitors

A

Aliskiren
Licensed hypertention alone or in combo with other antihypertensives
ACEi and aliskiren = hyperkalaemia , hypotension or renal impairment

184
Q

Raynauds syndrome

A

Blood circulation issue; fingertip and toes change colour
Pain numbness, pin/needles, difficulty moving affected area
Treat; nifedipine, exercise, keeping warm, stopping smoking

185
Q

Chilblains

A

Small itchy patches on skin from being out in the cold; worse once you warm up
Self limiting; soothing lotion, whitch hazel to relieve the itching

186
Q

Amiodarone side effects

A

Corneal micro-deposits; night time glare
Phototoxicity
Slate/grey skin on light exposed areas
Peripheral neuropathy; numbness tingly feet etc
Pulmonary fibrosis (dry cough), pneumonitis
Thyroid dysfunction (contains iodine; hyperthyroid symptoms)

187
Q

Monitoring requirements in amiodarone

A

Annual eye checks
X-ray prior to treatment
LFTs ever 6 months
TSH levels before treatment and every 6 months
BP and ECG
Serum potassium

188
Q

Amiodarone interactions

A

Has a long half life - be aware even if stopped
Increase concentrationn with statins and grapefruit juice
Interacts QT prolongation drugs; increases ventricular arrhythmias risk
Enzyme inhibitors; half dose with digoxin, warfarin and phenytoin
Bradycardia, av block ad myocardial depression

189
Q

Chest pain clinical features

A

Oxygen saturation <92%
HR >130 bpm
Respiratory rate >30 BPM
Altered state consciousness
Hyperthermia 38.5 +
BP diastolic <60 or systolic <90

190
Q

What does QRISK calculate

A

CV risk of someone over the next 10 years