Cardiovascular Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Which stage of hypertension is a SBP of 120-139 mmHg / DBP of 80-89 mmHg?

A

Pre-hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which stage of hypertension is SBP 140-159mmHg / DBP 90-99?

A

Stage 1 Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What stage of hypertension is SBP >160 mmHg / >100 mmHg?

A

Stage 2 Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the JNC8 blood pressure goals for uncomplicated Hypertension in >60 years and <60 years?

A

<140/90 for <60 years

<150/90 for >60 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the JNC8 blood pressure goals for a patient with diabetes or CKD?

A

<140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What treatment does JNC8 recommend for a patient with hypertension and the compelling indication of Left Ventricular Dysfunction?

A

Diuretic with ACEi or ARB, then add a Beta Blocker

Can add on an Aldosterone Antagonist as second line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What treatment does JNC8 recommend for a patient with hypertension and the compelling indication of prior MI?

A

Beta blocker, then add ACEi or ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What treatment does JNC8 recommend for a patient with hypertension and the compelling indication of Coronary Artery Disease?

A

Beta blocker, then ACEi or ARB

CCB as second line

Thiazide as 3rd line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What treatment does JNC8 recommend for a patient with hypertension and the compelling indication of Diabetes Mellitus?

A

ACEi or ARB if Caucasian

CCB or Thiazide if African American

ACEi or ARB, CCB, Thiazide as second line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What treatment does JNC8 recommend for a patient with hypertension and the compelling indication of CKD?

A

ACEi or ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What treatment does JNC8 recommend for a patient with hypertension and the compelling indication of Recurrent Stroke Prevention?

A

Thiazide or Thiazide + ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What therapy approach does JNC8 recommend for stage 1 hypertension?

A

Mono therapy using ACEi, ARB, CCB, or Thiazide

For African Americans: CCB or Thiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What therapy approach does JNC8 recommend for stage 2 hypertension?

A

Initiate a two drug combination, preferably using:

Thiazide or CCB
PLUS
ACEi or ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What class of diuretic is chlorthalidone?

A

Thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What class of drug is Lozol?

A

Thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What class of drug is Metolazone?

A

Thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?

A

Inhibit Na+ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the brand name of chlorthalidone?

A

Thalitone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the brand name of hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Microzide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the brand name of Metolazone?

A

Zaroxolyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a contraindication for thiazide diuretics?

A

Sulfa allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the six primary side effects of thiazide diuretics?

A

Hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the five main monitoring parameters for Thiazide diuretics?

A

Blood pressure, electrolytes, BUN/SCr, blood glucose, uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the drug interaction between thiazide diuretics and lithium?

A

Thiazides may increase the risk of lithium toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the drug interaction between thiazide diuretics and antidiabetic agents?

A

Thiazides may decrease the effects of antidiabetic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the drug interaction between thiazide diuretics and NSAIDs?

A

NSAIDs May decrease the antihypertensive effects of thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the correlation between thiazide diuretics and creatinine clearance?

A

Thiazide diuretics are not effective when CrCl is less than 30 mL/min. The exception to this is Metolazone. In the case of CrCL less than 30 mL/min a loop diuretic should be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or False

Thiazide diuretics have a ceiling dose and loop diuretics do not?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the MOA of Loop diuretics?

A

Inhibit Na+ reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the only three cases that loop diuretics should be used for hypertension?

A

CrCl <30 mL/min
Severe edema
Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the MOA of potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the two potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Midamor (Amiloride)

Triamterene (Dyrenium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two contraindications for potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Hyperkalemia and CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the three main monitoring parameters for potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Blood pressure, K+, BUN/SCr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the risk involved with using potassium sparing diuretics K+ supplements, ACEis, ARBs, ARAs, Or NSAIDs?

A

Increased risk of hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True or False

Potassium sparing diuretics are often used as monotherapy?

A

False

Potassium sparing diuretics are weak antihypertensives. Therefore they are usually used with HCTZ to decrease K+ loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the brand name for triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Dyazide or Maxzide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the brand name for amiloride and HCTZ

A

Moduretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the MOA of aldosterone receptor antagonists and how often are they used for hypertension?

A

Similar to potassium sparing diuretics but they also block the effects of aldosterone.

They are not often used for hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the name brand for Spironolactone and hydrochlorothiazide?

A

aldactazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the MOA of beta blockers?

A

Decreased cardiac output it by negative inotropic (decreased contractility) and negative chronotropic (decreased HR) effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What makes a beta blocker cardioselective and why would you need one?

A

Finding more to B1 than B2 receptors (at low doses) making it less likely to cause bronchoconstriction. It is safer to use in patients with Asthma, COPD, PAD or DM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which beta blockers are cardioselective?

A

BAMBA

Bisoprolol, Atenolol, Metoprolol, Betaxolol, Acebutolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which beta blockers have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity/partial B receptor agonist activity?

A

CAPP

Carteolol, Acebutolol, Pindolol, Penbutolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which beta blockers are lipophilic and thus more likely to cause CNS side effects such as depression and fatigue?

A

Propranolol, metoprolol, carvedilol, labetolol, pindolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the brand name of acebutolol?

A

Sectral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the brand name of betaxolol?

A

Kerlone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the brand name of bisoprolol?

A

Zebeta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the two contra indications for beta blockers?

A

Greater than or equal to 2nd° heart block and heart failure (with the exception of metoprolol, bisoprolol or carvedilol)

50
Q

What is the concern with beta blockers and diabetic patients?

A

Beta blockers can mask hypoglycemia in patients with diabetes

51
Q

What drug interaction exist between beta blockers and negative chronotropes (digoxin, verapamil, diltiazem, clonodine)?

A

Increased risk of Bradycardia

52
Q

What is the proper way to discontinue beta blockers?

A

Abrupt discontinuation may cause angina, MI, or hypertensive emergency. You must taper the dose over two weeks

53
Q

What is the brand name for carvedilol?

A

Coreg

54
Q

What is the brand name for labetalol?

A

Trandate

55
Q

What is the brand name for Nadolol?

A

Corgard

56
Q

What is the brand name for timolol?

A

Blocadren

57
Q

Which beta blockers have alpha-1 blocking properties?

A

Labetalol and carvedilol

58
Q

What is the brand name for atenolol and chlorthalidone?

A

Tenoretic

59
Q

What is the brand name for bisoprolol and hydrochlorthiazide?

A

Ziac

60
Q

What is the brand name for a propanolol and hydrochlorthiazide?

A

Inderide

61
Q

What is the brand name for metoprolol and hydrochlorthiazide?

A

LopressorHCT

62
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors?

A

Prevent the conversion of angiotensin one to angiotensin II leading to vasodilation, decreased aldosterone production and inhibited degradation of bradykinin

63
Q

What is the brand name of benazepril?

A

Lotensin

64
Q

What is the brand name of captopril?

A

Capoten

65
Q

What is the brand name of enalapril?

A

Vasotec

66
Q

What is the brand name of fosinopril?

A

Monopril

67
Q

What is the brand name of quinapril?

A

Accupril

68
Q

What is the brand name of moexipril?

A

Univasc

69
Q

What is the brand name of perindopril?

A

Aceon

70
Q

What is the brand name of Ramipril?

A

Altace

71
Q

What is the brand name of trandolapril?

A

Mavik

72
Q

What are the five contraindications for ACE inhibitors?

A

Pregnancy, history of angioedema or renal failure with previous use, hyperkalemia, and bilateral renal artery stenosis

73
Q

What are the four primary side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

Hyperkalemia, renal insufficiency, dry cough, and angioedema

74
Q

What are the three monitoring parameters for ACE inhibitors?

A

BP
BUN/ SCr
K+

75
Q

What is the drug interaction with ACEis or ARBs and lithium?

A

ACEis or ARBs may increase lithium toxicity

76
Q

Which ACEi has the shortest duration of action?

A

Captopril

77
Q

What is the brand name for benazepril and amlodipine?

A

lotrel

78
Q

What is the name brand for benazepril and hydrochlorthiazide?

A

Lotensin HCT

79
Q

What is the brand name for captopril and hydrochlorthiazide?

A

Capozide

80
Q

What is the brand name for enalapril and hydrochlorthiazide?

A

Vaseretic

81
Q

What is the brand name for fosinopril and hydrochlorthiazide?

A

Monopril HCT

82
Q

What is the brand name for lisinopril and HCTZ?

A

Zestoretic

83
Q

What is the brand name for trandolapril and verapamil?

A

Tarka

84
Q

What is the MOA of the angiotensin II receptor blockers?

A

Inhibit the binding of angiotensin II to the angiotensin type one receptor leading to vasodilation, decreased aldosterone production, with no effect on bradykinin

85
Q

What is the brand name of eprosartan??

A

Tevetan

86
Q

What is the brand name of Irbesartan?

A

Avapro

87
Q

What is the brand name of losartan?

A

Cozaar

88
Q

What is the brand name of olmesartan?

A

Benicar

89
Q

What is the brand name of telmisartan?

A

Micardis

90
Q

What is the brand name of valsartan?

A

Diovan

91
Q

What is the brand name of candesartan and hctz?

A

Atacand HCT

92
Q

What is the brand name of irbesartan and hctz?

A

Avalide

93
Q

What is the brand name of losartan and hctz?

A

Hyzaar

94
Q

What is the brand name of olmesartan and amlodipine?

A

Azor

95
Q

What is the brand name of telmisartan and amlodipine?

A

Twynsta

96
Q

What is the brand name of valsartan and amlodipine?

A

Exforge

97
Q

What is the name brand for Aliskiren?

A

Tekturna

98
Q

What is the MOA of renin inhibitors?

A

Inhibits renin and prevents the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin one, which then decreases production of angiotensin II

99
Q

What are the four contra indications for renin inhibitors?

A

Pregnancy, history of drug induced angioedema, hyperkalemia, and bilateral renal artery stenosis

100
Q

What are the five primary side effects for renin inhibitors?

A

Headache, dizziness, diarrhea, hyperkalemia, and renal insufficiency

101
Q

Which three drugs may increase the effects of renin inhibitors?

A

Atorvastatin, ketoconazole, and cyclosporine

102
Q

What type of meals should be avoided when taking aliskiren?

A

High fat meals

103
Q

What is the brand name of aliskiren and hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Valturna

104
Q

What is the MOA of calcium channel blockers?

A

Bind to L type channels and the heart to block in word movement of calcium waiting to vascular smooth muscle relaxation (vasodilation)

105
Q

Which calcium channel blockers have negative inotropic effects (decreased contractility)?

A

All of them except amlodipine and felodipine

106
Q

How are the dihydropyridine calcium Channel blockers different?

A

They are more selective to vasculature and are more potent vasodilators. They also have no effect on cardiac conduction

107
Q

Which calcium channel blocker’s are non-dihydropyridines and what makes them different?

A

Diltiazem and verapamil. They cause less peripheral vasodilation and have negative chronotropic properties. (Decreased heart rate)

108
Q

What is the brand name for felodipine?

A

Plendil

109
Q

What is the brand name of israpidine?

A

DynaCirc CR

110
Q

What is the brand name for nicardipine?

A

Cardene

111
Q

What is the brand name for nifedipine?

A

adalat or procardia XL

112
Q

What is the brand name for nisoldipine?

A

Sular

113
Q

What are the six primary side effects of DHP calcium channel blockers?

A

Reflex tachycardia, headache, Flushing, peripheral edema, gingival hyperplasia, heart failure exacerbation (except for amlodipine and felodipine which do not cause negative inotropy/decreased contractility)

114
Q

What are the three key monitoring parameters for calcium channel blocker’s

A

Blood pressure, heart rate, signs of heart failure

115
Q

What is the effect of CYP3A4 inducers and inhibitors on DHP calcium channel blockers?

A

CYP3A4 inducers may decrease CCB effects

Inhibitors my increase effects

116
Q

True or false you should not use grapefruit juice when taking any calcium channel blocker?

A

True

117
Q

What is the brand name for diltiazem?

A

cardizem or Taztia

118
Q

What is the brand name for verapamil?

A

calan

119
Q

What are the two contra indications for non-DHP calcium channel blocker’s?

A

Greater than or equal to 2nd° heart block and systolic heart failure

120
Q

What are the five primary side effects of non-DHP calcium channel blockers?

A

Bradycardia or heart block, constipation, peripheral edema, gingival hyperplasia, and Heart failure exacerbation